Digital SAT Mock Test - 4 - SAT MCQ

Choice 2 is the best answer. It most logically completes the text. The text tells us that disruptions to an enjoyable experience increase viewers’ enjoyment. It also says that researchers suspect the opposite is true for disruptions to an unpleasant experience. Thus, we can infer that the researchers expect to find that the interrupted unpleasant experience was worse for listeners than the uninterrupted unpleasant experience.
Choice 1 is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never makes any claims about how irritating the disruptions themselves are perceived to be. Rather, the text says that pleasant experiences are perceived as more enjoyable with interruptions, and that the opposite is suspected to be true of unpleasant experiences.
Choice 3 is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never makes any claims about how long any experience is perceived to be. Rather, the text says that pleasant experiences are perceived as more enjoyable with interruptions, and that the opposite is suspected to be true of unpleasant experiences.
Choice 4 is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never makes any claims about how interruptions affect the perceived volume of the unpleasant or pleasant experience. Rather, the text says that pleasant experiences are perceived as more enjoyable with interruptions, and that the opposite is suspected to be true of unpleasant experiences.

Choice 2 is the best answer. The text describes how Barve found an association between habitat temperature and feather structure among Himalayan songbirds, which supports the general prediction that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature.
Choice 1 is incorrect. Barve’s study isn’t said to contradict previous predictions. In fact, the study supports the prediction described in the first sentence, which is that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature.
Choice 3 is incorrect. Barve’s study isn’t said to “complicate an earlier hypothesis.” In fact, the study supports the earlier prediction described in the first sentence, which is that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature.
Choice 4 is incorrect. The text doesn’t compare the importance of feather length and feather structure, and it doesn’t say that Barve’s study challenges any established beliefs. In fact, the study supports the prediction described in the first sentence, which is that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature.

Choice 3 is the best answer. The text says that the production’s use of its large, winding space has a very specific effect on the audience. Given that the space itself is so important to creating this effect, it would be difficult to reproduce the production in a different space.
Choice 1 is incorrect. The fact that the venue is in New York City isn’t connected to the experimental nature of the performance. It’s the size of the venue, not its location in New York, that affects the theatrical experience.
Choice 2 is incorrect. The text never suggests that audience members are disappointed because they can’t see the entire production. In fact, it suggests that that’s an important part of the experience.
Choice 4 is incorrect. The text doesn’t mention a recommended itinerary for audience members.

Choice 2 is the best answer. Armijo believes that using more heliostats will speed up the roasting process, and this finding shows that with 50 heliostats—more than the number of heliostats already used—the roasting time is indeed reduced.

Choice 1 is incorrect. The evenness of temperature in the roasting drum doesn’t tell us about the speed of the roasting process, which is what Armijo’s hypothesis is concerned with.

Choice 3 is incorrect. Armijo’s hypothesis is focused on the speed of the roasting process, not the flavor of the resulting roasted chiles.

Choice 4 is incorrect. Though Armijo’s hypothesis mentions a benefit of solar-roasting green chiles (easier peeling), it doesn’t address the speed of the roasting process.

Choice 4 is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support Gardner and colleagues’ conclusion that segments of the Missouri River flowing into lakes tend to carry more sediment than do segments of the river flowing out of lakes. The text says that rivers appear yellow when they contain a lot of sediment and appear red when they contain a lot of algae. It goes on to explain that Gardner and colleagues measured the wavelengths of light for different segments of rivers in the United States and classified those wavelength measurements into colors: red for wavelengths of 495 nanometers and below, blue for wavelengths between 495 and 560 nanometers, and yellow for wavelengths of 560 nanometers and above. Combined with the earlier information about river colors, this suggests that rivers rich in sediment will have wavelengths of 560 nanometers and above (since such rivers appear yellow). If researchers found that Missouri River segments flowing into lakes tend to have wavelengths above 560 nanometers and segments flowing out of lakes tend to have wavelengths below 560 nanometers, this finding would support Gardner and colleagues’ conclusion, since it would suggest that the river tends to carry more sediment when it flows into lakes than when it flows out of lakes.
Choice 1 is incorrect because finding that sections of the Missouri River with high chlorophyll-a levels have wavelengths between 490 and 560 nanometers would be irrelevant to the researchers’ conclusion that segments of the river flowing into lakes are richer in sediment than are segments of the river flowing out of lakes. This finding would not indicate anything about segments flowing into or out of lakes.
Choice 2 is incorrect because finding that lakes through which the Missouri River passes have higher wavelengths near their shores than in the center would not support the researchers’ conclusion that segments of the river flowing into lakes have more sediment than segments flowing out of lakes. This finding would suggest only that there is more sediment around the edges of lakes than in their centers, which does not have any direct bearing on the researchers’ conclusion about river segments flowing into and out of lakes.
Choice 3 is incorrect because finding that most segments of the Missouri River have wavelengths significantly higher than 560 nanometers would suggest that most segments of the river are high in sediment, not that segments flowing into lakes are higher in sediment than segments flowing out of lakes. Only a comparison of river segments flowing into lakes with segments flowing out of lakes can support the researchers’ conclusion.

Choice 2 is the best answer. Campfires typically reach over 400°C, so human artifacts that were exposed to temperatures higher than this may indicate some human control over fire.
Choice 1 is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. Neither artifact K3_9 nor K5_106 was exposed to temperatures above even 200°C.
Choice 3 is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. Campfires typically reach over 400°C, so exposure to temperatures of 100°C wouldn’t demonstrate exposure to fire.
Choice 4 is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. Both artifacts K3_9 and K5_106 were exposed to temperatures of less than 200°C. Since campfires typically reach over 400°C, this wouldn’t demonstrate exposure to fire.

Choice 1 is the best answer because it presents data from the table that most effectively complete the statement about the rates at which employment shifted in France and the United States. The text states that over the last two hundred years employment in the agricultural sector has declined while employment in the service sector has risen in both France and the US, and the data from the table reflect these trends. The text asserts, however, that the transition from agriculture to services “happened at very different rates in the two countries.” This assertion is best supported by a comparison of data from 1900 and 1950: the table shows that in those years, employment in agriculture went from 43% to 32% in France (a decline of 11 percentage points) and from 41% to 14% in the US (a decline of 27 percentage points), and that employment in services went from 28% to 35% in France (an increase of 7 percentage points) and from 31% to 53% in the US (an increase of 22 percentage points). In other words, the rate of change was greater in the US than in France for both sectors.

Choice 2 is incorrect because comparing the data for 1800 and 2012 would suggest a similar rate of change in the two countries, not very different rates: employment in agriculture went from 64% in 1800 to 3% in 2012 in France, which is close to the change from 68% in 1800 to 2% in 2012 in the US, while employment in services went from 14% in 1800 to 76% in 2012 in France, which is close to the change from 13% in 1800 to 80% in 2012 in the US.

Choice 3 is incorrect because comparing the data for 1900 and 2012 would suggest a similar rate of change in the two countries rather than very different rates: employment in agriculture went from 43% in 1900 to 3% in 2012 in France, which is close to the change from 41% in 1900 to 2% in 2012 in the US, while employment in services went from 28% in 1900 to 76% in 2012 in France, which is close to the change from 31% in 1900 to 80% in 2012 in the US.

Choice 4 is incorrect because comparing the data for 1800 and 1900 would suggest a similar rate of change in the two countries, not very different rates: employment in agriculture went from 64% in 1800 to 43% in 1900 in France, which is fairly close to the change from 68% in 1800 to 41% in 1900 in the US, while employment in services went from 14% in 1800 to 28% in 1900 in France, which is close to the change from 13% in 1800 to 31% in 1900 in the US.

Choice 1 is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of military veterans working in civilian government jobs in the United States. The text indicates that the proportion of military veterans working in civilian government jobs is considerably higher than the proportion of military veterans in the population as a whole. The text also notes that the unusually high representation of military veterans in these jobs may be a result of the organizational structures shared by civilian government entities and the military. Hence, it’s reasonable to infer that it’s the familiarity of the structures of civilian government that makes jobs there particularly attractive to military veterans.

Choice 2 is incorrect because the text doesn’t address what a typical relationship between military service and later career preferences would be, and there’s no indication that it’s atypical for veterans to work in civilian government jobs after they’ve left the military. On the contrary, the text suggests that many military veterans are drawn to such jobs.

Choice 3 is incorrect because the text is focused on the high representation of military veterans in civilian government jobs and doesn’t address nonveterans or their possible interest in military service.

Choice 4 is incorrect because the text conveys that military veterans may be particularly interested in civilian government jobs due to the familiarity of organizational structures that are already in place, but there’s no reason to think that this interest would mean that more civilian government jobs will start to require military experience.

Choice 2 is the best answer. The passage tells us that Shang dynasty bronze artifacts contained "a rare form of lead," but that bronze artifacts after this time did not contain that lead. Although we don’t know where that specific type of bronze came from, we can conclude that that source was not used after the end of the Shang dynasty—otherwise, post-Shang dynasty pieces would also contain that rare form of lead.
Choice 1 is incorrect. Despite these pieces containing "a rare form of lead," there is no direct claim in the passage that Shang dynasty bronze is itself more rare or valuable than bronze pieces from other periods. Therefore, there’s no basis for this inference.
Choice 3 is incorrect. Although the passage mentions that the nature of the bronze in Chinese artifacts changed after the Shang dynasty, bronze was still used to create artifacts after this time. The passage in fact explicitly states "bronze artifacts from China dated after the Shang dynasty…," indicating that bronze was still used in China after the Shang dynasty.
Choice 4 is incorrect. There’s no mention in the passage of methods used to analyze bronze artifacts, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Choice 1 is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to support the researchers’ conclusion about the harvesting of clamshells by Neanderthals for use as tools. The text explains that Neanderthals used clamshells to make tools and that the sturdiest, and therefore the most desirable, shells for this purpose are found on the seafloor, not on the beach. However, the researchers also concluded that the clamshell tools made from shells from the seafloor are rarer than those made from shells from the beach. Meanwhile the table shows that at each depth, the number of tools made from shells from the beach exceeds the number made from the more desirable shells from the seafloor. The fact that the more desirable shells are less common suggests that it was significantly more difficult to harvest shells from the seafloor than from the beach.

Choice 2 is incorrect because knowing which depth represents the period of time with the highest Neanderthal population does not help answer the question of why the Neanderthals consistently made more tools from the less desirable shells from the beach than they made from the more desirable shells from the seafloor.

Choice 3 is incorrect because it claims that the beach shells are more durable than the seafloor shells, which contradicts the text’s description of shells from the seafloor as smoother and sturdier than shells from the beach.

Choice 4 is incorrect because knowing which depth has the most artifacts or whether the clam population fluctuated does not help explain why tools made from the less desirable shells from the beach outnumber tools made from the more desirable shells from the seafloor.

• Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between the first sentence (“The...adjustments”) and the second sentence (“Prior...days”). Because the adverbial phrase beginning with “prior” indicates when changing a spreadsheet required redoing the sheet by hand, that phrase belongs with the second sentence.
• Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. Two sentences are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.
• Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences.
• Choice D is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join the sentences.

• Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of a relationship between the dodder plant and its host plant. As used in this context, “synchronization” means the act of things happening at the same time. The text indicates that the dodder and its host plant flower in unison and that this synchronization occurs because the dodder makes use of a protein produced by the host shortly before flowering.
• Choice B is incorrect because referring to “hibernation,” or the state of being dormant or inactive, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on something the dodder plant actively engages in—making use of a protein and producing flowers.
• Choice C is incorrect because stating that the dodder plant and its host engage together in “prediction,” or the act of declaring or indicating something in advance, wouldn’t make sense in context. Rather than indicating that the dodder plant and its host plant make a prediction about flowering activity, the text suggests that the host produces a protein as part of its regular flowering process and that the dodder then absorbs and uses that protein to flower at the same time.
• Choice D is incorrect because referring to “moderation,” or the act of causing something to become less intense or extreme, wouldn’t make sense in context. Although the text states that the dodder plant absorbs and uses a protein made by its host plant, it doesn’t suggest that the dodder lessens the host plant’s flowering activity; the two plants simply flower in unison.

• Choice C is the best answer because it uses data from the table to effectively exemplify the idea that the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered bare minimums—that is, that we should assume that the individuals actually had higher outputs than those recorded. The table presents the years during which the individuals were active and the number of known films the individuals are credited in. The table indicates that Lillian St. Cyr has 66 film credits as an actor and that Edwin Carewe has 58 film credits as a director; it follows that if some films and records for the era were lost, it’s possible that Lillian St. Cyr acted in far more than 66 films and that Edwin Carewe directed more than 58 films.
• Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t effectively exemplify the idea that the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered bare minimums. Rather than addressing the idea that the individuals likely had higher outputs than those presented in the table, this choice simply compares data from the table to make the point that Dark Cloud has fewer credited acting roles than Lillian St. Cyr (35 and 66, respectively).
• Choice B is incorrect because it misrepresents data from the table, even though it may exemplify the idea that the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered bare minimums by implying that Edwin Carewe acted in more than 47 films. The table indicates that Edwin Carewe was active from 1912 to 1934, meaning that his 47 credited acting roles were in films made before or during 1934, not after that time.
• Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t effectively exemplify the idea that the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered bare minimums. Instead of addressing the idea that the individuals likely had higher outputs than those recorded, this choice suggests that James Young Deer actually acted in and directed fewer films than presented in the table (only 33 known films as a director instead of 35, and only 10 known films as an actor instead of 33).

• Choice B is the best answer because it presents a statement about Dorian that is directly supported by the text. The narrator of the text says that when Dorian sees his portrait, “his cheeks flushed for a moment with pleasure” and “a look of joy came into his eyes.” The narrator goes on to say that Dorian looked at the portrait “in wonder” and presents him as being so entranced by the portrait that he doesn’t notice what Hallward is saying to him. These details support the description of Dorian as being delighted by what he sees in the portrait.
• Choice A is incorrect because Dorian isn’t depicted as interested in Hallward’s opinion of the portrait; rather, he is so enraptured by the painting that he’s hardly even aware of Hallward.
• Choice C is incorrect because the portrait of Dorian is the only painting mentioned in the text. Although Dorian is depicted as being delighted with this particular portrait, there’s no evidence in the text that he likes portraits better than other kinds of paintings.
• Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Dorian is uncertain about Hallward’s talent. Instead, the text is focused on Dorian’s delight with the portrait.

• Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of items in a complex series. It’s conventional to use a semicolon to separate items in a complex series with internal punctuation, and in this choice, the semicolon after “2009” is conventionally used to separate the first item (“the world’s…2009”) and the second item (“an online…2010”) in the series of things that Hinson helped create. Further, the comma after “Basic” correctly pairs with the comma after “app,” and the comma after “network” correctly pairs with the comma after “TV” to set off the supplemental elements (“Chickasaw Basic” and “Chickasaw TV”) that provide the names of the app and the TV network, respectively. Altogether, the punctuation in this choice results in a sentence that clearly indicates that Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a language course in 2015.
• Choice A is incorrect because it fails to punctuate the complex series in a way that makes clear that Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a language course in 2015.
• Choice B is incorrect because it fails to punctuate the complex series in a way that makes clear that Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a language course in 2015.
• Choice D is incorrect because the comma after “2009” doesn’t match the semicolon used to separate the second and third items in the complex series.

• Choice B is the best answer. The sentence presents both the study and its methodology (that is, the researcher’s approach to the problem), explaining that Yuan used computer simulations to study the effect of the mother duck’s wake on the ducklings’ energy expenditure.
• Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes the findings of Yuan’s study; it doesn’t present the study and its methodology.
• Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides general information about Yuan’s study, it doesn’t present the study’s methodology.
• Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes the findings of Yuan’s study; it doesn’t present the study and its methodology.

• Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of self-government among the Muscogee (Creek) Nation. In this context, “implement” means to carry out or put into effect. The text states that the National Council generates laws, while the principal chief and cabinet officials are responsible for “devising policies and administering services in accordance with” those laws. This context suggests that the principal chief and cabinet officials implement the laws: they put the laws into effect by creating policies and administering services that accord with those laws.
• Choice B is incorrect because “presume” in this context would mean to assume based on incomplete information, and the text does not suggest that the principal chief and cabinet officials either made assumptions about the content of the laws or had incomplete information about them.
• Choice C is incorrect because in this context “improvise” would mean to create something without preparation, and the text does not suggest that the principal chief and cabinet officials create policies and administer services without advance preparation.
• Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the principal chief and cabinet officials “mimic,” or imitate, the laws generated by the National Council. To mimic laws would mean to generate new laws that are imitations of existing laws, but the text indicates that the National Council, not the principal chief and cabinet officials, is responsible for generating laws. Instead of generating laws, the principal chief and cabinet officials put laws into effect by “devising policies and administering services in accordance with” the laws.

Choice B is the correct answer. Since the truck is traveling at 16 meters per second along the road, the distance it has traveled t seconds after entering the road is 16t meters. Since the elevation of the road drops 4 meters for every 100 meters along the length of the road, it follows that for 16t meters along the road, the elevation drops  Therefore, the elevation of the road at the point where the truck passes t seconds after entering the road is 1,300 – 0.64t meters.  
Choice A is incorrect because 4/100 t would be the number of meters that the elevation drops t seconds after the truck enters the road if its speed were 1 meter per second. Choice C is incorrect because 4t meters does not give the number of meters the elevation of the road drops. Choice D is incorrect because the drop rate of 4 meters for every 100 meters along the road is not used.

The correct answer is 300. To solve the given equation for h, first add 6 to both sides of the equation to get 30 = h/10. Then multiply both sides of this equation by 10 to yield h = 300. 

To calculate (7 + 3i) + (−8 + 9i), add the real parts of each complex number, 7 + (−8) = −1, and then add the imaginary parts, 3i + 9i = 12i. The result is −1 + 12i.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and likely result from common errors that arise when adding complex numbers. For example, choice B is the result of adding 3i and −9i, and choice C is the result of adding 7 and 8.

Choice B is the correct answer. The number of teenagers surveyed in the data is 170. Of those surveyed, a total of 59 teenagers had a summer job; thus, the percent of those teenager surveyed who had a summer job is 59/170 = 0.347, which rounds to 35%. Choice A is incorrect. This choice, 22%, is the approximate percent ( 20/89 ≈ 0.22) of teenagers aged 14 to 15 who had summer jobs. But that is not precisely what is asked in this question. Choices C and D are incorrect and may be the result of calculating relative frequencies that are different from what the problem asks. 

Choice A is the correct answer. The model indicates that the relationship between the velocities of the galaxies, in km/s, and their distance from Earth, in Mpc, is v = 500d. Therefore, the velocity of a galaxy that is 15 Mpc from Earth is v = 500(15) km/s, or 7,500 km/s.
Based on the model, the other choices are incorrect: Choice B is the speed of a galaxy that is 10 Mpc from Earth. Choice C is the speed of a galaxy that is 2.2 Mpc from Earth. Choice D is the speed of a galaxy that is 1.5 Mpc from Earth.

Choice C is correct. The standard form for the equation of a circle in the xy-plane with center (h, k) and radius r is (x – h)² + (y – k)² = r². Therefore, the equation of a circle with radius 3 and center (4, −2) is (x – 4)² + (y + 2)² = 9.
Choice A is incorrect. This equation is of a circle with center at (−4, 2) and a radius of √3, not 3. Choices B and D are incorrect because these equations define ellipses rather than circles; in the standard form for an equation of a circle, the two squared terms on the left-hand side of the equation are added, not subtracted. 

Original equation: -3x = 18
Divide both sides by -3: x = -6
Substitute x = -6 into the expression 4x + 6 and evaluate: 4(-6) + 6 = -18

First, we should notice that the y term in the second equation (9y) is three times the y term in the first equation (3y). Therefore, we should divide the second equation by 3 to get the equations to “match.” This gives us 2x + 3y = 5. Since the two equations must be equivalent, a = 2 and c = 5.

Recall that division by zero is undefined, so a rational function is undefined at any values that cause its denominator to equal zero:
Add 6 to both sides:
Multiply both sides by 3:
This one can also be solved by plugging in each answer choice and seeing which one cause the denominator to equal zero.

Original equation: 
Substitute x = 6: 
Add 6: 
Square both sides: m² - 13 = 36
Add 13: m² = 49
Take the square root: m = ±7
But since m < 0, m = -7.

Given: h(g(2)) = 9
Apply definition h(x) = x    = 9
Subtract 3: g(2) = 6
Therefore, g must be a function that takes an input of 2 and gives an output of 6. The only choice that satisfies this condition is (A) g(x) = x² + 2, because g(2) = (2)² + 2 = 4 + 2 = 6.

Given: a = 4√2
Multiply by 2: 2a = 8√2
Substitute 2a = 2a = √2b: √2b = 8√2
Square both sides: 2b = 64(2)
Divide by 2: b = 64

If 1/5 of her term paper is 15 pages, then the entire paper must be 15 x 5 = 75 pages long. This means she has 75 - 15 = 60 more pages to edit.