DSSSB AE Civil Tier 1 Mock Test - 9 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ

The correct answer is 'Ludhiana'.

Key Points

• Ludhiana is the largest city in Punjab.
• The city occupies an area of 159 sq. km and an estimated population of 1,618,879 according to the 2011 census.
• The city lies on the old bank of the Sutlej River.
• It is a Northern India manufacturing hub, also referred to by BBC as India's Manchester.
• It is among the list of smart cities that the government of India will develop.
• It has also been ranked according to the World Bank as India's easiest business city.
• It is also home to the Punjab Agricultural University, Asia's largest agricultural university.

Important Points

• Amritsar is the second largest city with an area of 136 sq. km and an estimated population of 1,183,549.
• Jalandhar is the third largest city with an area of 102 sq. km and an estimated population of 874,412.
• Firozpur is the seventeenth largest city with an area of 11 sq. km and an estimated population of 110,313.

• Waste is unusable material. Waste comes in many forms.
• Waste can be categorized as:
  • solid waste (vegetable peels, trash cans and other such municipal waste),
  • liquid waste (water discharge from industries, harmful runoff from fields etc),
  • and gaseous waste (harmful gases released from industries).

Key Points

Solid waste management is one important challenge of urban bodies. It can be achieved by following the 5 R's of waste management which are:

Refuse:

• Refuse the usage of non-biodegradable products as much as possible.
• Example: Refuse using plastic bags and using jute bags or cloth bags.

Reduce: 

• If users cannot be refused completely, reduce the amount of consumption.
• Example: Reducing the use of single-use plastics.

Reuse:

• As much as possible try to use a substance for as long as and in as many ways as possible.
• Example: Reuse wrapping paper, plastic bags, boxes.

Repurpose:

• For every item that can't be refused, reduced, or reused, try repurposing it.
• Example: try using wasted printer paper for scrap paper, cardboard boxes for storing supplies, binder clips to hold power cords

Recycle:  

• Recycling is the most environmentally friendly waste disposal method, which means collecting waste and produce a new product from it.
• Example: recycling of glass can be made to produce new glass jars and bottles or tiles.

Important Points

Plastic bags:

• A plastic bag should be avoided because it is harmful to the environment and is difficult to degrade.
• If one cannot avoid the use of plastic bags they must reuse, repurpose or recycle plastic bags.

​Thus, the incorrect match is Plastic bags: Landfill

Additional Information

Composting:

• Due to a lack of adequate space for landfills, biodegradable yard waste is allowed to decompose in a medium designed for the purpose.
• Only biodegradable waste materials are used in composting. Example: kitchen waste
• Good quality environmentally friendly manure is formed from the compost and can be used for agricultural purposes.
• It is the only sustainable means of waste disposal.​

Landfill:

• Landfill refers to the disposal of waste material by burying it.
• It is an extended storage area for non-biodegradable waste.
• Landfills may lead to contamination from the waste entering the area surrounding by soil and water and it also causes odour and pests.

What is meant by the term 'constituency'?
A constituency refers to a specific area or region from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha. It is an essential concept in the democratic electoral system. Here are the key points to understand about constituencies:
1. Definition: A constituency is a geographically defined area that represents a specific group of voters who have the right to elect a representative to a legislative body.
2. Representation: Constituencies ensure that every region or area is represented in the legislative body. Each constituency has its own representative who acts as a voice for the concerns and interests of the people in that particular area.
3. Electoral Process: During elections, voters from a constituency cast their votes to elect a candidate who will represent their interests and concerns. The candidate who receives the highest number of votes becomes the elected representative for that constituency.
4. Delimitation: Constituencies are often delimited or redrawn periodically to ensure fair representation based on population changes. This process is carried out by an independent authority to maintain equal representation among constituencies.
5. Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha: In India, constituencies are primarily associated with the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament) and Vidhan Sabha (the state legislative assembly). Each state is divided into different constituencies, and voters from each constituency elect their representatives to these bodies.
In conclusion, a constituency is a specific area from where voters elect their representatives to the Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha. It ensures fair representation and gives people the opportunity to choose their leaders based on their concerns and interests.

Restrictions on Right to Freedom not mentioned in the Constitution:

1. To instigate violence: The Constitution of India places restrictions on the right to freedom of speech and expression when it comes to inciting violence or creating a public disturbance.


2. To invite people to rebel against the government: The Constitution also restricts the right to freedom of speech and expression when it comes to inviting people to rebel against the government or promoting activities that may threaten the sovereignty and integrity of the nation.


3. To defame others: Defamation is also limited under the right to freedom of speech and expression. Individuals cannot use this right to defame or harm the reputation of others.


4. To praise others: The Constitution does not explicitly mention any restriction on praising others. The right to freedom of speech and expression generally allows individuals to express their opinions and thoughts, including praising others.

Therefore, the correct answer is D: To praise others. The Constitution does not impose any restrictions on praising others as part of the right to freedom of speech and expression.

All even numbers between 1 and 50 = 2 to 48

Hence, Option D is correct.

4√6*3√24=4√6*3√2*√2*√*2*√3

=4√6*6√6

4*6*√6*√6=4*6*6=24*6=144

The logic follows here is:

In fig 1:

12 = 6 ÷ 2 × 4

12 = 3 × 4 

12 = 12

In fig 2:

80 = 20 ÷ 2 × 8

80 = 10 × 8

80 = 80

Similarly,

63 = ? ÷ 2 × 21

63 / 21 = ? ÷ 2

3 = ? ÷ 2

? = 3 × 2

? = 6

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

Given:

x + 1/x = 25

Concept Used:  

If x + 1/x = p then, x – 1/x = √(p² – 4)

Calculation:

It is given that x + 1/x = 25

 We know that if x + 1/x = p then, x – 1/x = √(p² – 4)

⇒ x – 1/x = √(25² – 4)

⇒ x – 1/x = √(625 – 4)

⇒ x – 1/x = √621

∴ value of x – 1/x is √621.

Hari has no brother or sister.
So, he is his father’s only son, wife of Hari’s father’s son - Hari’s wife
Hari’s wife is the man’s mother.
Man is Hari’s son.

Given figure are -

From option 1 - Doctor, Man, Student

Some doctor are man, some man are student, some doctor are student.

So It is the best representation of the venn diagram.

Let A  = Doctor, B = Man, C = Student

From option 2 - table, Chair, Furniture

No table is chair, some furniture are table as well as chair. It is not correct representation of the venn diagram.

From option 3 - Gold, silver, ornaments

It is not correct representation of the venn diagram.

From option 4 - Family, Parents, Children

 It is not correct representation of the venn diagram.

Hence, "option 1" is the correct answer.

विज्ञान की चरमोन्नति का काल "19वीं और 20वीं सदी" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• विज्ञान की चरमोन्नति का काल "19वीं और 20वीं सदी" है।
• गद्यांश के अनुसार- यों तो सृष्टि के आरंभ से मानव ज्ञान–विस्तार में प्रवृत्त है, किन्तु 19वीं और 20वीं सदी तो विज्ञान की चरमोन्नति के काल रहे हैं।

Here the expression surrogate has been used as an adjective meaning replacing someone else (human beings or animals) or used instead of somethings else. In this way option 'd' clears the meaning.

1. Unconsolidated Undrained Test (UU)

Drainage is not permitted throughout the test. In the case of direct shear test drainage is not permitted during the application of both normal stress and shear stress. In the case of triaxial compression test drainage is not permitted during the application of both cell pressure and deviator stress. Since the test is conducted fast allowing no time for either consolidation of sample initially or dissipation of pore pressure in later stage, the test is also called quick test.

2. Consolidated Undrained Test (CU)

In this type of shear test the soil specimen is allowed to consolidate fully under initially applied stress and then sheared quickly without allowing dissipation of pore pressure. In the case of direct shear test the specimen is allowed to consolidate fully under applied normal stress and then sheared at high rate of strain to prevent dissipation of pore pressure during shearing. In the case of triaxial compression test the specimen is allowed to consolidate fully under the applied cell pressure and then the pore water outlet is closed and the specimen is subjected to increasing deviator stress at higher rate of strain.

3. Consolidated Drained Test (CD)

In this type of shear test drainage is allowed throughout the test. The specimen is allowed to consolidate fully under the applied initial stress and then sheared at low rate of strain giving sufficient time for the pore water to drain out at all stages. The test may continue for several hours to several days.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

Critical hydraulic gradient,

Hence, the correct option is (C)

For seawater grade of concrete lower than M30 shall not be used in reinforced concrete. IS 456-2000 Plain and Reinforced Concrete - Code of Practice is an Indian Standard code of practice for general structural use of plain and reinforced concrete. The latest revision of this standard was done in the year 2000, reaffirmed 2005. This code uses the limit state design approach as well working stress design approach. It is written for use in India. It gives extensive information on the various aspects of concrete.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

If B is the width of the beam and D is the overall depth and d is the effective depth then, Maximum tension reinforcement in concrete structure is given by 0.4 BD

Hence, the correct option is (A)

All the above factors contribute while determining the stopping sight distance, as the higher the speed greater the stopping distance, same is the case with the reaction of driver and efficiency and vice-versa.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

It is based on diagonal compressional failure because if total cross-sectional area, Asw of stirrup legs and bent up bars exceed a certain limit, it is likely that the section becomes stronger in diagonal tension compare to diagonal compression.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

The minimum distance open to the vision of the driver of a vehicle intending to overtake slow vehicle ahead with safety against the traffic of opposite direction is known as the minimum overtaking sight distance (OSD) or the safe passing sight distance available

OSD=d₁+d₂+d₃

Where, O.S.D.=Overtaking sight distance in 'm'

d=Distance traveled by overtaking vehicle A during the reaction time t sec of the driver from position A₁ to A₂

Hence, the correct option is (C)

The answer to this question can be a, b and c, depending upon ALR and ELR conditions.

Fanning Plume- ELR inversion and Horizontal plume

Lofting- SALR above the inversion, so plume stays above the inversion

Fumigation- inversion occurs at a short distance from a stack, pollutants stay below the inversion layer.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

The first sight taken on a levelling staff held at a point of known elevation. B.S. enables the surveyor to obtain HI +sight

Backsight (BS) – short for "backsight reading", the first staff reading taken by the surveyor after the levelling instrument is set up and levelled. B.S is generally taken on the point of known reduced level as on the benchmark or a change point.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

The flow of water in a wash hand basin when it is being emptied through a central opening, is an example of a free vortex.

Free vortex- Free and Forced Vortex flow with Examples states: When no external torque is required to rotate the fluid mass that type of flow is called free vortex flow.

Examples: Flow of liquid through a hole provided at the bottom of the container.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

De-chlorination is the process of removing chlorine from water (e.g., disinfected wastewater) before discharging the water into the environment. De-chlorination is performed because chlorine can form deposits on the internal edges of industrial equipment, cause health issues (e.g., choking) or lead to corrosion.

De-chlorination can be achieved with sulphur dioxide, sodium bisulphite (NaHSO3) or sodium metabisulphite (Na2S2O5).

Hence, the correct option is (D)

Granite is an igneous rock with between 20% and 60% quartz by volume and at least 35% of the total feldspar. Granite is a coarse-grained igneous rock composed mostly of quartz, alkali feldspar, and plagioclase. It forms from magma with a high content of silica and alkali metal oxides that slowly solidifies underground. It is common in the Earth's continental crust, where it is found in various kinds of igneous intrusions.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

The target road density to be achieved during the 2nd 20-year road plan was 32 km².

The construction target was achieved in the late 1950s. In 1956, a Highways Act was passed, and a second twenty-year plan proposed for the period 1961–1981, with the ambition of doubling road density to 32 km per 100 km². This second plan became known as the Bombay Road Plan.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

Shear force can be obtained by differentiating the bending moment. The slope of the BMD curve at a given section gives the value of Shear Force at that section.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

Alumina in Brick

Good brick earth should contain about 20% to 30% of alumina.

It is responsible for the plasticity characteristic of earth, which is important in a moulding operation.

If present in excess, then the raw brick shrinks and warps during drying.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

This is because the force (friction) applied by the brakes on the car wheel can exceed the car tire’s traction coefficient (friction) on the road surface. When the car tyre starts to skid, friction with the road is further reduced, the brakes require so less force to keep the type locked, thus making the path traveled more than the circumferential movement.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

Under the submerged condition, the meniscus is destroyed and soil suction is reduced to zero. The capillary water changes to firewater.

Hence, the correct option is (A)