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BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test BPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2024 - BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 for Civil Engineering (CE) 2024 is part of BPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Civil Engineering (CE) exam syllabus.The BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 MCQs are made for Civil Engineering (CE) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 below.
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BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

The official housing price index (HPI) of India is determined by whom?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

Key Points

  • National Housing Bank (NHB) is responsible for determining the official Housing Price Index (HPI) in India.
  • NHB is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), established to promote housing finance institutions and to provide financial and other support to such institutions.
  • The HPI by NHB helps in understanding the price changes in residential housing sectors across different cities and periods.
  • The index serves as a crucial tool for policymakers, investors, and researchers in making informed decisions related to the housing sector.

Additional Information

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

Match the column named 'Windows10 Keyboard Shortcut' with the column named 'Description'.

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

Key Points

Windows10 Keyboard Shortcuts

  • Shift + Delete - This shortcut is used to delete selected items without moving them to the Recycle Bin. It is a permanent delete option. Hence, (a) matches with (ii).
  • Alt + Spacebar - This shortcut is used to open the shortcut menu for the active window. This menu typically includes options like Restore, Move, Size, Minimize, Maximize, and Close. Hence, (b) matches with (iii).
  • Shift + Ins - This shortcut is used to paste selected items. It is an alternative to the more commonly known Ctrl + V shortcut. Hence, (c) matches with (iv).
  • Ctrl + X - This shortcut is used to cut the selected item. It removes the item from its current location and stores it in the clipboard for pasting elsewhere. Hence, (d) matches with (i).

Additional Information

  • Windows Keyboard Shortcuts - Windows operating systems provide a variety of keyboard shortcuts to enhance user efficiency and productivity. These shortcuts allow users to perform tasks quickly without the need for a mouse.
  • Shift + Delete - This shortcut is particularly useful when you want to permanently delete files or folders without sending them to the Recycle Bin. Be cautious when using this shortcut as it bypasses the Recycle Bin, making recovery more difficult.
  • Alt + Spacebar - This shortcut opens the system menu for the active window. It is useful for managing windows, especially when the title bar is not accessible or visible.
  • Shift + Ins - This shortcut is often used in text editors and document processors to paste content from the clipboard. It is less common but equally effective as Ctrl + V.
  • Ctrl + X - The cut command is essential for moving text, files, or folders from one location to another. It temporarily stores the cut item in the clipboard until it is pasted elsewhere using Ctrl + V or Shift + Ins.
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BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Which of the given options best describes the truth of the following statements?

i) Microsoft Outlook is an email application software.

ii) Email clients use mail access protocols such as POP/IMAP protocols to retrieve/sync emails from the server.

iii) Microsoft Exchange Server is a mail server and calendaring server developed by SunMicrosystems.

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Key Points

  • Statement i: Microsoft Outlook is an email application software.
    • Microsoft Outlook is indeed a popular email application that is part of the Microsoft Office suite.
    • It is used for email communication, calendar scheduling, task management, contact management, note-taking, and journal logging.
    • Outlook can be used as a stand-alone application or can work with Microsoft Exchange Server and Microsoft SharePoint Server for multiple users in an organization.
    Hence, statement i is correct.
  • Statement ii: Email clients use mail access protocols such as POP/IMAP protocols to retrieve/sync emails from the server.
    • POP (Post Office Protocol) and IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) are standard protocols used by email clients to retrieve messages from a mail server.
    • POP downloads emails from the server to the local computer and usually deletes them from the server, whereas IMAP synchronizes emails between the server and the client, allowing for better management of emails across multiple devices.
    • These protocols ensure that users can access their emails from different devices while keeping their messages up-to-date.
    Hence, statement ii is correct.
  • Statement iii: Microsoft Exchange Server is a mail server and calendaring server developed by Sun Microsystems.
    • Microsoft Exchange Server is actually developed by Microsoft, not Sun Microsystems.
    • It is a mail server and calendaring server used by businesses and organizations for email communication, scheduling, and collaboration.
    • Sun Microsystems was known for developing other technologies like the Java programming language and the Solaris operating system but not for Exchange Server.
    Hence, statement iii is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft Outlook:
    • It was first released in 1997 as part of the Office 97 suite.
    • Outlook offers integration with other Microsoft applications and services, making it a versatile tool for professional communication and organization.
  • POP and IMAP Protocols:
    • POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is the most recent version of a standard protocol for receiving email.
    • IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) was designed to allow multiple clients to manage the same mailbox, making it more suitable for users who access their email from various devices.
  • Microsoft Exchange Server:
    • First released in 1996, Exchange Server supports various communication protocols, including SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), POP3, IMAP, and MAPI (Messaging Application Programming Interface).
    • It provides email, calendaring, contacts, and tasks, and supports data storage and search functionalities.
    • Exchange is widely used in enterprise environments due to its robust security features and integration with Active Directory.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

Who among the following wrote Ain-I Akbari?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

Key Points

  • A major source for the agrarian history of the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries are chronicles and documents from the Mughal court.

  • One of the most important chronicles was the Ain-i Akbari authored by Akbar’s court historian Abu’l Fazl.

  • This text meticulously recorded the arrangements made by the state to ensure cultivation, to enable the collection of revenue by the agencies of the state, and to regulate the relationship between the state and rural magnates, the zamindars.

  • This book was written in a mixture of Turkis and Persian languages.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

Who developed the computer language COBOL?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

Key Points

  • The computer language COBOL (Common Business-Oriented Language) was developed by a committee called the CODASYL (Conference on Data Systems Languages) in 1959.
  • This committee was a joint initiative between the United States government and the private sector.
  • The objective was to create a programming language that could be used across different types of computers for business applications, emphasizing readability and portability.
  • Notably, Rear Admiral Grace Hopper, a pioneering computer scientist, played a significant role in the development of COBOL, advocating for the creation of a language that would use English words to facilitate business data processing.

Additional Information

  • John Backus is known for leading the team that invented FORTRAN (FORmula TRANslation), the first widely used high-level programming language. He was also the inventor of the Backus-Naur form (BNF), a notation that is widely used to define the syntax of programming languages.
  • Robert Noyce, often referred to as "the Mayor of Silicon Valley," was a co-inventor of the integrated circuit (microchip) and co-founder of Fairchild Semiconductor in 1957 and Intel Corporation in 1968.
  • Alan Shugart was a pioneer in the disk storage industry. He was the founder of Shugart Associates and Seagate Technology. Shugart Associates played a significant role in the development of the floppy disk, and Seagate Technology was pivotal in the mass production of hard disk drives, crucial for data storage in computers.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

Which one of the following does not increase while moving down the group of the periodic table?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

Atomic radius and its trends:

  • It specifies the radius of the atom i.e distance between the nucleus and the outermost shell.
  • The size of the atom reduces in moving from left to right along a period.
  • Hence, the atomic radius decreases in moving from left to right along a period.
  • Atomic radius increases from top to bottom within a group.

Metallic character and its trends :

  • It specifies the tendency of an element to lose electrons and form positive ions or cations.
  • On moving downwards in a group the metallic character increases.
  • On moving from left to right in a period the metallic character decreases

Trends of valence electrons and the number of shells:

  • The number of electron shells increases on moving down a group.
  • Since the elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in their outer shell, the valence electrons remain constant.
  • For example, all the elements in group 1 have 1 electron in their outer shell.

Key Points Periodic table:

  • It's an arrangement of all the known elements.
  • All elements are arranged (from left to right and top to bottom) in order of increasing atomic number and recurring chemical properties.
  • All the rows represent periods.
  • All the columns represent groups.
  • Elements in the same group have the same valence electron configuration and therefore same chemical properties.
  • Elements in the same period have an increasing order of valence electrons.
  • The elements are arranged in 7 horizontal rows, called periods, and 18 vertical columns, called groups.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

The electrical energy dissipated per unit time is the:

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

Key Points

  • Power dissipation is the process of loss of power in the form of heat due to primary action.
  • Power dissipation is a naturally occurring process. All the resistors that are part of the circuit and have a voltage drop across them will dissipate power.
  • Power Rule: P = I × V
  • If a current I flows through through a given element in your circuit, losing voltage V in the process, then the power dissipated by that circuit element is the product of that current and voltage.

Additional Information

  • Capacitance is the amount of charge that can be stored at a given voltage by an electrical component called a capacitor.
  • The unit of capacitance is the Farad (F) and a 1F capacitor charged to 1V will hold one Coulomb of charge.
  • The potential difference is the work done in moving a unit of positive electric charge from one point to another. The symbol for the potential difference is V.
  • Energy consumption refers to ALL the energy used to perform an action, manufacture something or simply inhabit a building.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for heat?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Calorimetry

  • Calorimetry is the science of measurement of heat. Its methods are used for determining the specific heat and latent heat of a substance. This method uses the basic premise that when two bodies at different temperatures are brought into contact, the hotter body loses heat and the colder body gains heat till their temperature becomes equal. The heat thus lost by the hotter body equals the heat gained by the colder body.
  • You must remember, however, that even though the heat exchanged is equal the temperature changes are different. Another important thing to remember here is that when two bodies are brought together their final temperature will always be greater than (or equal to) the temperature of the colder body and always less than (or equal to) the temperature of the hotter body.
  • The heat content per gram of steam at 100°C is greater than the heat content per gram of water at 100°C.
  • This is because the heat energy supplied to convert water into steam is retained by steam.
  • the sum of the heat of an individual body will always be equal to the total amount of heat unless the heat energy is not transformed into another form of energy.
  • Therefore, here option 4 is incorrect as it is not completely given.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

  1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
  2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Key Points

Carbon Fibres:

  • Carbon fibres are lightweight and incredibly strong materials that are widely used in various industries.
  • They are composed of thin strands of carbon atoms tightly woven together, resulting in a high-strength, low-weight structure.
  • Carbon fibres offer exceptional mechanical properties, including high tensile strength, stiffness, and resistance to temperature and corrosion.
  • They are utilized in the manufacturing of wings, fuselages, and structural parts, contributing to improved fuel efficiency and overall performance.
  • The use of carbon fibres in automotive applications helps reduce vehicle weight, enhancing fuel efficiency and handling while maintaining safety standards.
  • Carbon fibres are known for their high strength-to-weight ratio, rigidity, and heat resistance, making them suitable for many parts in the aerospace and automotive industries. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • While recycling carbon fibre can be challenging due to the nature of the composite materials it's often used in, techniques and technologies for carbon fibre recycling have been developed and are improving. Therefore, it's not accurate to say that used carbon fibre cannot be recycled. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

Gold and silver are extracted from their respective ores by ________.

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

 

Gold and silver are extracted from their respective ores by ​Hydrometallurgy.

  • In the hydrometallurgy process uses aqueous solutions to extract metals from ores.
  • This process is used in the extraction of least reactive metals like gold and silver.
  • Hydrometallurgy is divided into three general areas -
    • Leaching,
    • Solution concentration and purification.
    • Metal or metal compound recovery.
  • Most of the gold, silver, copper, and zinc are produced by the hydrometallurgy process.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

What is the general stereoscopic division between the points in the free state?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

Key Points

  • A crystal lattice is a three-dimensional arrangement of atoms, ions, or molecules in a crystalline material.
  • The points in a crystal lattice represent the positions of the constituent particles.
  • Each point in the lattice is known as a lattice point or lattice site.
  • The geometric arrangement of these points defines the structure of the crystal.
  • This structure is repetitive and extends in all three spatial dimensions.
  • The study of crystal lattices is crucial in the field of solid-state physics and materials science.
  • Common types of crystal lattices include cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal, monoclinic, and triclinic.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

Who discovered the vaccine for smallpox in 1798?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

Key Points

  • Edward Jenner, an English physician, is credited with the discovery of the smallpox vaccine.
  • In 1796, Jenner performed an experiment in which he inoculated a young boy with material from cowpox lesions.
  • This process, known as vaccination (derived from the Latin word "vacca," meaning cow), provided immunity against smallpox.
  • Jenner's groundbreaking work laid the foundation for modern immunology and vaccination practices, saving countless lives and leading to the eventual eradication of smallpox, which was declared by the World Health Organization in 1980.

Additional Information

  • Alexander Fleming:
    • Alexander Fleming was a Scottish biologist, pharmacologist, and botanist.
    • He is best known for his accidental discovery of the antibiotic penicillin in 1928.
    • Penicillin revolutionized medicine by providing an effective treatment for bacterial infections.
  • Robert Koch:
    • Robert Koch was a German physician and microbiologist.
    • He is considered one of the founders of modern bacteriology and is known for his groundbreaking work on identifying the causative agents of various infectious diseases.
    • Koch is famous for his discoveries of the bacteria that cause tuberculosis and cholera.
  • Louis Pasteur:
    • Louis Pasteur was a French biologist, microbiologist, and chemist.
    • He is renowned for his contributions to the understanding of microbial fermentation, pasteurization, and the development of vaccines.
    • Pasteur's work in vaccine development includes the rabies vaccine, which was a significant milestone in the prevention of rabies.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

State which of the following statements related to latitude are true.

  1. Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.
  2. The difference between the longest and shortest day is increases with latitude.
Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Important Points

Statement 1: Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.

  • At equator, the rainfall is maximum, and amount of rainfall generally decreases away from equator.
  • Temperature also generally decreases away from the equator.
  • Vegetation depends upon rainfall and temperature and hence it also varies with latitude.


Statement 2: The difference between the longest day and the shortest day increases with latitude.

  • At latitude 0° (the Equator) day length will be approximately 12 hours.
  • Areas on the Equator have a constant 12 hours of day light all year round.
  • Moving away from the Equator as latitude increases to polar circles - north or south-day length can be seen to increase to 24 hours in summer or decrease to zero in winter.

Given the explanations and context provided, Option 1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct is the accurate choice.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

"Siderite" is the ore of which among the following metals ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

Key Points

  • Siderite is an ore of Iron. Its chemical formula is FeCO3
  • Though it contains only 48% Iron, it is a valuable iron mineral, since it does not contain any sulfur or phosphorus.​

Additional Information

  • Some Ores of Iron:-

Some facts about Iron:-

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :

  1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
  2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

Key Points

  • Statement 1: The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
  • The Annual Financial Statement, commonly known as the Union Budget, is presented by the Union Finance Minister on behalf of the President of India, who acts on the advice of the Prime Minister. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Statement 2: At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
  • As per Article 113 of the Indian Constitution, no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the authority of a warrant issued by the President.
  • The demands for grants are presented to Parliament along with the Annual Financial Statement and are subject to the President's recommendation. Hence statement 2 is correct
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

What is the quantitative study of products made in the required reactions or chemical reactions?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

Key Points

  • Stoichiometry is the branch of chemistry that deals with the quantitative relationships between the amounts of reactants and products in a chemical reaction.
  • It is based on the conservation of mass and the concept of the mole.
  • Stoichiometry involves calculations that allow chemists to predict the amount of products that will form in a chemical reaction based on the amount of reactants used.
  • It is essential for determining the proportions of elements in compounds and the yields of reactions.
  • Stoichiometry is widely used in chemical engineering, pharmaceuticals, environmental science, and many other fields.

Additional Information

  • Optometry
    • Optometry is the practice or profession of examining the eyes for visual defects and prescribing corrective lenses.
    • It is not related to chemical reactions or the study of reactants and products.
  • Monomaterial
    • Monomaterial refers to products that are made from a single type of material.
    • This term is commonly used in manufacturing and recycling to describe products that are easier to recycle because they are made from only one material.
    • It does not pertain to the quantitative study of chemical reactions.
  • Photometry
    • Photometry is the science of measuring visible light in terms of its perceived brightness to the human eye.
    • It involves the measurement of light intensity and is used in fields such as astronomy, photography, and vision science.
    • Photometry is not related to the quantitative study of chemical reactions.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

What is the full from of ASCII?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

Key Points

ASCII:

  • It stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • It is a standard data-transmission code that is used by smaller and less-powerful computers to represent both textual data (letters, numbers, and punctuation marks) and noninput-device commands (control characters).
  • It's a 7-bit character code where every single bit represents a unique character.
  • It converts information into standardized digital formats that allow computers to communicate with each other and to efficiently process and store data.
  • On this webpage, you will find 8 bits, 256 characters, ASCII table according to Windows-1252 (code page 1252) which is a superset of ISO 8859-1 in terms of printable characters.
  • In the range, 128 to 159 (hex 80 to 9F), ISO/IEC 8859-1 has invisible control characters, while Windows-1252 has writable characters.
  • Windows-1252 is probably the most-used 8-bit character encoding in the world.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

Why goldsmiths use the outermost zone of a flame for melting gold and silver, considering the temperature distribution within a flame.

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

The art of melting metals like gold and silver demands precision, efficiency, and a deep understanding of the properties of fire. In this context, goldsmiths strategically utilize the outermost zone of a flame during the melting process. This choice is based on the inherent temperature distribution within a flame. Contrary to some beliefs, the outermost zone is not the coolest but the hottest part of the flame, making it exceptionally well-suited for efficiently melting high-melting-point metals such as gold and silver.

In the typical structure of a flame, especially one produced by a gas burner, the temperature increases from the inner core towards the outer zones. The outermost zone, known as the “non-luminous flame,” is characterized by complete combustion and, consequently, reaches the highest temperatures. Such temperatures are necessary to surpass the melting points of gold (approximately 1064°C) and silver (approximately 962°C), ensuring that these metals become sufficiently fluid for molding and casting. Using this zone, goldsmiths can melt precious metals with the efficiency required for their delicate tasks.

Concepts:

  1. Temperature Distribution in a Flame: A flame's temperature is not uniform; it increases from the interior zones to the outermost zone, with the outer zone being the hottest.
  2. Complete Combustion: Occurs in the outermost zone of the flame, ensuring the maximum release of energy and thus the highest temperatures.
  3. Melting Points of Metals: Metals like gold and silver have high melting points that can only be reached with the temperatures available in the outermost zone of a flame.
  4. Efficiency in Melting Metals: The use of the hottest part of the flame allows goldsmiths to melt metals quickly and efficiently, reducing the time and energy needed for the process.

Conclusion:

So, goldsmiths use the outermost zone of a flame for melting gold and silver, considering the temperature distribution within a flame is It is the hottest part, efficiently melting metals.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Where will the maritime cooperative activity involving the defense forces of the US, Japan, Australia, and the Philippines take place?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

The maritime cooperative activity involving the defense forces of the US, Japan, Australia, and the Philippines will take place in the South China Sea.

Key Points

  • Specifically, the activity will occur in Manila's exclusive economic zone (EEZ) in the South China Sea.
  • Participating vessels include the USS Mobile, HMAS Warramunga, JS Akebono, and two Philippine warships.
  • The activity aims to strengthen the interoperability of the countries' armed forces and support a free and open Indo-Pacific.
  • The joint statement reaffirms the final and legally binding nature of the 2016 South China Sea Arbitral Tribunal Award.
  • This initiative comes amid rising tensions in the region due to China's growing assertiveness and territorial disputes.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 20
Which of the following food additives are helpful to combine products containing immiscible food ingredients, such as oil and water, with one another?
Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 20
The correct answer is Food emulsifiers.
  • Food emulsifiers are additives that help combine immiscible ingredients, such as oil and water, in food products.
  • They stabilize the mixture by reducing surface tension between the two substances, preventing separation.
  • Food Preservatives:
    • Purpose: Extend the shelf life of food products by inhibiting the growth of microorganisms.
    • Examples: Sodium benzoate, potassium sorbate.
  • Food Stabilizers:
    • Purpose: Improve the texture and consistency of food products by preventing separation or crystallization.
    • Examples: Gelatin, agar-agar, carrageenan.
  • Food Sweeteners:
    • Purpose: Add sweetness to food and beverages as alternatives to sugar.
    • Examples: Sucralose, aspartame, stevia
  • While food emulsifiers aid in combining ingredients like oil and water, food stabilizers contribute to the overall stability of a product.
  • Food preservatives are used to prevent spoilage, and food sweeteners add sweetness without the use of sugar.
  • Each additive serves a specific purpose in enhancing the quality, texture, and shelf life of various food items.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

Lubrication of all moving parts is essential to

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

The correct answer is Reduce friction.

Key Points

  • Friction is a force that resists the movement of one object over another.
  • High friction can cause damage to parts and reduce efficiency.
  • Lubrication is applied to all moving parts of a machine to reduce friction.
  • This helps in efficient operation, reduces wear and tear, and extends the life of the machine.

Let's look at the other options:

  • Increase friction: The purpose of lubrication is actually to decrease friction, not to increase it.

Hence option 1 is not correct.

  • Increase speed: While it's true that reducing friction might allow a system to move more easily which could in some cases result in increased speed.
    • But, the primary goal of lubrication is not specifically to increase speed.
    • Rather, the goal is to reduce friction and prevent wear, which in turn may lead to better performance and potentially higher speeds.

Hence option 3 is not correct..

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the Gallantry Awards in India:

  1. Kirti Chakra: It is the second-highest peacetime gallantry award.
  2. Shaurya Chakra: It is awarded for gallantry, courageous action, or self-sacrifice while engaged in direct action with the enemy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

The President of India, Smt Droupadi Murmu presented Gallantry Awards at the Defence Investiture Ceremony-2024.

Key Points:

Kirti Chakra:

  • It is the peacetime equivalent of the Maha Vir Chakra, the second-highest peacetime gallantry award. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Awarded for displaying conspicuous gallantry, indomitable courage, and extreme devotion to duty. or self-sacrifice away from the field of battle.
  • Eligibility and Design: Open to civilians as well as military personnel, including posthumous awards. A circular silver medal with a lotus flower in the center and a chakra around it, suspended from a green ribbon with two orange stripes.

Shaurya Chakra:

  • An Indian military decoration awarded for gallantry, courageous action, or self-sacrifice while not engaged in direct action with the enemy. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Represents the spirit of bravery, valor, and devotion to duty in peacetime.
  • Eligibility and Design: Open to civilians as well as military personnel, including posthumous awards. Circular bronze medal with a replica of the Ashoka Chakra, the national emblem of India, in the center.
  • Features a lotus wreath around the Ashoka Chakra symbol. Suspended from a green ribbon with three vertical lines.

Additional Information

Gallantry Awards in India:

  • Post-Independence, the first three gallantry awards namely Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra were instituted by the government of India on 26th January 1950 and were deemed to have effect from 15th August 1947.
  • Thereafter, three other gallantry awards — the Ashoka Chakra Class-I, the Ashoka Chakra Class-II, and the Ashoka Chakra Class-III — were instituted in 1952 and were deemed to have effect from 15th August 1947.
  • These awards were renamed Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra respectively in January 1967.
  • The order of precedence of these awards is the Param Vir Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra, the Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra, the Vir Chakra, and the Shaurya Chakra.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Which of the following can neither be created nor be destroyed ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed.

Key Points

  • First Law of Thermodynamics:
    • It is also known as the Law of Conservation of Energy and states that energy cannot be created or destroyed in an isolated system.
    • Thermodynamics was discovered by Ludwig Boltzmann.
    • Albert Einstein also said that "Energy cannot be created or destroyed. It can only be changed from one form to another."

Additional Information

  • Force is that external cause which when acts on a body, changes or tries to change the initial state of the body.
    • Force = mass × acceleration
    • Its S.I. unit is Newton (kg. m s-2)
  • Momentum is the property of a moving body and is defined as the product of mass and velocity of the body.
  • It is a vector quantity.
    • Its SI unit is kg m/s.
  • The rate of doing work is called power.
    • SI unit of power is watt or Joule Per second named as a respect to the scientist James Watt.
    • It is a scalar quantity.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Which one of the following is also called Stranger Gas ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Key Points

  • Xenon(Xe) gas is also known as stranger gas.
  • It is called 'STRANGER GAS' because the word 'XENON' means 'STRANGE' in Greek.
  • It was discovered by William Ramsay and Morris Travers in 1898.
  • It is more than 4.5 times heavier than air.
  • xenon is colorless, odorless, and tasteless.
  • It is used in instruments for radiation detection.

Additional Information

  • Nobel Gasses:
    • Nobel gasses are a group of chemical elements that do not interact with other elements in a manner.
    • General because their electron orbits are complete and filled with electrons.
    • ​Helium, Neon, Argon, Krypton, Xenon, and Radon are Nobel gasses.
    • These elements are in the eight groups of the periodic table.
    • Nobel gasses contain 0.93% of the atmospheric volume and 1.29% of its mass.​
  • Properties of Nobel Gasses:
    • ​​Show as gases in room conditions.
    • No color and no smell.
    • Have 8 electrons equivalent.
    • Produce vehicles only in special circumstances.
    • It is drawn from the air in liquefaction and distillation.
    • Found in the form of single-atom gases.
    • The very weak internal attraction between their atoms.
    • It has very low melting and boiling grades.
  • Nitrous Oxide:
    • Nitrous oxide, also known as laughing gas, is a colorless gas with a slightly sweet odor that has various applications.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

In which city did the United States host the 2024 NATO Summit?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

 

The 2024 Washington summit is an upcoming meeting of the heads of state and heads of government of the thirty-two members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), their partner countries and the European Union (EU), which will be held in Washington, DC, United States, on 9–11 July 2024

Key Points

  • The summit will commemorate the landmark 75th anniversary of NATO, which was founded on 4 April 1949 with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty in Washington, DC.
  • The summit is the fourth NATO summit to be held in the United States following the 1978 Washington summit, 1999 Washington summit and 2012 Chicago summit.
  • It also marks the first summit since Sweden acceded to NATO and the last for Jens Stoltenberg as Secretary General.
  • The official title of the 2024 Washington summit is "Ukraine and transatlantic security."
  • It is meant to highlight the focus on NATO's response to escalating global threats to peace and democracies, with particular attention to Russia's ongoing invasion of Ukraine and North Korea's involvement on the side of Russia through weapon supply and troop deployment to the Ukrainian front lines.
  • The summit will also focus on boosting defence production and reaffirming allies' commitment to military readiness and the defence of all of NATO's territory.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

A _________ hides your IP address by redirecting your IP address across the network through a specially configured remote server run by the VPN host.

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

Key Points

  • A virtual private network (VPN) conceals your IP address by redirecting it through a specially configured remote server run by the VPN host.
  • This process ensures that your online actions are virtually untraceable, providing privacy and security.
  • VPNs are commonly used to bypass geographic restrictions on websites, protect data from hackers on public Wi-Fi, and maintain anonymity online.
  • When you connect to a VPN, it creates a secure tunnel between your device and the internet.
  • VPNs use encryption protocols to ensure that any data transmitted over the internet is secure and confidential.
  • Examples of popular VPN services include NordVPN, ExpressVPN, and CyberGhost.

Additional Information

  • Global Area Network (GAN)
    • A Global Area Network (GAN) refers to a network that spans multiple countries and continents, providing a global reach.
    • It is used to support global communication and data exchange across vast distances.
    • GANs are often utilized by multinational corporations to connect their worldwide offices.
  • Private Area Network (PAN)
    • A Private Area Network (PAN) is a network designed for a specific organization or individual, providing secure and controlled access to resources.
    • PANs are typically used within a single location, such as an office or home.
    • They are not intended for large-scale public use.
  • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
    • A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) covers a larger geographic area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN).
    • MANS are typically used to connect multiple LANs within a city or metropolitan area.
    • They are often employed by cities, universities, and large organizations to provide high-speed network access across multiple locations.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

The study of human populations including their size, composition and distribution across space and the process through which populations change is called _______.

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

Key Points

  • The scientific study of the population is called demography.
  • Demography today has become a widespread part of the study of economists, sociologists, anthropologists, geographers, environmentalists, and academics.
  • Demography is a systematic science. This is a new branch of population study as compared to other sciences, which started in 1662 AD.
  • Its father is considered to be Joan Grant.
  • Robert Malthus is credited with providing the scientific basis for this.
  • The word demography is derived from two Greek words demo and graphic (demo = public, graphi = writing) which means writing about the people. The term was first used by Ashille Guilai.

Additional Information Ethnography

  • Ethnography is a branch of anthropology and a study of a particular human society or the process of making such a study.
  • It is also a type of social research, as it involves the behavioural examination of the participants in a given social situation.

Stenography

  • A stenographer is a person trained to type or write in shorthand methods, enabling them to write as quickly as people speak.

 

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

Sound Sentry is designed to help users with ________ impairments.

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

Key Points

  • Sound Sentry is designed to help users with Auditory impairments.
  • For those who suffer from hearing loss, Sound Sentry is an accessibility feature.
  • This useful tool was created with those who struggle with hearing in mind.
  • When a sound is produced by the computer, it can produce visual alerts like a blinking title bar or a screen flash.
  • ​In addition, when the computer produces a sound, Sound Sentry has the ability to produce textual or graphic alerts, such as a popping border.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

Four bulbs are having the rating 220 V 40 W, 220 V 60 W, 220 V 100 W and 220 V 18 W respectively. Which of the following bulbs has the least resistance?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

Key Points

The power dissipated in a resistor is given by,

P = V/ R

Where V is the voltage rating

R is resistance

P is power

For the same voltage rating, the bulb with the lowest resistance dissipated the highest power.

Application:

The bulb with the highest power rating offers the least resistance.

220 V 100 W bulb offers the least resistance.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding the Classical languages in India:

  1. There are six languages that enjoy the ‘Classical’ status in India.
  2. All the Classical Languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
  3. The Human Resource and Development Ministry provides guidelines regarding Classical languages.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

Centre set to tweak criteria for according classical language status.

Key Points

  • The government of India has decided to include Farsi as one of the nine classical languages of India in our New Education Policy. Tamil was the first language in India to be accorded classical language status in 2004. Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam, Telugu and Odia are the other languages that have been declared classical languages in India by the central government. In addition to these classical languages Pali, Persian, and Prakrit
    Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • All the Classical Languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • The guidelines regarding Classical languages are provided by the Ministry of Culture, not the Ministry of Human Resource and Development. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Criteria for Classical Status: The criteria include high antiquity of early texts, a rich body of ancient literature, and distinct literary traditions.
  • Benefits: Languages with Classical status receive special grants for their promotion and preservation, and scholars are awarded for exceptional work in these languages.
  • Recognition Timeline: Tamil was the first language to be given Classical status in 2004, followed by Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, and Odia.
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