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BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test BPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2024 - BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 for Civil Engineering (CE) 2024 is part of BPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Civil Engineering (CE) exam syllabus.The BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for Civil Engineering (CE) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 below.
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BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

The term NATO lake often seen in the news, is associated with:

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

rfi: Does Sweden joining make the Baltic Sea a 'NATO lake'?

Key Points

NATO lake:

  • The term “NATO lake” is being used to refer to the Baltic Sea, following the recent accession of Sweden and Finland to NATO. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • With these additions, nearly all of the countries surrounding the Baltic Sea, except Russia, are now part of the NATO alliance.
  • This has led some observers to label the Baltic Sea a “NATO lake”, suggesting that the Western allies are well-placed to limit Russia’s room for maneuver in this crucial shipping route.
  • However, analysts warn that while Sweden’s entry makes it easier for NATO to exert control and reinforce its vulnerable Baltic states, Russia can still pose a threat to the region from the heavily armed exclave Kaliningrad and threaten undersea infrastructure.
  • It’s important to note that the term “NATO lake” is more of a semantic exaggeration and does not imply complete sea control.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Who has been appointed as the chairman of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Chief Anil Kumar Lahoti has been appointed as the chairman of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).

Key Points

  • Anil Kumar Lahoti, former Railway Board Chief, has been appointed as the Chairman of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
  • Former chief PD Vaghela vacated the post in November 2023 after his two-year tenure ended
  • The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has approved Lahoti's appointment as Chairman of TRAI for three years from the date of assuming charge, or until he attains the age of 65 years
  • Lahoti will replace TRAI member Meenakshi Gupta, who held the additional charge of the top post temporarily.
  • Anil Kumar Lahoti is a 1984-batch Indian Railway Service of Engineer (IRSE) officer and holds a degree in Civil Engineering from Madhya Pradesh’s Madhav Institute of Technology.

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BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Which article envisages the official language of the union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Key Points

  • According to Article 343(1) of the Indian Constitution, Hindi in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union.
  • According to Article 343(2), English must also be used in official Union activities for a period of 15 years starting on the day the constitution took effect, or up until January 25th, 1965.
  • Again, Article 343(3) empowered the parliament to enact laws to support the survival of English even after January 25th, 1965.
  • As a result, the Official Languages Act of 1963 was passed, which guaranteed that English would be used even until the specified date of 1965.
    • According to the Act, resolutions, regulations, general instructions, notices, press releases, administrative and other reports, licences, and bids are just a few examples of things that must be written in both English and Hindi.

Additional Information

  • According to the Official Language Resolution of 1968, the government must implement a more extensive plan to hasten Hindi's adoption for official usage by the Union.
    • A yearly evaluation of the work made in this area is also required, according to the resolution, and it will be forwarded to all State governments as well as both Houses of Parliament.
    • The resolution states that steps should be taken to progress the 14 primary languages listed in the constitution's eighth schedule (at present there are 22 languages in this schedule).
    • The three-language system is encouraged to be used in the country by the resolution.
      • In accordance with this arrangement, comprehensive steps should be taken to support the study of Hindi, English, and any other modern Indian language (preferably from the southern states) in the Hindi-speaking regions, as well as Hindi, English, and the local language in the non-Hindi-speaking states.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Chief component of first generation computer was:

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Key Points

  • First-generation computers
    • The chief component of the first-generation computers was vacuum tubes and valves. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
    • The period of the first generation was between 1946 to 1959.
    • Vacuum tubes were used as the main component of memory in this generation of computers.
    • The first generation computers used vacuum tubes for circuitry and magnetic drums for memory, and were often enormous, taking up entire rooms.
    • The vacuum tube was developed by Lee De Forest.
    • A vacuum tube is a device generally used to amplify a signal by controlling the movement of electrons in an evacuated space.
    • The first generation of electronic computers used vacuum tubes, which generated large amounts of heat, was bulky, and was unreliable.
    • The second generation of computers, through the late 1950s and 1960s featured circuit boards filled with individual transistors and magnetic core memory.
    • The computers of the first-generation used vacuum tubes as the basic components for memory and circuitry for the CPU (Central Processing Unit).

Additional Information

  • A transistor
    • It is a semiconductor device used to amplify or switch electronic signals and electrical power.
    • Transistors are one of the basic building blocks of modern electronics.
    • It is composed of semiconductor material usually with at least three terminals for connection to an external circuit.
  • An integrated circuit or monolithic integrated circuit
    • It is a set of electronic circuits on one small flat piece of semiconductor material, usually silicon. Large numbers of tiny MOSFETs integrate into a small chip.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Which of the following are called nucleons?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Key Points

  • In every atom Electron, Proton and Neutrons are present.
  • The nucleon is the particle of the atomic nucleus.
  • In every atomic nucleus, there are one or more than one nucleons present
  • Nucleons are surrounded by one or more electrons.​

Additional Information

Valence electrons

  • Valence electrons are electrons on the outer shell of an atom.
  • It determines the chemical properties of an element.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Match the following economic terms (column A) with their definitions (column B)

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Key Points

  • The Fiscal Deficit is the difference between the government's total income (excluding borrowing) and total expenditure, which correctly matches with definition .
  • A Primary Deficit is the total fiscal deficit (as defined above) minus the interest paid on previous borrowings, which matches with definition .
  • Revenue Deficit is the difference between the current income and current expenditure of the government, thus matching with definition
  • It basically means the government's regular income isn’t sufficient to cover its current expenditure (including salaries, pensions, and interest payments).
  • The Current Account Deficit refers to when a country's total imports of goods, services, and transfers are greater than the country's total export. In the scope of this question, it is matched with the shortfall in a government's income compared to its spending i.e., definition a. This is a simplified definition.

  • The current account also involves net income, such as interest and dividends, and foreign aid. Despite this complexity, all components of a current account deficit represent spending by the home country in excess of its income.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the force of gravity on earth?

(A) It is greater at the poles

(B) It is the same at all places on the earth

(C) It decreases with altitude

(D) It is maximum at the center of the earth

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

Concept:

  • Acceleration achieved by any object due to the gravitational force of attraction by any planet is called acceleration due to gravity by that planet.
  • Where, G = universal gravitational constant = 6.67 × 10-11Nm2/kg2, M = mass of the planet, r = radius or distance from the center of that planet.
  • As each planet has a different mass and radius so the acceleration due to gravity will be different for different planets.
  • At Earth’s surface, the value of the acceleration of gravity is about 9.8 m/s2

g is majorly affected by the following four factors:

  • The shape of the Earth.
  • Rotational motion of the Earth.
  • Altitude above the Earth’s surface.
  • Depth below the Earth’s surface.

Explanation:

Variation of g due to the shape of the Earth

  • The earth is not perfectly spherical but is an oblate spheroid.
  • The polar radius (radius near poles) of the earth is 21 km smaller than its equatorial radius (near the equator).
  • As per the formula derived, the acceleration due to gravity is inversely proportional to the square of the radius of the earth.
  • Where ge and gp are the accelerations due to gravity assumed at the equator and poles, Re and Rp are the radii of earth near the equator and poles, respectively.
  • From the above equation, it can be easily derived that acceleration due to gravity is more at the poles and less at the equator, that is ge < gp.
  • Thus, acceleration due to gravity decreases when one moves from the poles to the equator.

Variation of g due to altitude above the Earth’s surface.

So, It decreases with altitude.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

According to Kepler's first law, the planets move around the Sun:

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Concept:

  • Kepler's laws of planetary motion: Kepler's laws of planetary motion can be stated as:
    • Kepler's first law: All the planets move around the Sun in elliptical orbits having the Sun at one of the foci. This law is also called the "Law of orbits."
    • Kepler's second law: The radius vector drawn from the Sun to the planet sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time. This law is also called the "Law of Equal Areas."
    • Kepler's third law: The square of the time period of revolution of the planet around the Sun in an elliptical orbit is directly proportional to the cube of its semi-major axis. This law is also called the "Law of Periods."

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

In Windows, if an icon has a slightly curved arrow on it, it represents ______.

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

Key Points

  • These arrows are present on the icons to indicate that they are shortcuts for programs and files.
  • However, those arrows are not particularly necessary because the majority of the icons on your desktop will probably be shortcuts.
  • Those arrows on desktop shortcut icons might be removed at the discretion of some users.
  • Shortcuts or links to applications, files, or directories are represented by icons with an arrow. A desktop icon can be double-clicked to open a specific application, folder, or file.

Additional Information

Folder Icon:- To describe a folder's visual appearance, use a folder icon. Use a directory icon not. Note Not every folder includes documents or other folders. For instance, the Control Panel and Printers apps are both folders.

Dialog Box:- An program can build a temporary window called a dialogue box to collect user input. Typically, dialogue boxes are used by applications to ask the user for further details on menu items.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 10
Which of the following is not correct for the electric potential difference?
Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

The correct answer is V = W × Q.

  • The potential difference is defined as the work done per unit charge.
    • V = (W/Q)
  • Where V Potential difference, W is Work done, and Q is electric charge.
  • Other two are forms of same formula:
    • Q = (W/V)
    • ​W = V × Q
    • Hence V = W × Q is not correct for the electric potential difference.
  • The S.I unit of work is joule and that of the charge is the coulomb.
  • Electric potential difference refers to the difference in electrical potential between two points in a circuit.
    • The electric potential difference between two points in an electric circuit carrying some current is the work done to move a unit charge from one point to the other.
    • The standard metric unit of electric potential difference is volt, abbreviated V.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

Match the following Types of Industries with Examples:

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

Key Points

Agro based industries (Silk weaving, Food processing)

  • Agro based industries involve the processing of raw materials derived from agriculture.
  • Examples include silk weaving (from silkworms) and food processing (from crops and produce).

Mineral based industries (Iron manufacturing)

  • Mineral based industries deal with the extraction and processing of minerals from the earth.
  • Iron manufacturing is a prime example where iron ore is processed to produce iron and steel.

Marine based industries (Sea food processing)

  • Marine based industries involve the extraction and processing of products from the sea.
  • Seafood processing is an example, where fish and other sea products are harvested and processed for consumption.

Forest based industries (Furniture, Pulp and paper)

  • Forest based industries utilize forest resources such as wood and other plant materials.
  • Examples include furniture making and the production of pulp and paper from wood.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

Which ministry launched the Swachhata Pakhwada event to promote cleanliness and environmental sustainability?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 12
  • Swachhata Pakhwada was initiated by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER) as a significant step toward enhancing environmental sustainability and cleanliness across the community.

Key Points

  • The event took place at Vigyan Bhawan (Annexe), New Delhi, starting on the 16th of May and concluding on the 31st of May, 2024.
  • During the event, team MDoNER and its Secretary took a Swachhata Pledge to emphasize the importance of cleanliness in daily life and encourage the adoption of best practices for maintaining hygiene and sanitation.
  • The initiative included a variety of activities designed to promote community awareness on environmental issues, such as discouraging plastic use, waste management, plantation drives, and street plays.
  • Cleanliness inspections and voluntary clean-up activities, including Shramdan, were organized to ensure sanitation and proper management of waste in office premises and their surroundings, highlighting the hands-on approach to promoting cleanliness.
  • The launch of Swachhata Pakhwada reflects MDoNER’s dedication to the Swachh Bharat mission, aiming to inspire similar cleanliness endeavors within the organization and the broader community, thereby fostering a culture of environmental responsibility and sustainability.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Which country is known for having one of the world's largest geothermal power plants?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Key Points

  • The Geysers Geothermal Complex:
    • The United States is home to The Geysers Geothermal Complex, located in Northern California, which is one of the largest geothermal power plants in the world.
    • The Geysers, consisting of multiple power plants, has a combined installed capacity of over 1,500 megawatts (MW).
    • Geothermal energy is a significant renewable resource in the USA, particularly in the western states, including California, Nevada, and Utah.

Additional Information

  • India:
    • India has a potential for geothermal energy, particularly in regions like the Himalayas and the western part of the country, but it does not host one of the world's largest geothermal power plants.
  • Russia:
    • Russia has significant geothermal resources, especially in regions like Kamchatka, but likewise does not host one of the largest geothermal power plants globally.
  • Germany:
    • Germany is known for its advancements in renewable energy, including geothermal, but it does not have one of the world's largest geothermal power plants.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Who is the author of the Hindi language's one of the most popular compositions 'Madhushala'?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Key Points

  • Madhushala - The House of Wine is a book of 135 "quatrains": verses of four lines (Ruba'i) by Hindi poet and writer Harivansh Rai Bachchan.
  • The original book in Hindi, Madhushala, was conceptualized and written in 1933-34, with its first publication in 1935.
  • The highly metaphorical work played an important role in the Chhayavaad (romantic) literary movement of early 20th-century Hindi poetry.
  • Harivansh Rai Bachchan was an Indian poet and writer of the Nayi Kavita literary movement (romantic upsurge) of early 20th-century Hindi literature.
  • He was also a poet of the (Hindi Kavi Sammelan).
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Who became the oldest Grand Slam champion with an Australian Open doubles triumph in 2024?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Rohan Bopanna became the oldest grand slam champion with Australian Open doubles.

Key Points

  • Rohan Bopanna, alongside Matthew Ebden, clinched the Australian Open men's doubles title in 2024.
  • This victory made Bopanna, aged 43, the oldest-ever player to win a Grand Slam, surpassing Jean-Julien Rojer's record.
  • They defeated the Italian pair of Simone Bolelli and Andrea Vavassori in the final with a score of 7-6(0), 7-5.

Additional Information

  • Despite being a seasoned player, it was Bopanna's first Grand Slam doubles triumph after 60 attempts, marking a remarkable achievement in his career.
  • Bopanna's previous Grand Slam win was in mixed doubles at the 2017 French Open, making this victory particularly significant.
  • This historic win solidified Bopanna's legacy in tennis and added another feather to his illustrious career.​
  • He has won two major titles in doubles, including the 2017 French Open mixed doubles with Gabriela Dabrowski and the 2024 Australian Open men's doubles with Matthew Ebden, becoming the oldest major winner in the Open Era.
  • ATP Tour Success: Bopanna boasts an impressive record on the ATP Tour, clinching 24 doubles titles, including five at the Masters 1000 level. He became the oldest Masters winner with a title at the 2023 Indian Wells Masters.
  • Representing India: He has been a key member of the Indian Davis Cup team since 2002 and has represented India at the 2012 and 2016 Olympic Games, showcasing his commitment to representing his country on the international stage.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

Who among the following does not participate in the process of impeachment of the President?

I. Nominated members of either House of Parliament

II. elected member of either house of parliament

III. elected members of the state assembly

IV. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Delhi and Puducherry

Choose the correct code

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

Key Points:

The following group of people does not participate in the process of impeachment of the President of India:

  • Elected members of the state assembly
  • Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Delhi and Puducherry

Important Points:

Impeachment of the President

  • The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution.
  • The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament.
  • These charges should be signed by one-fourth of the members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days notice should be given to the President.
  • After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges.
  • The President has the right to appear and to be represented in such an investigation.
  • If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office from the date on which the resolution is so passed.
  • Thus, impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in Parliament.
  • In this context, two things should be noted:
  • The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election
  • Elected member of either house of parliament participates in the impeachment of the President.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Who received the Times Power Icon 2024 Award?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Mr. Vijay Jain, Managing Director of Star Estate, was adjudged the prestigious Times Power Icon 2024 Award.

Key Points

  • The award ceremony, held recently in Noida, was organized by The Times Group.
  • Vijay Jain was acknowledged for his visionary leadership and outstanding achievements in the real estate sector.
  • Ada Sharma, a cine icon, presented the award to Vijay Jain during the event.
  • Mr. Jain expressed gratitude for the recognition and attributed the success to the hard work and dedication of the entire team at Star Estate.
  • Under Mr. Jain's leadership, Star Estate has become one of the most reliable and trusted real estate consultation firms in India, expanding its operations across multiple cities.
  • About Star Estate: It was Founded in 2012 as the fastest-growing Real Estate enterprise.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Which bank was not nationalized during the Phase I of the Nationalisation of Banks?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Nationalisation of banks

  • Indira Gandhi's government nationalized the 14 biggest commercial lenders on 20 July 1969.
  • RBI Governor at that time was LK Jha who was the 8th governor of the bank.
  • The tenure for which he served in the RBI was from 01 July 1967 to 03 May 1970.
  • It started with the nationalization of 14 major lenders that accounted for 85 percent of bank deposits in the country at that time. Six more banks were later nationalized in 1980.
  • The ICICI Bank is Private sector Bank, not a Nationalised Bank
  • ICICI Bank was established in 1994 by ICICI Limited, an Indian financial institution, and was its wholly-owned subsidiary.

Additional Information

  • On 19th July 1969, a major process of nationalization was carried out and 14 major commercial banks in India were nationalized.
  • The following banks were nationalized in 1969

  1. Allahabad Bank
  2. Bank of Baroda
  3. Bank of India
  4. Bank of Maharashtra
  5. Canara Bank
  6. Central Bank of India
  7. Dena Bank
  8. Indian Bank
  9. Indian Overseas Bank
  10. Punjab National Bank
  11. Syndicate Bank
  12. UCO Bank
  13. Union Bank of India
  14. United Bank of India
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

India’s first research testbed to study Nor’westers getting ready in which state?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

India’s first research testbed to study Nor’westers getting ready.

Key Points

  • The ART is India's first research testbed facility to study the severe thunderstorms known as Nor'westers or Kalbaisakhi that impact the eastern and northeastern regions of India during the summer.
  • The ART will span a vast area bordering West Bengal, Odisha, and Jharkhand, with the control center located in Chandbali, Odisha, about 130 km east of Bhubaneswar.
  • The ART is a collaboration between the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, and National Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF), Delhi.
  • The primary objective of the ART is to study thunderstorms from their inception, growth, and propagation over the eastern parts of the country using meteorological instruments, drones, and other equipment.
  • The ART aims to improve predictions and develop early warning mechanisms for Nor'westers to save lives and property.
  • The first phase of the Atmospheric Research Testbed in Central India (ART-CI) was recently inaugurated in Sehore district, Madhya Pradesh, about 50 km northwest of Bhopal.
  • The ART-CI is equipped with nearly 25 advanced instruments, including a Ka-band cloud radar and a C-band Doppler weather radar, to track the movement of rain-bearing systems.
  • The ART-CI is strategically located in the path of rain-bearing systems, making it an ideal site to study the characteristics of low-pressure systems and depressions that sustain the Indian monsoon rainfall.
  • The data obtained from the ART-CI will be used to improve weather forecasting models and provide more accurate rainfall predictions, especially for the Monsoon Core Zone spanning central India.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Who among the following is known to oppose the Age of Consent Bill?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Key Points:

  • Age of consent act, 1891
    • The Age of Consent Act, 1891, was legislation enacted 19 March 1891 which raised the age of consent for sexual intercourse for all girls, married or unmarried, from ten to twelve years in all jurisdictions
    • The violation of this act is subject to criminal prosecution as rape.
    • This bill was introduced on 9 January 1891 by Sir Andrew Scoble in the Legislative Council of the Governor-General of India in Calcutta.
    • Bal Gangadhar Tilak was one of the leaders at that time who opposed the bill stating "We would not like that the government should have anything to do with regulating our social customs or ways of living, even supposing that the act of government will be a very beneficial and suitable measure".
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Which of the following metals has an ore called Galena?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Key Points

  • Lead:
    • ​The major ore material for lead is galena.
    • Galena is the natural mineral form of lead (II) sulfide, often known as a lead glance.
    • Galena is the most important lead ore and a significant silver source.
    • It can be found in sphalerite, pyrite, chalcopyrite, tennantite-tetrahedrite, as well as sedimentary rocks.
    • When the crystals are new, they are bright, but with exposure to air, they rust quickly.

Additional Information

  • Copper:
    • Copper, denoted by the chemical symbol Cu and atomic number 29, is a reddish, ductile metal that is an excellent conductor of electricity and heat.
    • The usability of copper in thermal and electric conductivity is second only to silver.
    • Copper is characteristically soft and highly malleable, making it easy to work with in a variety of applications
    • Copper occurs naturally in a variety of minerals, including chalcocite, chalcopyrite, azurite, malachite, and bornite, which serve as copper ores for copper mining.
    • The amount of copper present in these ores can vary widely.
    • For example, the copper concentration in an ore can range from as little as 0.4 percent to more than 12 percent
  • Iron:
    • It is a metallic mineral that can be found in nature as an ore or a combination.
    • Iron ores are Magnetite, Iron Pyrites, Haematite, Siderite
    • Sedimentary rocks are home to the world's most major iron ore reserves
    • They formed as a result of chemical reactions involving iron and oxygen in both saltwater and freshwater.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 22
Which of the following groups of three elements each constitutes Dobereiner's triads?
Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

The correct answer is Cl, Br, I.Key Points

  • Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner, a German scientist, discovered Dobereiner's triads, which are collections of elements with related properties.
  • He noticed that triads—groups of three elements—could develop in which all the components had comparable physical and chemical characteristics.
  • According to Dobereiner's law of triads, the atomic masses of the first and third elements in a triad will approximately equal the atomic masses of the second element in that triad.
  • Halogens, chlrone (Cl), bromine (Br), and iodine (I) together form a triad and is an example of Dobereiner's triads.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 23
Which one of the following is an example of Warm Ocean Current?
Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

The correct answer is Florida Current.

Key Points

  • Labrador Current: This current originates in the Arctic and flows southward along the eastern coast of Canada. It is a cold current.
  • California Current: This current originates in the northern Pacific Ocean and flows southward along the coast of California. It is a cold current.
  • Benguela Current: This current originates near the coast of Antarctica and flows northward along the western coast of Africa. It is a cold current.
  • Florida Current: This current originates in the Caribbean Sea and flows northward along the eastern coast of Florida and into the Gulf Stream. It is a warm current.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 24
The phenomenon of light associated with the appearance of blue colour of the sky is
Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

The correct answer is Scattering.

Concept:

  • The phenomenon of light associated with the appearance of the blue Colour of the sky is called scattering.
  • Scattering of light is the process of light scattered in a different direction according to its Wavelength and Frequency.
  • As a result of Scattering, we see the Sun in Red Color during the sunset and sunrise and the sky in Blue Color.

Additional Information

Interference:

  • ​It is the phenomenon that two waves interfere and superimpose each other.

Reflection:

  • ​When light reflects from the surface at some angle is called reflection.

Refraction:

  • ​It is the change in the direction of the wave when passing from one medium to another.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Identify the statements given below as true or false.

(i) An assembler is a program that converts instructions written in low-label assembly code into machine code.

(ii) An assembler converts assembly code into machine code line by line.

(iii) Different types of assemblers include one pass assemblers and load-and-go assemblers.

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Key Points

Statements Analysis

  • Statement (i): An assembler is a program that converts instructions written in low-label assembly code into machine code.
    • An assembler is indeed a program that translates assembly language, which is a low-level human-readable code, into machine code, which is a set of binary instructions that a computer's CPU can execute.
    • Assembly language is specific to a computer architecture, and the assembler helps bridge the gap between high-level programming languages and machine code.
    • Hence, statement (i) is correct.
  • Statement (ii): An assembler converts assembly code into machine code line by line.
    • An assembler typically converts the entire assembly code into machine code in one go, rather than line by line, which is a characteristic of interpreters. Assemblers usually work on the entire source file rather than processing each line separately.
    • Hence, statement (i) is incorrect. (as per official answer key it is true)
  • Statement (iii): Different types of assemblers include one pass assemblers and load-and-go assemblers.
    • There are indeed different types of assemblers, including one-pass assemblers, which translate the code in a single pass, and load-and-go assemblers, which translate the code and directly load it into memory for execution.
    • Other types of assemblers include two-pass assemblers and macro assemblers, which provide more flexibility and functionality.
    • Hence, statement (iii) is correct.

Additional Information

  • Assembler
    • An assembler is essential for converting assembly language programs into machine code, a crucial step in the software development process for systems requiring close-to-hardware operations.
    • Assemblers are specific to the architecture of the computer they are designed for, meaning different processors require different assemblers.
  • Types of Assemblers
    • One-pass assembler: Reads the source code once and generates machine code directly. It is faster but less flexible.
    • Two-pass assembler: Reads the source code twice. The first pass is used to determine addresses and the second pass generates the machine code. It is more flexible and can handle forward references.
    • Load-and-go assembler: Translates the code and loads it into memory for immediate execution. This is useful for rapid testing and development.
    • Macro assembler: Provides additional functionality for handling macros, which are sets of instructions that can be reused in the code, enhancing productivity and code manageability.
  • Machine Code
    • Machine code is the low-level code understood directly by a computer's CPU. It consists of binary instructions that the hardware executes directly.
    • Machine code is specific to a processor architecture; hence, different types of processors (e.g., Intel, ARM) have different sets of machine instructions.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

Magnetic Field inside a solenoid is ________.

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

Concept

  • Solenoid: A cylindrical coil of many tightly wound turns of insulated wire with a general diameter of the coil smaller than its length is called a solenoid.

  • A magnetic field is produced around and within the solenoid.
  • The magnetic field within the solenoid is uniform and parallel to the axis of the solenoid.

The strength of the magnetic field in a solenoid is given by:-

Where, N = number of turns, l = length of the solenoid, l = current in the solenoid and μo = absolute permeability of air or vacuum.

  • The magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform. So option 2 is correct.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Which of the following programs helps to manage files and folders in Windows XP?

i- Windows File Explorer

ii- Internet browser

iii- Help

iv- Program files

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Key Points

Managing Files and Folders in Windows XP

  • Windows File Explorer is the built-in file management utility in Windows XP. It allows users to browse, manage, and organize files and folders on their computer. Hence, statement i is correct.

Additional Information

  • Windows File Explorer:
    • It is a file management application that provides a graphical interface for accessing the file systems.
    • Key features include creating, moving, copying, renaming, and deleting files and folders.
    • It offers various view options such as details, icons, list, and thumbnails to help users navigate their files efficiently.
  • Internet Browser:
    • Examples include Internet Explorer, Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, and Microsoft Edge.
    • Browsers are primarily used to access web pages, download files, and run web-based applications.
  • Help:
    • This feature provides troubleshooting steps, user guides, and tips for using various features of Windows XP.
    • Accessed by pressing F1 or through the Start menu.
  • Program Files:
    • This directory typically contains executable files, libraries, and configuration files for installed applications.
    • It is a system directory and should not be altered by users to avoid disrupting installed applications.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Great Northern Plains are formed by basins of three distinct river systems the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
  2. They are one of the most densely populated areas on Earth.
  3. Between the Yamuna at Delhi and the Bay of Bengal, nearly 1600 km away, there is a drop of only 200 metres in elevation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Key Points

  • The northern plains are formed by the alluvial deposits of the three major river systems of the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra along with their tributaries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • This plain is completely formed of alluvial soil.
  • Yamuna River water at Delhi, lying close to the Himalayas, flows naturally and throughout the year into Allahabad where it joins the River Ganga to continue on its path to the sea level to drain itself into the Bay of Bengal, lying 200 meters lower than Delhi, through a number of distributaries in India and Bangladesh. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • Naturally, water flows from a place where it has comparatively higher potential energy to one where its potential energy is lower when an easy flow path exists or can be created by the flow itself.
  • It is one of the most densely populated areas and also the world's greatest stretches of flat alluvium. Hence statement 3 is correct.​

Additional Information

  • Yamuna River is the second largest tributary river of the Ganga and the longest tributary in India.
  • Originating from the Yamunotri Glacier at a height of 6,387 meters (20,955 ft) on the southwestern slopes of Banderpooch peaks of the Lower Himalaya in Uttarakhand.
  • It travels a total length of 1,376 kilometers (855 mi) and has a drainage system of 366,223 square kilometers (141,399 sq mi), 40.2% of the entire Ganga Basin.
  • It merges with the Ganga at Triveni Sangam, Prayagraj, which is a site of the Kumbh Mela, a Hindu festival held every 12 years.
BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary:

  1. It is situated in Sikkim’s Pakyong district.
  2. It serves as a crucial corridor for wildlife, particularly tigers, between India and Bhutan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 29
  • Tiger trekked from Sikkim in Northeast India to Bhutan, crossing the international boundary, validates the existence of essential wildlife corridors between India and Bhutan.

Key Points

Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary:

  • Location: Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Pakyong District of Sikkim, India, at the tri-junction of Sikkim, Bengal, and Bhutan. It was established in 2002.
  • The Pangolakha range separates Sikkim from Bhutan to the east. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Size and Connectivity: It is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Sikkim, encompassing an area of around 128 square kilometers. The sanctuary is linked to the forests of Neora Valley National Park of West Bengal, and the forests of Samtse and Haa districts in Bhutan, forming a crucial wildlife corridor. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Biodiversity Hotspot: The sanctuary boasts a rich variety of flora and fauna. The diverse vegetation includes Eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests, subtropical pine forests, subalpine conifer forests, and alpine meadows. The sanctuary is home to many endangered species, including red pandas, snow leopards, Himalayan musk deer, and various birds.
  • High Altitude Haven: The sanctuary's elevation ranges from 1,760 meters to 4,390 meters, making it a haven for high-altitude species. Some high-altitude lakes like the Tsongmo Lake are present within the sanctuary, providing a habitat for migratory birds.

BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Which among the following is not a kind of puppet?

Detailed Solution for BPSC AE Civil Paper 3 (General Studies) Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Key Points

  • Doll: Humanoid figure for play and storytelling, not manipulated for performance.
  • Glove Puppet: Fits over the puppeteer's hand, controlled by fingers, used in puppet shows.
  • Stick Puppet: Has a central rod for control, often simpler than string puppets, used in puppetry performances.
  • String Puppet (Marionette): Controlled by strings or wires from above, requires skillful manipulation for lifelike movements.

Hence, the correct answer is Doll.

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