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EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - EMRS MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 for EMRS 2025 is part of EMRS preparation. The EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the EMRS exam syllabus.The EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 MCQs are made for EMRS 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 below.
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EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

Among the following, the one with the highest mass is:

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

Concept:

  • The laws dealing with ideal gases naturally called ideal gas laws, and the laws determined in the seventeenth century by Boyle's observational work and in the eighteenth century by Charles.
  • The Boyles Law states that the gas pressure is inversely proportional to the gas volume for a given mass of gas stored at a constant temperature.
  • Charles Law states that the gas volume is directly proportional to the gas temperature for a given fixed mass of gas stored at a constant pressure. 
  • An ideal gas is a gas that follows the equation:

PV = nRT at all temperatures and pressure, where P = Pressure of the ideal gas. V = Volume of the ideal gas n = Amount of ideal gas measured in terms of moles 

R = Universal gas constant T = Temperature

Mole Concept -

  •  The quantity one mole of a substance signifies 6.022 × 1023 number of particles of that substance which may be atoms, molecules, or ions.
  • The quantity is a universal constant like Dozen, Gross, etc., and is known as Avogadro number, denoted by NA. after the scientist Amedeo Avogadro.
  • Examples- In one mole of H2, there are 6.022 × 1023 molecules of hydrogen, and the number of atoms is 2 × 6.022 × 1023, as one molecule of hydrogen contains two-atom each.
  • The mass of one mole of a substance is called its Molar Mass (M) or Atomic mass expressed in grams.
  • The volume occupied by a mole of gas is 22.4 L at NTP, called its Molar Volume.
  • The no. of moles (n) is calculated as =

The number of particles / Avogadro’s number.

To summarise, we can say, 

Calculation:

  • The molar mass of 1 mole of H2SO4 is =

2 × 1 + 32 + 4 × 16 = 98g

  • The molar mass of 1 mole of Silver, Ag is its molecular mass 108g.
  • The molar mass of CO2 is = 12 + 2× 16 = 44g.
  • 44g of CO2 means one mole.
  • 1 mole of Oxygen weighs 16 + 16 = 32g.
  • Hence, the highest mass is of 1 mole of Ag.
EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Which one of the following is not a function of roots for the plant ?

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Concept:

  • Plants have different types of roots.
  • Some store food, some breathe some hang from the branches.

Explanation:

  • Roots are the underground structures that help in the absorption of water and minerals provide a proper anchorage to the plant parts, storage of reserve food material (Carrot, Radish), and synthesis of PGR (plant growth regulators).
  • Sometimes roots get modified to perform different functions like storage of food, respiration, climbing, etc.
  • These types of roots are called modified roots.
  • Examples - prop root of the Banyan tree for providing support, Pneumatophores of Rhizophora, and Mangrove plants for respiration.

So, these statements are correct.

  • To give support to the plant.
  • To store food.
  • To absorb water and minerals.

Thus, roots do not function to provide humus.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Select the number which can be placed at the sign of the question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

The logic followed is:

The bottom number = sum of the square of all the first three number column-wise 

In column-wise operation:

Column 1:

69 = 72 + 42 + 22 

69 = 49 + 16 + 4

69 = 69

Column 2:

91 = 32 + 92 + 12 

91 = 9 + 81 + 1

91 = 91

Similarly,

Column 3:

? = 22 + 62 + 52 

? = 4 + 36 + 25

? = 65 

Hence, the correct answer is "65".

Additional Information

The most common pattern asked in exams are based on:

  • It could be the sum of two numbers divided by a constant
  • It could be the average of numbers.
  • It could be in the form of alphabets, where alphabets are increased by constant or increased by the square of numbers or increased by prime numbers.
  • It could be the difference of product of two diametrically opposite numbers.
  • It could be the difference in the sum of adjacent numbers.
  • The difference of the numbers could be in the patterns 1± 1, 2± 1,  and so on.
  • The difference of the numbers could be in the patterns 1± 1, 2± 1, and so on.
  • Numbers could be 12, 22, 32, and so on or 13, 23, 33, and so on.
  • The difference could be prime numbers or the difference could be the square of prime numbers.
  • The difference could be in the form of N± N or N± N.
  • The difference could be in the form of ×N + N or ×2 + 1, ×2 + 2, ×2 + 3, and so on.
  • The difference could be in the form of ×2 ± 1 alternatively.
  • Numbers could be ×1, ×2, ×3, and so on. 
EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Find the number of triangle in the given figure.

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

The total number of triangle is according to figure is 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 8 = 18 

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

How many such 5's are there in the following numbers sequence, each of which is preceded by 3 or 4 but not  immediately followed by 8 or 9?

35954553584567357554523510

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

There are five such 5's as shown below

3 5 9 5 4 5 5 3 5 8 4 5 6 7 3 5 7 5 5 4 5 2 3 5 1 0

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Identify the odd one from the following -

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

The logic followed here is:

The place value of A is 1, D is 4, O is 15 and U is 21. 

In each of the given figure the alphabet and its place value are given except  U and 23 in figure D.

Hence, figure D is the odd one from the given figures.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure?

Problem Figure

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Hence, the above image is the correct answer.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship among the following classes.

Neptune, Planet, Moon

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Given: Neptune, Planet, Moon

The logic followed here is: Neptune is a Planet, but Moon is not. Moon is a natural satellite.

Hence, option (4)  is the correct answer.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

What are the advantages of e-mail?

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 9
Advantages of Email:
1. Speedy message sending process: Email allows for instantaneous communication, making it much faster than traditional mail. Messages can be sent and received within seconds, regardless of the distance between the sender and recipient.
2. Can be sent to multiple people at the same time: Email allows you to send messages to multiple recipients simultaneously. This makes it convenient for group communication, such as sending announcements, invitations, or updates to a large number of people.
3. Different types of media can be sent: Email supports the attachment of various types of media, including documents, images, videos, and audio files. This enables users to share and collaborate on different types of content easily.
4. Convenient organization and storage: Emails can be organized into folders and labeled for easy retrieval and reference. This helps in keeping track of important conversations, documents, and information. Additionally, emails can be stored for long periods of time, allowing for a permanent record of communication.
5. Global accessibility: Email can be accessed from anywhere in the world as long as there is an internet connection. This makes it a convenient mode of communication for individuals and businesses with global operations.
6. Cost-effective: Sending emails is generally more cost-effective than traditional mail. There are no postage or printing costs involved, and multiple copies can be sent without any additional expenses.
7. Environmentally friendly: Email eliminates the need for paper, reducing the consumption of natural resources and minimizing waste. This makes it a greener alternative to physical mail.
In conclusion, email offers numerous advantages, including speedy communication, the ability to reach multiple recipients, support for various media types, convenient organization and storage, global accessibility, cost-effectiveness, and environmental friendliness. It has become an essential tool for personal and professional communication in today's digital age.
EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Mrs. Kapoor wants to gift a digital album to her friend on her birthday. All the images are static and have lots of colour shading. Which of the following format is best suited for this purpose?

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Among the given options, only jpeg and gif are graphics formats. Jpeg format supports lots of colors and it also compresses static images better than gif.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

Hydrogen peroxide is ______________ in nature.

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

One of the most important chemical properties of hydrogen peroxide i.e. H2O2 is that it is acidic in nature. It is weakly acidic in nature and pure hydrogen peroxide turns blue Litmus red (an indication of acidic nature).

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Which of the following complex will give white precipitate with barium chloride solution?

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Since the reagent is BaCl2(aq), displacement reaction will take place. The resulting solution, if insoluble in water, will form a white precipitate. Both BaNO2 and BaCl2 are soluble in water and hence will not form a precipitate. BaSO4, however, is insoluble in water and hence forms a white precipitate.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

The pair of molecule shown are 

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

The configuration of the first compound is (R,S) and that of the second compound is (S,S). And we know that the isomers which are having different configurations at one or more equivalent chiral centers and the same configuration at the remaining chiral centers are called diastereomers.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

The second and third period of the modern periodic table contains how many elements in all?

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 14
  • In the second and third period of the modern periodic table does not involve any d orbital so we have s and p which have 8 electrons combined.
  • So for the second period, we have eight elements and for the third period, we have 8 elements so we have total of 16 elements in all.

Additional Information: 

  • The second and third periods contain 8 elements each and are called short periods.
    • The 2nd-period elements: lithium, beryllium, boron, carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, fluorine, and neon.
    • The 3rd-period elements: sodium, magnesium, aluminum, silicon, phosphorus, sulphur, chlorine, and argon.
  • The First period contains 2 elements (Hydrogen, Helium) and is called a very short period
EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

If 40 ml of 0.2 M KOH is added to 160 ml of 0.1 M HCOOH [Ka = 2 × 10-4]. The pOH of the resulting solution is

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

m. equivalent of KOH = 8
m. equivalent of HCOOH = 16
Remaining m. eq. (HCOOH) = 8
Formed m. eq. (HCOOK) = 8
⇒ Acidic Buffer
pH = pKa = 4 – log2
= 3.7
pOH = 10.3

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Mean bond enthalpy of different bonds are given

Out of the given pairs, which compound is more stable than the other?

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

)bond enthalpy > )bond enthalpy hence, is stable.


Bond enthalpy of six (P— P) bond = 6 x 215 = 1290 k j mol-1

Bond enthalpy of six (N — N) bond = 6 x 160
= 960 kJ mol-1
Thus, P4 is more stable than N4.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Consider the following elimination reaction,

When reaction is carried out with C2H5ONain ethanol, 2-menthene is the major product while 3-menthene is the major product if reaction is substrate is heated in ethanol only. It is due to

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

With strong base C2H5ONa, reaction proceeds by E2 mechanism. Since, there is no H in the anti position at tertiary β-carbon, deprotonation occur from secondary β-carbon giving 2-menthene as the major product. On the other hand, with weak base, reaction proceeds by E1 mechanism and the most stable tertiary carbocation formed, gives the major product 3-menthene.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

An aqueous solution of a solute AB has boiling point of 101.08° C and freezes at -1 .80 °C . AB is found to be 100% ionised at boiling point. If Kb /Kf = 0.3, then AB

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Thus, AS behaves as a non-electrolyte at the freezing point of solution (remains non-ionised).

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Consider the following oxidation/reduction process,




Q. Magnetic moment does not change in 

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Bottles containing C6H5I and C6H5CH2I lost their original labels. They were labelled A and B for testing. A and B were separately taken in test tubes and boiled with NaOH solution. The end solution in each tube was made acidic with dilute HNO3 and then some AgNO3 solution was added. Substance B gave a yellow precipitate.
Which one of the following statements is true for this experiment ?  

[AIEEE-2003]

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Pick out the compound which reacts fastest in the presence of AgNO3.

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Tertiary halide would react at fastest rate with AgNO3 as reaction will proceed by SN1 mechanism.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Which polymers occur naturally in nature

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Starch and cellulose occur naturally.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Which step of enzyme catalysis mechanism is shown in figure?

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Substrate bind to specific site of enzyme known as active site to form a enzyme substrate complex.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

'Dyslexia' is associated with:

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

'Dyslexia' is a term known for reading disorder. The person having this disorder faces difficulty in learning to read or interpret words, letters, and other symbols, but it is not related to general intelligence. It will not have any impact on a person's general intelligence. It is a hereditary disorder that mostly runs in families. Hence, the correct answer is, 'Reading disorder.'

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Statement I : When 3-bromo propene, which contain a labelled 13C at C-1 position is refluxed with methanol, following products were obtained.

Statement II : Methanol has an acidic proton bonded to oxygen.

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Both statements are true but the two different products are due to resonance in carbocation intermediate as

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

In the given questions, fill in the blanks with the appropriate words from the alternatives provided.

Even when the religious leader was arrested for a hideous crime, he still had the nerve to act __________ before the public.

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

The sentence indicates to the extreme hypocrisy of the religious leader, who even after being proven guilty does not want to give away his god-like, self-righteous stature. Hence, the correct answer should be 1 because of 'sanctimoniously' means 'self-righteous'. The other options 'sacrilegious', 'profane', and 'violated' respectively mean blasphemous, non-religious, disobeying the prescribed rules and regulations and corrupt.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute for the phrase.

Q. Something that cannot be easily viewed or felt.

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

Latent represents something that is apparent or superficial and that cannot be easily seen. 
Incensed means enraged, soporific represents something that causes sleep whereas spurn means to refuse. Thus, option 1 is appropriate.
Example- He has a huge reserve of latent talent in him.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

Q. Bury the hatchet

Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

To 'bury the hatchet' is to 'end a fight'. Therefore, the correct meaning is 'make peace'.

EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 29
‘गुणहीन' का सही समास विग्रह क्‍या है?
Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

गुणहीन का समास विग्रह 'गुण से हीन' है। Key Points

  • गुणहीन में अपादान तत्पुरुष समास है।
  • अपादान तत्पुरुष समास- जिस समास में उत्तर पद प्रधान तथा पूर्व पद गौण हो तथा 'से' विभक्ति का लोप हो अपादान तत्पुरुष समास कहलाता है।
  • उदाहरण- भयभीत, देशनिकाला, दूरागत आदि

Additional Information

  • तत्पुरुष समास की परिभाषा- जिस समास का उत्तरपद प्रधान हो तत्पुरुष समास कहलाता है, इस समास में कारक चिह्नों का लोप होता है।
  • तत्पुरुष समास के छः भेद होते है
EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 30
निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा शब्द तत्पुरूष समास का उदाहरण है?
Detailed Solution for EMRS PGT Chemistry Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 3देशाटन है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

Key Points

  • देशाटन का अर्थ होता है:- देश भ्रमण, पर्यटन करना।
  • देशाटन का समास विग्रह:-
    • देश में अटन (भ्रमण)।
  • अतः देशाटन शब्द तत्पुरुष समास का उदहारण है। क्योंकि यहाँ “का“ विभक्ति का लोप हुआ है। अतः सही उत्तर देशाटन होगा ।

अन्य विकल्प:-

Additional Information

  • समास का तात्पर्य है ‘संक्षिप्तीकरण’। हिन्दी व्याकरण में समास का शाब्दिक अर्थ होता है छोटा रूप; जब दो या दो से अधिक शब्दों से मिलकर जो नया और छोटा शब्द बनता है उस शब्द को हिन्दी में समास कहते हैं।
  • समास के उदाहरण:-
    • रसोई के लिए घर इसे हम रसोईघर भी कह सकते हैं।
    • राजा का पुत्र’ – राजपुत्र
  • समास के निम्नलिखित छह भेद होते हैं—
  • अव्ययीभाव समास - यदि एक शब्द की पुनरावृत्ति हो और दोनों शब्द मिलकर अव्यय की तरह प्रयोग हों वहाँ पर अव्ययीभाव समास होता है संस्कृत में उपसर्ग युक्त पद भी अव्ययीभाव समास ही मने जाते हैं।
  • उदाहरण:-
    • प्रतिवर्ष =हर वर्ष
    • आजन्म = जन्म से लेकर
  • तत्पुरुष समास - इस समास में दूसरा पद प्रधान होता है। यह कारक से जुदा समास होता है। इसमें ज्ञातव्य – विग्रह में जो कारक प्रकट होता है उसी कारक वाला वो समास होता है। इसे बनाने में दो पदों के बीच कारक चिन्हों का लोप हो जाता है उसे तत्पुरुष समास कहते हैं।
  • उदाहरण:-
    • देश के लिए भक्ति = देशभक्ति
    • राजा का महल = राजमहल
  • कर्मधारय समास - इस समास का उत्तर पद प्रधान होता है। इस समास में विशेषण -विशेष्य और उपमेय -उपमान से मिलकर बनते हैं उसे कर्मधारय समास कहते हैं।
  • उदाहरण:-
    • पीताम्बर =पीत है जो अम्बर
    • महात्मा =महान है जो आत्मा
  • द्विगु समास - द्विगु समास में पूर्वपद संख्यावाचक होता है और कभी-कभी उत्तरपद भी संख्यावाचक होता हुआ देखा जा सकता है। इस समास में प्रयुक्त संख्या किसी समूह को दर्शाती है किसी अर्थ को नहीं |इससे समूह और समाहार का बोध होता है। उसे द्विगु समास कहते हैं।
  • उदाहरण:-
    • नवग्रह = नौ ग्रहों का समूह
    • दोपहर = दो पहरों का समाहार
  • द्वन्द समास - इस समास में दोनों पद ही प्रधान होते हैं इसमें किसी भी पद का गौण नहीं होता है। ये दोनों पद एक-दूसरे पद के विलोम होते हैं लेकिन ये हमेशा नहीं होता है। इसका विग्रह करने पर और, अथवा, या, एवं का प्रयोग होता है उसे द्वंद्व समास कहते हैं।
  • उदाहरण:-
    • जलवायु = जल और वायु
    • अपना-पराया = अपना या पराया
  • बहुव्रीहि समास - इस समास में कोई भी पद प्रधान नहीं होता। जब दो पद मिलकर तीसरा पद बनाते हैं तब वह तीसरा पद प्रधान होता है। इसका विग्रह करने पर “वाला है, जो, जिसका, जिसकी, जिसके, वह” आदि आते हैं वह बहुब्रीहि समास कहलाता है।
  • उदाहरण:-
    • गजानन = गज का आनन है जिसका (गणेश)
    • त्रिनेत्र =तीन नेत्र हैं जिसके (शिव)
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