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GK Mock Test - 3 - CLAT MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Additional Study Material for CLAT - GK Mock Test - 3

GK Mock Test - 3 for CLAT 2024 is part of Additional Study Material for CLAT preparation. The GK Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus.The GK Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for CLAT 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for GK Mock Test - 3 below.
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GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

The deal signed between the U.S. and the Taliban in Doha on Saturday sets the stage for America to wind down the longest war in its history. It went into Afghanistan i n October 2001, a few weeks after the …(1)…. attacks, with the goals of defeating terrorists and rebuilding and stabilizing the central Asian country.
Almost 19 years later, the U.S. seeks to exit Afghanistan with assurances from the Taliban that the insurgents will not allow Afghan soil to be used by transnational terrorist groups such as al-Qaeda and that they would engage the Kabul government directly to find a lasting solution to the civil war. America‘s desperation is understandable. The __(2)__ war is estimated to have cost $2-trillion, with more than 3,500 American and coalition soldiers killed. Afghanistan lost hundreds of thousands of people, both civilians and soldiers. After all these, the Taliban is at its strongest moment since the U.S. launched the war. The insurgents control or contest the government control in half of the country, mainly in its hinterlands. The war had entered into a stalemate long ago and the U.S. failed to turn it around despite both American Presidents Barack Obama and Donald Trump having sent additional troops. Faced with no other way, the U.S. just wants to leave Afghanistan. But the problem is with the way it is getting out.
Q. Name the deal signed between U.S and Taliban in Doha.

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 1
The deal signed between the U.S. and the Taliban in Doha is called the Doha Agreement.
The Doha Agreement, signed on Saturday, sets the stage for the U.S. to wind down its longest war in history.
America's objectives in Afghanistan:
- Defeating terrorists
- Rebuilding and stabilizing the country
Reasons for the U.S. seeking to exit Afghanistan:
- The war has been ongoing for almost 19 years
- The cost of the war is estimated to be $2 trillion
- Over 3,500 American and coalition soldiers have been killed
- Afghanistan has suffered the loss of hundreds of thousands of people, both civilians and soldiers
- The Taliban is at its strongest moment since the war began, controlling or contesting half of the country
The problem with the U.S. exit:
- The war has reached a stalemate, and the U.S. has failed to turn it around despite sending additional troops
- The U.S. is desperate to leave Afghanistan, but the concern lies in the way it is getting out
Overall, the deal signed between the U.S. and the Taliban in Doha is aimed at achieving peace and stability in Afghanistan, but the success of the agreement remains uncertain.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

The deal signed between the U.S. and the Taliban in Doha on Saturday sets the stage for America to wind down the longest war in its history. It went into Afghanistan i n October 2001, a few weeks after the …(1)…. attacks, with the goals of defeating terrorists and rebuilding and stabilizing the central Asian country.
Almost 19 years later, the U.S. seeks to exit Afghanistan with assurances from the Taliban that the insurgents will not allow Afghan soil to be used by transnational terrorist groups such as al-Qaeda and that they would engage the Kabul government directly to find a lasting solution to the civil war. America‘s desperation is understandable. The __(2)__ war is estimated to have cost $2-trillion, with more than 3,500 American and coalition soldiers killed. Afghanistan lost hundreds of thousands of people, both civilians and soldiers. After all these, the Taliban is at its strongest moment since the U.S. launched the war. The insurgents control or contest the government control in half of the country, mainly in its hinterlands. The war had entered into a stalemate long ago and the U.S. failed to turn it around despite both American Presidents Barack Obama and Donald Trump having sent additional troops. Faced with no other way, the U.S. just wants to leave Afghanistan. But the problem is with the way it is getting out.
Q. Fill in the blank (2) in above mentioned paragraph.

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

The correct answer to fill in the blank (2) is Afghan.
Explanation:
- The paragraph discusses the long and costly war in Afghanistan for the United States.
- It mentions that after almost 19 years, the U.S. seeks to exit Afghanistan.
- The U.S. wants assurances from the Taliban to prevent the use of Afghan soil by transnational terrorist groups and find a lasting solution to the civil war.
- The paragraph highlights the desperation of the U.S. due to the cost and casualties of the war.
- The Taliban is mentioned to be at its strongest moment since the war began, controlling or contesting the government in half of the country.
- The U.S. failed to turn the war around despite sending additional troops.
- The main issue discussed is with the way the U.S. is exiting Afghanistan.
Therefore, the correct answer to fill in the blank (2) is "Afghan" as it refers to the war in Afghanistan.
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GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

The deal signed between the U.S. and the Taliban in Doha on Saturday sets the stage for America to wind down the longest war in its history. It went into Afghanistan i n October 2001, a few weeks after the …(1)…. attacks, with the goals of defeating terrorists and rebuilding and stabilizing the central Asian country.
Almost 19 years later, the U.S. seeks to exit Afghanistan with assurances from the Taliban that the insurgents will not allow Afghan soil to be used by transnational terrorist groups such as al-Qaeda and that they would engage the Kabul government directly to find a lasting solution to the civil war. America‘s desperation is understandable. The __(2)__ war is estimated to have cost $2-trillion, with more than 3,500 American and coalition soldiers killed. Afghanistan lost hundreds of thousands of people, both civilians and soldiers. After all these, the Taliban is at its strongest moment since the U.S. launched the war. The insurgents control or contest the government control in half of the country, mainly in its hinterlands. The war had entered into a stalemate long ago and the U.S. failed to turn it around despite both American Presidents Barack Obama and Donald Trump having sent additional troops. Faced with no other way, the U.S. just wants to leave Afghanistan. But the problem is with the way it is getting out.
Q. Doha is the capital of which country?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Background:
- The deal signed between the U.S. and the Taliban in Doha sets the stage for America to wind down the longest war in its history.
- The U.S. entered Afghanistan in October 2001 after the 9/11 attacks, with the goals of defeating terrorists and rebuilding the country.
- The war has cost the U.S. an estimated $2 trillion and resulted in the deaths of over 3,500 American and coalition soldiers.
America's Desperation:
- The U.S. seeks to exit Afghanistan with assurances from the Taliban that they will prevent the use of Afghan soil by transnational terrorist groups.
- The U.S. wants the Taliban to engage with the Kabul government directly to find a lasting solution to the civil war.
- The Taliban is currently at its strongest moment since the war began, controlling or contesting half of the country.
Stalemate and Failed Attempts:
- The war has been in a stalemate for a long time, and the U.S. has been unable to turn the situation around despite additional troop deployments under Presidents Obama and Trump.
- The U.S. has no other option but to leave Afghanistan due to the lack of progress.
Issue with the Withdrawal:
- The problem lies in the way the U.S. is getting out of Afghanistan.
- The deal with the Taliban raises concerns about the potential for a power vacuum and the stability of the Afghan government.
- There are fears that the Taliban might regain control and undo the progress made in the last two decades.
Answer:
- The capital of Qatar is Doha.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

The deal signed between the U.S. and the Taliban in Doha on Saturday sets the stage for America to wind down the longest war in its history. It went into Afghanistan i n October 2001, a few weeks after the …(1)…. attacks, with the goals of defeating terrorists and rebuilding and stabilizing the central Asian country.
Almost 19 years later, the U.S. seeks to exit Afghanistan with assurances from the Taliban that the insurgents will not allow Afghan soil to be used by transnational terrorist groups such as al-Qaeda and that they would engage the Kabul government directly to find a lasting solution to the civil war. America‘s desperation is understandable. The __(2)__ war is estimated to have cost $2-trillion, with more than 3,500 American and coalition soldiers killed. Afghanistan lost hundreds of thousands of people, both civilians and soldiers. After all these, the Taliban is at its strongest moment since the U.S. launched the war. The insurgents control or contest the government control in half of the country, mainly in its hinterlands. The war had entered into a stalemate long ago and the U.S. failed to turn it around despite both American Presidents Barack Obama and Donald Trump having sent additional troops. Faced with no other way, the U.S. just wants to leave Afghanistan. But the problem is with the way it is getting out.
Q. What is response of India to this deal signed by U.S & Taliban?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

B is the correct option. This deal was signed after the attacks of 9/11 and Indian accepted this deal signed by U.S & Taliban.

GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

The deal signed between the U.S. and the Taliban in Doha on Saturday sets the stage for America to wind down the longest war in its history. It went into Afghanistan i n October 2001, a few weeks after the …(1)…. attacks, with the goals of defeating terrorists and rebuilding and stabilizing the central Asian country.
Almost 19 years later, the U.S. seeks to exit Afghanistan with assurances from the Taliban that the insurgents will not allow Afghan soil to be used by transnational terrorist groups such as al-Qaeda and that they would engage the Kabul government directly to find a lasting solution to the civil war. America‘s desperation is understandable. The __(2)__ war is estimated to have cost $2-trillion, with more than 3,500 American and coalition soldiers killed. Afghanistan lost hundreds of thousands of people, both civilians and soldiers. After all these, the Taliban is at its strongest moment since the U.S. launched the war. The insurgents control or contest the government control in half of the country, mainly in its hinterlands. The war had entered into a stalemate long ago and the U.S. failed to turn it around despite both American Presidents Barack Obama and Donald Trump having sent additional troops. Faced with no other way, the U.S. just wants to leave Afghanistan. But the problem is with the way it is getting out.
Q. Which of the following is best option to fill up …..(1)….?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 5
The correct option to fill up (1) is B: 9/11.
Explanation:
The passage mentions that the U.S. went into Afghanistan in October 2001, a few weeks after the __(1)__ attacks. Based on this information, we can determine that the attacks being referred to are the 9/11 attacks.
Reasoning:
- The passage states that the U.S. went into Afghanistan a few weeks after the __(1)__ attacks.
- The only option that corresponds to this timeframe is option B: 9/11, which refers to the September 11, 2001 attacks.
Therefore, option B: 9/11 is the correct choice to fill up __(1)__ in the given passage.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

The decision by global watchdog, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), at its plenary in __(1)__, to keep Pakistan on its ”greylist” for monitoring its record against terror financing was no surprise. While the Pakistan government has yet to complete the 27-point action plan it was given in June 2018, it has, according to the FATF, made some progress. As a result, the 39-member group that includes India decided to extend Pakistan‘s September 2019 d eadline until June 2020. Actions Pakistan still needs to carry out include tightening security and banking restrictions to block loopholes through which designated groups including the Taliban, al-Qaeda, Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-e-Mohammad access funding. It also calls on Pakistan to begin prosecutions against terrorists and sanction entities that are flouting the UNSC‘s rules for designated terror organizations. The FATF Chairman‘s final comment says Pakistan must comply with all 27-action points — it has cleared about 14 — in the next four months or face financial strictures by being placed on the ”blacklist”. Pakistan is one of 18 countries on the greylist; Iran and North Korea are on the blacklist.
The FATF‘s sharp language is significant, yet according to the force‘s consensus rules, Pakistan believes it might be able to slip through the deadlines if it is able to ensure that three countries, China, Turkey and Malaysia, which have pledged support, veto any move to blacklist it.
Q. FATF maintains two different lists of countries, which are 2 categories of those lists?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 6
FATF maintains two different lists of countries, which are 2 categories of those lists?
The two categories of lists maintained by FATF are:
1. Blacklist:
- Countries that are considered to have strategic deficiencies in their anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing regimes.
- These countries are identified as high-risk jurisdictions and face severe financial restrictions.
- Iran and North Korea are currently on the blacklist.
2. Greylist:
- Countries that are identified as having strategic deficiencies in their anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing regimes.
- These countries are placed under increased monitoring and are required to take necessary actions to address the identified deficiencies.
- Pakistan is currently on the greylist along with 17 other countries.
Note: The red list mentioned in option C is not a category maintained by FATF.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

The decision by global watchdog, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), at its plenary in __(1)__, to keep Pakistan on its ”greylist” for monitoring its record against terror financing was no surprise. While the Pakistan government has yet to complete the 27-point action plan it was given in June 2018, it has, according to the FATF, made some progress. As a result, the 39-member group that includes India decided to extend Pakistan‘s September 2019 d eadline until June 2020. Actions Pakistan still needs to carry out include tightening security and banking restrictions to block loopholes through which designated groups including the Taliban, al-Qaeda, Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-e-Mohammad access funding. It also calls on Pakistan to begin prosecutions against terrorists and sanction entities that are flouting the UNSC‘s rules for designated terror organizations. The FATF Chairman‘s final comment says Pakistan must comply with all 27-action points — it has cleared about 14 — in the next four months or face financial strictures by being placed on the ”blacklist”. Pakistan is one of 18 countries on the greylist; Iran and North Korea are on the blacklist.
The FATF‘s sharp language is significant, yet according to the force‘s consensus rules, Pakistan believes it might be able to slip through the deadlines if it is able to ensure that three countries, China, Turkey and Malaysia, which have pledged support, veto any move to blacklist it.
Q. Who is the current President of FATF?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 7
Current President of FATF: Xiangmin Liu
Explanation:
The current President of FATF is Xiangmin Liu. The decision to keep Pakistan on the "greylist" for monitoring its record against terror financing was made by the FATF at its plenary. Pakistan has yet to complete the 27-point action plan given to it in June 2018, but it has made some progress according to the FATF. As a result, the deadline for Pakistan has been extended until June 2020. Pakistan still needs to tighten security and banking restrictions to block funding for designated terror organizations. The FATF Chairman has stated that Pakistan must comply with all 27-action points in the next four months or face financial strictures by being placed on the "blacklist". Pakistan is currently one of 18 countries on the greylist, while Iran and North Korea are on the blacklist. Pakistan believes it might be able to avoid being blacklisted if three countries, China, Turkey, and Malaysia, veto any move to blacklist it.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

The decision by global watchdog, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), at its plenary in __(1)__, to keep Pakistan on its ”greylist” for monitoring its record against terror financing was no surprise. While the Pakistan government has yet to complete the 27-point action plan it was given in June 2018, it has, according to the FATF, made some progress. As a result, the 39-member group that includes India decided to extend Pakistan‘s September 2019 d eadline until June 2020. Actions Pakistan still needs to carry out include tightening security and banking restrictions to block loopholes through which designated groups including the Taliban, al-Qaeda, Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-e-Mohammad access funding. It also calls on Pakistan to begin prosecutions against terrorists and sanction entities that are flouting the UNSC‘s rules for designated terror organizations. The FATF Chairman‘s final comment says Pakistan must comply with all 27-action points — it has cleared about 14 — in the next four months or face financial strictures by being placed on the ”blacklist”. Pakistan is one of 18 countries on the greylist; Iran and North Korea are on the blacklist.
The FATF‘s sharp language is significant, yet according to the force‘s consensus rules, Pakistan believes it might be able to slip through the deadlines if it is able to ensure that three countries, China, Turkey and Malaysia, which have pledged support, veto any move to blacklist it.
Q. Fill in the blank ….(1)….. with city that headquarters FATF?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 8


Answer:

FATF Headquarters: Paris



GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

The decision by global watchdog, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), at its plenary in __(1)__, to keep Pakistan on its ”greylist” for monitoring its record against terror financing was no surprise. While the Pakistan government has yet to complete the 27-point action plan it was given in June 2018, it has, according to the FATF, made some progress. As a result, the 39-member group that includes India decided to extend Pakistan‘s September 2019 d eadline until June 2020. Actions Pakistan still needs to carry out include tightening security and banking restrictions to block loopholes through which designated groups including the Taliban, al-Qaeda, Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-e-Mohammad access funding. It also calls on Pakistan to begin prosecutions against terrorists and sanction entities that are flouting the UNSC‘s rules for designated terror organizations. The FATF Chairman‘s final comment says Pakistan must comply with all 27-action points — it has cleared about 14 — in the next four months or face financial strictures by being placed on the ”blacklist”. Pakistan is one of 18 countries on the greylist; Iran and North Korea are on the blacklist.
The FATF‘s sharp language is significant, yet according to the force‘s consensus rules, Pakistan believes it might be able to slip through the deadlines if it is able to ensure that three countries, China, Turkey and Malaysia, which have pledged support, veto any move to blacklist it.
Q. Which of the following correctly describes initial mandate of FATF which stands for Financial Action Task Force ?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

The correct option is A.

The initial mandate of FATF was to counter money laundering. In 2001, its mandate expanded to include terror financing.

GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

The decision by global watchdog, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), at its plenary in __(1)__, to keep Pakistan on its ”greylist” for monitoring its record against terror financing was no surprise. While the Pakistan government has yet to complete the 27-point action plan it was given in June 2018, it has, according to the FATF, made some progress. As a result, the 39-member group that includes India decided to extend Pakistan‘s September 2019 d eadline until June 2020. Actions Pakistan still needs to carry out include tightening security and banking restrictions to block loopholes through which designated groups including the Taliban, al-Qaeda, Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-e-Mohammad access funding. It also calls on Pakistan to begin prosecutions against terrorists and sanction entities that are flouting the UNSC‘s rules for designated terror organizations. The FATF Chairman‘s final comment says Pakistan must comply with all 27-action points — it has cleared about 14 — in the next four months or face financial strictures by being placed on the ”blacklist”. Pakistan is one of 18 countries on the greylist; Iran and North Korea are on the blacklist.
The FATF‘s sharp language is significant, yet according to the force‘s consensus rules, Pakistan believes it might be able to slip through the deadlines if it is able to ensure that three countries, China, Turkey and Malaysia, which have pledged support, veto any move to blacklist it.
Q. Which of the following countries is in the black list of FATF?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Answer:


C: North Korea


Explanation:

The black list of FATF includes the following countries:



  • North Korea: North Korea has been blacklisted by FATF due to its lack of cooperation in combating money laundering and terrorist financing.


Therefore, the correct answer is option C: North Korea.

GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

Sometimes, the leash follows the dog, but given the importance of control, the sequence can seem insignificant. It only matters that there remains a good hold over the circumstances. No matter then that the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation (ART) Bill, which was cleared by UNION Cabinet this week, came after the Surrogacy Bill that it should have preceded. Together, the ART Bill; the Surrogacy Bill; the amendment to the MTP Act ; and the older Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act present a bouquet of legislation that will have a positive impact on the reproductive rights and choices of women in India. The ART Bill to regulate clinics offering fertility treatments has been long in the works, and was first presented publicly way back in 2008.
ART measures help couples unable to conceive naturally to bear children with the aid of state-of-theart technology to achieve pregnancy, leading to safe delivery. India has a rich history of employing ART, though the initial years went officially undocumented at that time. In the late 1970s, only months after the birth of Louise Brown, the first ’test tube baby‘, Kolkata-based doctor Subhas Mukherjee announced the birth of the world‘s second test tube baby.
Subsequently, the industry saw phenomenal growth as infertility rates went up. A market projection (by Fortune Business Insights) said the size of the ART market is expected to reach $45 billion by 2026.
Among Asian countries, India‘s ART market is pegged at third position. A lack of regulation and the consequent laxity in operations drove a lot of traffic from other nations to India. This, in turn, along with the relatively low costs, led to the mushrooming of ART clinics across the country. Undoubtedly, this also led to a plethora of legal, social and ethical issues.
Q. Who is Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 11
Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare: Harsh Vardhan
Explanation:
The Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare is Harsh Vardhan. He holds the position in the Indian government and is responsible for overseeing health-related policies and initiatives in the country.
Here are some key points about Harsh Vardhan:
1. Harsh Vardhan is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and has been serving as the Minister of Health and Family Welfare since May 2019.
2. He has been actively involved in the healthcare sector and has been a strong advocate for improving the quality and accessibility of healthcare services in India.
3. Harsh Vardhan has played a crucial role in the implementation of various healthcare programs and initiatives, including the Ayushman Bharat scheme, which aims to provide health insurance coverage to millions of vulnerable individuals and families.
4. As the Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare, Harsh Vardhan has been instrumental in the formulation and implementation of policies related to reproductive rights and choices, including the Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) Bill.
5. Under his leadership, efforts have been made to regulate fertility clinics and ensure the safety and well-being of couples seeking fertility treatments.
Overall, Harsh Vardhan has been actively working towards improving the healthcare sector in India and ensuring that individuals have access to quality healthcare services. As the Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare, he plays a crucial role in shaping healthcare policies and initiatives in the country.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

Sometimes, the leash follows the dog, but given the importance of control, the sequence can seem insignificant. It only matters that there remains a good hold over the circumstances. No matter then that the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation (ART) Bill, which was cleared by UNION Cabinet this week, came after the Surrogacy Bill that it should have preceded. Together, the ART Bill; the Surrogacy Bill; the amendment to the MTP Act ; and the older Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act present a bouquet of legislation that will have a positive impact on the reproductive rights and choices of women in India. The ART Bill to regulate clinics offering fertility treatments has been long in the works, and was first presented publicly way back in 2008.
ART measures help couples unable to conceive naturally to bear children with the aid of state-of-theart technology to achieve pregnancy, leading to safe delivery. India has a rich history of employing ART, though the initial years went officially undocumented at that time. In the late 1970s, only months after the birth of Louise Brown, the first ’test tube baby‘, Kolkata-based doctor Subhas Mukherjee announced the birth of the world‘s second test tube baby.
Subsequently, the industry saw phenomenal growth as infertility rates went up. A market projection (by Fortune Business Insights) said the size of the ART market is expected to reach $45 billion by 2026.
Among Asian countries, India‘s ART market is pegged at third position. A lack of regulation and the consequent laxity in operations drove a lot of traffic from other nations to India. This, in turn, along with the relatively low costs, led to the mushrooming of ART clinics across the country. Undoubtedly, this also led to a plethora of legal, social and ethical issues.
Q. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2020 ?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 12
Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2020:
The correct statements with respect to the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2020 are:
A: It bans commercial surrogacy.
B: Only Indian couples can opt for surrogacy in the country.
C: No sex selection can be done when it comes to surrogacy.
Explanation:
- The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2020 prohibits commercial surrogacy, which means that surrogacy cannot be done for monetary compensation or financial gain.
- The bill allows only Indian couples to opt for surrogacy in the country, thereby restricting the option for foreign couples.
- Additionally, the bill prohibits sex selection during surrogacy, preventing any form of gender bias or discrimination.
Therefore, all the given statements (A, B, and C) are correct with respect to the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2020.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Sometimes, the leash follows the dog, but given the importance of control, the sequence can seem insignificant. It only matters that there remains a good hold over the circumstances. No matter then that the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation (ART) Bill, which was cleared by UNION Cabinet this week, came after the Surrogacy Bill that it should have preceded. Together, the ART Bill; the Surrogacy Bill; the amendment to the MTP Act ; and the older Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act present a bouquet of legislation that will have a positive impact on the reproductive rights and choices of women in India. The ART Bill to regulate clinics offering fertility treatments has been long in the works, and was first presented publicly way back in 2008.
ART measures help couples unable to conceive naturally to bear children with the aid of state-of-theart technology to achieve pregnancy, leading to safe delivery. India has a rich history of employing ART, though the initial years went officially undocumented at that time. In the late 1970s, only months after the birth of Louise Brown, the first ’test tube baby‘, Kolkata-based doctor Subhas Mukherjee announced the birth of the world‘s second test tube baby.
Subsequently, the industry saw phenomenal growth as infertility rates went up. A market projection (by Fortune Business Insights) said the size of the ART market is expected to reach $45 billion by 2026.
Among Asian countries, India‘s ART market is pegged at third position. A lack of regulation and the consequent laxity in operations drove a lot of traffic from other nations to India. This, in turn, along with the relatively low costs, led to the mushrooming of ART clinics across the country. Undoubtedly, this also led to a plethora of legal, social and ethical issues.
Q. What is the full form of IVF?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 13
Full form of IVF: In-Vitro Fertilization
- IVF stands for In-Vitro Fertilization.
- In-Vitro Fertilization is a type of assisted reproductive technology (ART) that helps couples who are unable to conceive naturally to have children.
- During the IVF process, eggs are retrieved from the woman's ovaries and fertilized with sperm in a laboratory dish. The fertilized eggs, or embryos, are then transferred back into the woman's uterus for implantation and pregnancy.
- IVF is commonly used to treat infertility due to various reasons such as blocked fallopian tubes, low sperm count, advanced maternal age, or unexplained infertility.
- The success rate of IVF varies depending on several factors, including the age of the woman, the quality of the eggs and sperm, and the expertise of the fertility clinic.
- IVF has revolutionized the field of reproductive medicine and has helped millions of couples worldwide to achieve their dream of having a baby.
- In India, the IVF market is booming, and the country is considered one of the major players in the ART industry.
- The recent passing of the Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) Bill by the UNION Cabinet will provide much-needed regulation and oversight to the IVF clinics in India.
- The ART Bill aims to ensure the safety and well-being of both the patients and the children born through IVF.
- With proper regulation and guidelines, the IVF industry in India is expected to grow and continue to provide hope for couples struggling with infertility.
- In conclusion, IVF stands for In-Vitro Fertilization and is a widely used assisted reproductive technology that helps couples conceive when natural conception is not possible.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Sometimes, the leash follows the dog, but given the importance of control, the sequence can seem insignificant. It only matters that there remains a good hold over the circumstances. No matter then that the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation (ART) Bill, which was cleared by UNION Cabinet this week, came after the Surrogacy Bill that it should have preceded. Together, the ART Bill; the Surrogacy Bill; the amendment to the MTP Act ; and the older Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act present a bouquet of legislation that will have a positive impact on the reproductive rights and choices of women in India. The ART Bill to regulate clinics offering fertility treatments has been long in the works, and was first presented publicly way back in 2008.
ART measures help couples unable to conceive naturally to bear children with the aid of state-of-theart technology to achieve pregnancy, leading to safe delivery. India has a rich history of employing ART, though the initial years went officially undocumented at that time. In the late 1970s, only months after the birth of Louise Brown, the first ’test tube baby‘, Kolkata-based doctor Subhas Mukherjee announced the birth of the world‘s second test tube baby.
Subsequently, the industry saw phenomenal growth as infertility rates went up. A market projection (by Fortune Business Insights) said the size of the ART market is expected to reach $45 billion by 2026.
Among Asian countries, India‘s ART market is pegged at third position. A lack of regulation and the consequent laxity in operations drove a lot of traffic from other nations to India. This, in turn, along with the relatively low costs, led to the mushrooming of ART clinics across the country. Undoubtedly, this also led to a plethora of legal, social and ethical issues.
Q. What is full form of MTP Act?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 14
Full Form of MTP Act:
The full form of MTP Act is Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act.
Explanation:
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act is a legislation in India that allows for the termination of pregnancies under certain conditions. Here is a detailed explanation of the MTP Act:
- Objective: The primary objective of the MTP Act is to ensure safe and legal access to abortion services for women in India.
- Legalization of Abortion: The MTP Act legalizes the termination of pregnancies up to 20 weeks, subject to certain conditions. Beyond 20 weeks, abortion can be carried out only in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the pregnant woman.
- Conditions for Abortion: The MTP Act allows for abortions under various conditions, including risk to the physical or mental health of the woman, contraception failure, rape, and fetal abnormalities.
- Authorized Providers: The MTP Act specifies that abortions can only be performed by registered medical practitioners in approved medical facilities.
- Safeguards: The MTP Act also includes provisions to ensure the confidentiality, privacy, and dignity of women seeking abortion services. It prohibits the disclosure of the identity of women who have undergone abortion.
- Amendments: The MTP Act has undergone several amendments since its enactment in 1971 to address changing societal needs and advancements in medical technology.
- Impact on Reproductive Rights: The MTP Act plays a crucial role in safeguarding the reproductive rights of women in India by providing them with access to safe and legal abortion services.
In conclusion, the full form of MTP Act is Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, and it is an important legislation in India that allows for the termination of pregnancies under certain conditions, ensuring the reproductive rights and choices of women.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Sometimes, the leash follows the dog, but given the importance of control, the sequence can seem insignificant. It only matters that there remains a good hold over the circumstances. No matter then that the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation (ART) Bill, which was cleared by UNION Cabinet this week, came after the Surrogacy Bill that it should have preceded. Together, the ART Bill; the Surrogacy Bill; the amendment to the MTP Act ; and the older Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act present a bouquet of legislation that will have a positive impact on the reproductive rights and choices of women in India. The ART Bill to regulate clinics offering fertility treatments has been long in the works, and was first presented publicly way back in 2008.
ART measures help couples unable to conceive naturally to bear children with the aid of state-of-theart technology to achieve pregnancy, leading to safe delivery. India has a rich history of employing ART, though the initial years went officially undocumented at that time. In the late 1970s, only months after the birth of Louise Brown, the first ’test tube baby‘, Kolkata-based doctor Subhas Mukherjee announced the birth of the world‘s second test tube baby.
Subsequently, the industry saw phenomenal growth as infertility rates went up. A market projection (by Fortune Business Insights) said the size of the ART market is expected to reach $45 billion by 2026.
Among Asian countries, India‘s ART market is pegged at third position. A lack of regulation and the consequent laxity in operations drove a lot of traffic from other nations to India. This, in turn, along with the relatively low costs, led to the mushrooming of ART clinics across the country. Undoubtedly, this also led to a plethora of legal, social and ethical issues.
Q. Which of the following options are true with respect to Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation (ART) Bill?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 15
Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation (ART) Bill
The Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation (ART) Bill is a legislation that has been cleared by the UNION Cabinet in India. It aims to regulate clinics offering fertility treatments and has a positive impact on the reproductive rights and choices of women in the country.
Key Points:
- The ART Bill allows altruistic surrogacy, which is a type of surrogacy where the surrogate mother does not receive any financial compensation.
- The ART Bill bans commercial surrogacy, which is a type of surrogacy where the surrogate mother is paid for carrying the pregnancy.
- Therefore, both statement 1 and 2 are true with respect to the ART Bill.
- The ART Bill is part of a bouquet of legislation that includes the Surrogacy Bill, the amendment to the MTP Act, and the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act.
- The ART Bill has been in the works for a long time and was first presented publicly in 2008.
- India has a rich history of employing ART, with Kolkata-based doctor Subhas Mukherjee announcing the birth of the world's second test tube baby in the late 1970s.
- The lack of regulation in the ART industry in India led to a surge in operations and attracted traffic from other countries.
- The ART market in India is expected to reach $45 billion by 2026, making it the third-largest in Asia.
Therefore, option C, which states that both statement 1 and 2 are true, is the correct answer.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

It is quite understandable that a recent Supreme Court judgment, that there is no fundamental right to claim reservation in promotions, has caused some political alarm. The received wisdom in affirmative action jurisprudence is that a series of Constitution amendments and judgments have created a sound legal framework for reservation in public employment, subject to the fulfillment of certain constitutional requirements. And that it has solidified into an entitlement for the backward classes, including the SCs and STs. However, the latest judgment is a reminder that affirmative action programmes allowed in the Constitution flow from ”enabling provisions” and are not rights as such. This legal position is not new. Major judgments — these include those by Constitution Benches — note that Article 16(4), on reservation in posts, is enabling in nature. In other words, the state is not bound to provide reservations, but if it does so, it must be in favour of sections that are backward and inadequately represented in the services based on quantifiable data. Thus, the Court is not wrong in setting aside an Uttarakhand High Court order directing data collection on the adequacy or inadequacy of representation of SC/ST candidates in the State‘s services. Its reasoning is that once there is a decision not to extend reservation — in this case, in promotions — to the section, the question whether its representation in the services is inadequate is irrelevant.
Q. The Central Government of India recently introduced EWS Reservation. Under it ______quota is provided for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) among General Category candidates in government jobs and educational institutions.
Complete the above sentence by choosing one of the following options:

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 16
The Central Government of India recently introduced EWS Reservation. Under it, 10% quota is provided for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) among General Category candidates in government jobs and educational institutions.
The following points explain the details of the EWS Reservation:
- The Central Government of India introduced the EWS Reservation to provide opportunities for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) among General Category candidates.
- The reservation provides a 10% quota for EWS candidates in government jobs and educational institutions.
- This reservation is separate from the existing reservations for Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and Other Backward Classes (OBC) candidates.
- The EWS Reservation is applicable to candidates who do not belong to any reserved category but come from economically weaker backgrounds.
- To be eligible for the EWS Reservation, candidates need to meet certain income and asset criteria defined by the government.
- The reservation aims to ensure representation and equal opportunities for economically disadvantaged individuals from the General Category.
- The introduction of the EWS Reservation expands the scope of affirmative action in India and addresses the economic disparities faced by the economically weaker sections of the society.
Note: The answer is presented in bullet points for better readability and understanding.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

It is quite understandable that a recent Supreme Court judgment, that there is no fundamental right to claim reservation in promotions, has caused some political alarm. The received wisdom in affirmative action jurisprudence is that a series of Constitution amendments and judgments have created a sound legal framework for reservation in public employment, subject to the fulfillment of certain constitutional requirements. And that it has solidified into an entitlement for the backward classes, including the SCs and STs. However, the latest judgment is a reminder that affirmative action programmes allowed in the Constitution flow from ”enabling provisions” and are not rights as such. This legal position is not new. Major judgments — these include those by Constitution Benches — note that Article 16(4), on reservation in posts, is enabling in nature. In other words, the state is not bound to provide reservations, but if it does so, it must be in favour of sections that are backward and inadequately represented in the services based on quantifiable data. Thus, the Court is not wrong in setting aside an Uttarakhand High Court order directing data collection on the adequacy or inadequacy of representation of SC/ST candidates in the State‘s services. Its reasoning is that once there is a decision not to extend reservation — in this case, in promotions — to the section, the question whether its representation in the services is inadequate is irrelevant.
Q. The Supreme Court of India ruled in 1992-that reservation could not exceed?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 17
The Supreme Court of India ruled in 1992-that reservation could not exceed 50%.

The ruling by the Supreme Court of India in 1992 established that the reservation policy in India cannot exceed 50% for any particular category. This ruling was based on the interpretation of Article 16(4) of the Indian Constitution, which allows for reservation in public employment.


Here are the key points regarding the 1992 Supreme Court ruling:


- The reservation policy in India is subject to the limit of 50%.
- The ruling was based on the understanding that reservation should not lead to an excessive imbalance in the representation of different categories in public employment.
- The Court emphasized the importance of maintaining efficiency and meritocracy in public services while ensuring social justice through reservation.
- The ruling also highlighted the need for quantifiable data to determine the backwardness and inadequacy of representation of specific categories in public services.
- It is important to note that the 50% limit on reservation does not apply to certain exceptional cases, such as extraordinary situations and specific provisions made by the Parliament.
- The ruling has been upheld in subsequent judgments, reaffirming the 50% cap on reservation in public employment.
Overall, the 1992 Supreme Court ruling established the 50% limit on reservation in India, ensuring a balance between social justice and efficiency in public services.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

It is quite understandable that a recent Supreme Court judgment, that there is no fundamental right to claim reservation in promotions, has caused some political alarm. The received wisdom in affirmative action jurisprudence is that a series of Constitution amendments and judgments have created a sound legal framework for reservation in public employment, subject to the fulfillment of certain constitutional requirements. And that it has solidified into an entitlement for the backward classes, including the SCs and STs. However, the latest judgment is a reminder that affirmative action programmes allowed in the Constitution flow from ”enabling provisions” and are not rights as such. This legal position is not new. Major judgments — these include those by Constitution Benches — note that Article 16(4), on reservation in posts, is enabling in nature. In other words, the state is not bound to provide reservations, but if it does so, it must be in favour of sections that are backward and inadequately represented in the services based on quantifiable data. Thus, the Court is not wrong in setting aside an Uttarakhand High Court order directing data collection on the adequacy or inadequacy of representation of SC/ST candidates in the State‘s services. Its reasoning is that once there is a decision not to extend reservation — in this case, in promotions — to the section, the question whether its representation in the services is inadequate is irrelevant.
Q. Inclusion in the list of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes can be made through order of which of the following?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 18
Answer:
Inclusion in the list of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes can be made through an order of the President. This is stated in Article 341 and 342 of the Indian Constitution. Here is a detailed explanation:
Article 341: This article deals with the provisions for the list of Scheduled Castes. It empowers the President to specify the castes, races, or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races, or tribes which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes. The President can do so by issuing a public notification or order.
Article 342: This article deals with the provisions for the list of Scheduled Tribes. It empowers the President to specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes. The President can do so by issuing a public notification or order.
Therefore, it is the President who has the authority to include a caste or tribe in the list of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, respectively.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

It is quite understandable that a recent Supreme Court judgment, that there is no fundamental right to claim reservation in promotions, has caused some political alarm. The received wisdom in affirmative action jurisprudence is that a series of Constitution amendments and judgments have created a sound legal framework for reservation in public employment, subject to the fulfillment of certain constitutional requirements. And that it has solidified into an entitlement for the backward classes, including the SCs and STs. However, the latest judgment is a reminder that affirmative action programmes allowed in the Constitution flow from ”enabling provisions” and are not rights as such. This legal position is not new. Major judgments — these include those by Constitution Benches — note that Article 16(4), on reservation in posts, is enabling in nature. In other words, the state is not bound to provide reservations, but if it does so, it must be in favour of sections that are backward and inadequately represented in the services based on quantifiable data. Thus, the Court is not wrong in setting aside an Uttarakhand High Court order directing data collection on the adequacy or inadequacy of representation of SC/ST candidates in the State‘s services. Its reasoning is that once there is a decision not to extend reservation — in this case, in promotions — to the section, the question whether its representation in the services is inadequate is irrelevant.
Q. Which article envisages the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 19
The article that envisages the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes is Article 338.
Explanation:
- The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is a constitutional body established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.
- Article 338 provides for the creation of a National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to safeguard the interests of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) and ensure their welfare.
- The NCSC is responsible for monitoring the implementation of various safeguards and measures for the welfare of SCs and STs.
- It investigates and inquires into specific complaints and grievances related to the rights and safeguards of SCs and STs.
- The NCSC also plays a crucial role in advising the government on the planning, implementation, and evaluation of policies and programs for the development of SCs and STs.
- It submits annual reports to the President on the working of its functions and the measures taken for the effective implementation of constitutional safeguards.
- The establishment of the NCSC reflects the commitment of the Indian Constitution to protect the rights and promote the socio-economic development of the marginalized sections of society.
- The NCSC works towards ensuring equality, social justice, and empowerment of SCs and STs in the country.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

It is quite understandable that a recent S upreme Court judgment, that there is no fundamental right to claim reservation in promotions, has caused some political alarm. The received wisdom in affirmative action jurisprudence is that a series of Constitution amendments and judgments have created a sound legal framework for reservation in public employment, subject to the fulfillment of certain constitutional requirements. And that it has solidified into an entitlement for the backward classes, including the SCs and STs. However, the latest judgment is a reminder that affirmative action programmes allowed in the Constitution flow from ”enabling provisions” and are not rights as such. This legal position is not new. Major judgments — these include those by Constitution Benches — note that Article 16(4), on reservation in posts, is enabling in nature. In other words, the state is not bound to provide reservations, but if it does so, it must be in favour of sections that are backward and inadequately represented in the services based on quantifiable data. Thus, the Court is not wrong in setting aside an Uttarakhand High Court order directing data collection on the adequacy or inadequacy of representation of SC/ST candidates in the State‘s services. Its reasoning is that once there is a decision not to extend reservation — in this case, in promotions — to the section, the question whether its representation in the services is inadequate is irrelevant.
Q. The Original Constitution of India has provided reservation for _____ until 1960 (article 334).
Complete the above sentence choosingcorrect option?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 20
The Original Constitution of India has provided reservation for _____ until 1960 (article 334).
The correct answer is C: 10 years.
Explanation:
- Article 334 of the Indian Constitution originally provided for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
- This provision was initially meant to be in place for a period of 10 years from the commencement of the Constitution in 1950.
- The purpose of this temporary provision was to enable the socially and educationally backward sections of society to have adequate representation in the legislative bodies.
- Article 334 was subsequently extended multiple times by constitutional amendments to continue the reservation for SCs and STs beyond the initial period of 10 years.
- The last extension of Article 334 was made in 2002, which extended the reservation for SCs and STs for an additional period of 10 years, making it valid until 2010.
- However, since then, no further extension has been made, and Article 334 has expired.
- Currently, reservation for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies is governed by other provisions of the Constitution, such as Articles 330 and 332.
- It is important to note that reservation in promotions, as discussed in the given passage, is not directly covered by Article 334 or other similar provisions. It is subject to separate constitutional requirements and judicial interpretations.
Overall, the original Constitution of India provided reservation for SCs and STs until 1960 (article 334) for the purpose of ensuring their adequate representation in legislative bodies.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet — restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peer-to-peer file sharing. The reason for the availability of this data is the absence of any security in the Picture Archiving and Communications Systems (PACS) servers used by medical professionals and which seem to have been connected to the public Internet without protection.
Public data leaks have been quite common in India — from government websites enabling the download of Aadhar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy which is a…..(1)…... The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy.
Q. Which of the following options will fill up ……(1)…..with regards to Right to privacy ?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

The correct option to fill up the blank with regards to Right to privacy is "Fundamental Right".
Explanation:
The concept of the Right to privacy in India is derived from the interpretation of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty. Here is how the options align with the given context:
A. Fundamental Right: The Right to privacy is considered a fundamental right in India, as it is derived from Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. This means that individuals have a constitutional right to privacy that should be protected.
B. Legal Right: While the Right to privacy is indeed a legal right, it is more accurately categorized as a fundamental right in the Indian context.
C. Unlimited: The Right to privacy is not unlimited in any legal jurisdiction, including India. It is subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by law for various legitimate reasons.
D. None of these: This option is incorrect as the Right to privacy in India is indeed recognized as a fundamental right.
Therefore, the correct option to fill up the blank is "Fundamental Right" (Option A).
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet — restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peer-to-peer file sharing. The reason for the availability of this data is the absence of any security in the Picture Archiving and Communications Systems (PACS) servers used by medical professionals and which seem to have been connected to the public Internet without protection.
Public data leaks have been quite common in India — from government websites enabling the download of Aadhar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy which is a…..(1)…... The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy.

Q. Data Protection Bill was prepared by a committee headed by?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 22
Data Protection Bill was prepared by a committee headed by Justice B N Srikrishna.
The Data Protection Bill in India was prepared by a committee headed by Justice B N Srikrishna. Here are the key details regarding the committee and the bill:
1. Committee Head: The committee that drafted the Data Protection Bill was headed by Justice B N Srikrishna, a former judge of the Supreme Court of India.
2. Objective: The committee was formed to create a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy in India.
3. Drafting Process: The committee conducted extensive consultations, sought public comments, and reviewed international best practices to formulate the provisions of the bill.
4. Key Provisions: The Data Protection Bill aims to establish principles for the processing of personal data, define the rights of individuals regarding their data, and create mechanisms for the enforcement of these rights.
5. Consent and Control: The bill emphasizes obtaining informed and explicit consent from individuals for the processing of their personal data. It also grants individuals the right to access, correct, and delete their data.
6. Data Localization: The bill proposes that certain categories of personal data must be stored within Indian borders, ensuring better control and protection of sensitive information.
7. Regulatory Authority: The bill establishes a Data Protection Authority of India (DPA) to oversee the implementation and enforcement of data protection regulations.
8. Penalties and Compensation: The bill includes provisions for imposing penalties on entities that violate data protection regulations and provides for compensation to individuals affected by data breaches.
It is important to note that the Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 has not been passed as law yet. Once enacted, it could significantly enhance data privacy and protection in India.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet — restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peer-to-peer file sharing. The reason for the availability of this data is the absence of any security in the Picture Archiving and Communications Systems (PACS) servers used by medical professionals and which seem to have been connected to the public Internet without protection.
Public data leaks have been quite common in India — from government websites enabling the download of Aadhar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy which is a…..(1)…... The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy.
Q. Why does data protection matter?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 23
Why does data protection matter?
Data protection is important for several reasons:
1. Invasion of privacy:
- Data protection helps prevent the invasion of privacy by ensuring that personal information is not accessed, used, or shared without consent.
- It can reveal extremely personal aspects of an individual's life, such as their medical history, financial information, or personal preferences.
2. Profits from data collection:
- Large collections of information about individuals and their online habits have become valuable sources of profits for companies.
- Data protection ensures that individuals have control over their own personal information and that it is not exploited for financial gain without their permission.
3. Targeted advertising:
- Companies, governments, and political parties find personal data valuable because it allows them to target individuals with specific advertisements or messages.
- Data protection ensures that individuals have the right to control how their personal information is used and whether or not they are targeted with personalized advertising.
4. Prevention of identity theft and fraud:
- Personal data, such as social security numbers, bank account details, or medical records, can be used for identity theft and fraud.
- Data protection measures help prevent unauthorized access to personal information, reducing the risk of identity theft and fraud.
5. Building trust:
- Data protection is essential for building trust between individuals, organizations, and governments.
- When individuals have confidence that their personal information is being protected, they are more likely to engage in online activities and share information with trusted entities.
Therefore, data protection is crucial in safeguarding individuals' privacy, preventing misuse of personal information for financial gain, ensuring targeted advertising is done with consent, preventing identity theft and fraud, and building trust among individuals and organizations.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet — restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peer-to-peer file sharing. The reason for the availability of this data is the absence of any security in the Picture Archiving and Communications Systems (PACS) servers used by medical professionals and which seem to have been connected to the public Internet without protection.
Public data leaks have been quite common in India — from government websites enabling the download of Aadhar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy which is a…..(1)…... The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy.
Q. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy threats except which of the following?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 24
Real Security and Privacy Threats:
- Hackers: Hackers are individuals or groups who gain unauthorized access to computer systems or networks with malicious intent. They can steal sensitive data, disrupt systems, or carry out other malicious activities.
- Virus: A virus is a type of malicious software that can replicate itself and infect a computer or network. Viruses can cause damage to files, corrupt data, or steal personal information.
- Worm: A worm is a self-replicating program that can spread across computer networks without user intervention. Worms can exploit vulnerabilities in systems and cause widespread damage or data loss.
- Spam: Spam refers to unsolicited and unwanted emails or messages that are sent in bulk. While spam can be annoying and time-consuming, it is not typically a direct security or privacy threat.
- Answer: C. Spam
Explanation:
- Hackers, viruses, and worms are all examples of real security threats as they can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems.
- Hackers can exploit vulnerabilities in systems to gain unauthorized access and steal sensitive information.
- Viruses can infect computer systems and cause damage or compromise data.
- Worms can spread rapidly across networks, causing disruption and potential damage.
- Spam, on the other hand, is typically an annoyance rather than a direct security or privacy threat. While it can lead to phishing attempts or the distribution of malware, it is not inherently a security threat itself.
- Therefore, the correct answer is C. Spam.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet — restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peer-to-peer file sharing. The reason for the availability of this data is the absence of any security in the Picture Archiving and Communications Systems (PACS) servers used by medical professionals and which seem to have been connected to the public Internet without protection.
Public data leaks have been quite common in India — from government websites enabling the download of Aadhar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy which is a…..(1)…... The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy.
Q. EDI(Electronic Data Interchange) use :

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 25
EDI(Electronic Data Interchange) use:
There are multiple options for using EDI (Electronic Data Interchange), but the correct answer is option C - it can be done on the internet. Here's a detailed explanation:
1. Extranet:
- An extranet is a private network that allows authorized external users to access certain information or resources.
- While EDI can be facilitated through an extranet, it is not a requirement.
- Extranets are typically used for secure collaboration between businesses, but they are not essential for EDI.
2. Value Added Network (VAN):
- A VAN is a third-party service provider that acts as an intermediary in the exchange of EDI documents between trading partners.
- While VANs have traditionally been used for EDI, they are not a requirement.
- VANs provide additional services such as document translation, data validation, and security.
3. Internet:
- EDI can be done over the internet, utilizing standard internet protocols such as AS2 (Applicability Statement 2) or AS4.
- AS2 and AS4 provide secure and reliable communication between trading partners.
- Using the internet for EDI offers cost savings and flexibility compared to traditional methods like VANs.
4. Corporate Intranet:
- A corporate intranet is a private network used within an organization to share information, collaborate, and conduct internal communications.
- While an intranet can be used for internal EDI processes, it is not a requirement.
- Intranets are primarily used for internal communication and may not be suitable for external EDI transactions.
In summary, EDI can be done on the internet, utilizing standard internet protocols for secure and reliable communication. While options like extranets, VANs, and corporate intranets can be used in conjunction with EDI, they are not essential requirements.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

It needs no reiteration that the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) has acted as insurance for landless labourers during crop failures, agrarian crises and periods of a stressed economy. With the ongoing economic slowdown resulting in depressed rural wages and the lack of adequate opportunity to work, the MGNREGS has provided much needed succour and this explains why demand for it has peaked in the last few months across various parts of the country. The report that 15 States have already overshot budgets for the scheme‘s implementation and many have not been able to pay wage dues should be a cause for concern.
Compounding the situation is the fact that the Centre is on the verge of running out of funds. This problem was not unexpected. While in absolute terms, the allocations for the scheme in the budget presented in July 2019 were higher compared to the previous financial year, the outlay fell in relative terms as a percentage of the overall allocations. The outlay was also lower than the actual expenditure in the previous year, which indicated the importance of the scheme in arresting rural distress.
Q. MGNREGA was passed in which of the following year?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 26
MGNREGA was passed in the year 2005.
- The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) was passed in the year 2005.
- It was enacted by the Indian Parliament on August 25, 2005.
- The scheme was later renamed as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) in 2006.
- MGNREGA is a social security measure that guarantees 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
- The main objective of the scheme is to enhance the livelihood security of people in rural areas by providing them with employment opportunities.
- MGNREGA aims to create durable assets, strengthen the rural infrastructure, and reduce rural-urban migration.
- The scheme was designed to address rural distress, poverty, and unemployment by providing employment opportunities and wage security to the rural population.
- It has been instrumental in providing relief to landless laborers during periods of economic slowdown, agrarian crises, and crop failures.
- The scheme has gained significant popularity and demand, especially during the ongoing economic slowdown.
- However, the recent report indicates that 15 states have overshot their budgets for the scheme's implementation, and many are unable to pay wage dues.
- Additionally, the central government is also facing a shortage of funds for the scheme.
- Despite its importance in addressing rural distress, the budget allocation for MGNREGA in the recent years has been lower compared to the actual expenditure in the previous year, indicating a need for increased focus and support.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

It needs no reiteration that the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) has acted as insurance for landless labourers during crop failures, agrarian crises and periods of a stressed economy. With the ongoing economic slowdown resulting in depressed rural wages and the lack of adequate opportunity to work, the MGNREGS has provided much needed succour and this explains why demand for it has peaked in the last few months across various parts of the country. The report that 15 States have already overshot budgets for the scheme‘s implementation and many have not been able to pay wage dues should be a cause for concern.
Compounding the situation is the fact that the Centre is on the verge of running out of funds. This problem was not unexpected. While in absolute terms, the allocations for the scheme in the budget presented in July 2019 were higher compared to the previous financial year, the outlay fell in relative terms as a percentage of the overall allocations. The outlay was also lower than the actual expenditure in the previous year, which indicated the importance of the scheme in arresting rural distress.
Q. Which of the following is correct ?  

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
MGNREGS: A Lifeline for Rural Labourers
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) has been instrumental in providing support to landless labourers and addressing rural distress in India. In the face of crop failures, agrarian crises, and economic slowdowns, the scheme has acted as insurance for the rural population.
Current Demand and Concerns
1. MGNREGS has witnessed a surge in demand in recent months across various parts of the country.
2. The report highlights that 15 states have exceeded their budgets for the implementation of the scheme.
3. Many states are unable to pay wage dues, raising concerns about the financial sustainability of the scheme.
Centrally Funded Scheme
1. The Centre is also facing a shortage of funds to support the scheme.
2. This situation was expected, as the budget allocation for MGNREGS, although higher in absolute terms compared to the previous year, fell in relative terms as a percentage of overall allocations.
3. The outlay was also lower than the actual expenditure in the previous year, emphasizing the importance of the scheme in addressing rural distress.
Correct Statement
The correct statement regarding MGNREGS is:
C. It provides a legal guarantee for 100 days of wage employment to every household in the rural areas of the country each year.
Conclusion
MGNREGS has been a crucial lifeline for rural labourers, providing them with employment opportunities and financial support during challenging times. However, the current overshot budgets and lack of funds pose concerns for the sustainability of the scheme. Efforts must be made to ensure adequate funding and timely payment of wages to support the rural population and alleviate their distress.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

It needs no reiteration that the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) has acted as insurance for landless labourers during crop failures, agrarian crises and periods of a stressed economy. With the ongoing economic slowdown resulting in depressed rural wages and the lack of adequate opportunity to work, the MGNREGS has provided much needed succour and this explains why demand for it has peaked in the last few months across various parts of the country. The report that 15 States have already overshot budgets for the scheme‘s implementation and many have not been able to pay wage dues should be a cause for concern.
Compounding the situation is the fact that the Centre is on the verge of running out of funds. This problem was not unexpected. While in absolute terms, the allocations for the scheme in the budget presented in July 2019 were higher compared to the previous financial year, the outlay fell in relative terms as a percentage of the overall allocations. The outlay was also lower than the actual expenditure in the previous year, which indicated the importance of the scheme in arresting rural distress.
Q. Consider the following statements:
1) MGNREGA fulfills the constitutional rights in India
2) MGNREGA is to be implemented mainly by gram panchayats
3) The places where the recent unseasonal rain and hailstorms have affected crops the governments will increase the number of work days under the MGNREGS to 200 from 100
Which of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

The given statements are:
1) MGNREGA fulfills the constitutional rights in India.
2) MGNREGA is to be implemented mainly by gram panchayats.
3) The places where the recent unseasonal rain and hailstorms have affected crops the governments will increase the number of work days under the MGNREGS to 200 from 100.
Let's analyze each statement:
1) MGNREGA fulfills the constitutional rights in India:
This statement is correct. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) was enacted to provide a legal guarantee for the right to work. It ensures 100 days of employment to rural households in a financial year, thereby fulfilling their constitutional right to work.
2) MGNREGA is to be implemented mainly by gram panchayats:
This statement is also correct. The implementation of MGNREGA primarily rests with the gram panchayats, which are the local self-government bodies at the village level. They are responsible for the identification of beneficiaries, registration of workers, allocation of work, and payment of wages under the scheme.
3) The places where the recent unseasonal rain and hailstorms have affected crops, the governments will increase the number of work days under the MGNREGS to 200 from 100:
This statement is incorrect. The MGNREGA does not have a provision to increase the number of work days from 100 to 200 in specific areas affected by natural calamities. The scheme guarantees 100 days of employment to all eligible rural households, irrespective of the weather conditions or crop damage.
Therefore, the correct statements are:
1) MGNREGA fulfills the constitutional rights in India.
2) MGNREGA is to be implemented mainly by gram panchayats.
Hence, the correct answer is option A: 1, 2.
GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

It needs no reiteration that the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) has acted as insurance for landless labourers during crop failures, agrarian crises and periods of a stressed economy. With the ongoing economic slowdown resulting in depressed rural wages and the lack of adequate opportunity to work, the MGNREGS has provided much needed succour and this explains why demand for it has peaked in the last few months across various parts of the country. The report that 15 States have already overshot budgets for the scheme‘s implementation and many have not been able to pay wage dues should be a cause for concern.
Compounding the situation is the fact that the Centre is on the verge of running out of funds. This problem was not unexpected. While in absolute terms, the allocations for the scheme in the budget presented in July 2019 were higher compared to the previous financial year, the outlay fell in relative terms as a percentage of the overall allocations. The outlay was also lower than the actual expenditure in the previous year, which indicated the importance of the scheme in arresting rural distress.
Q. What is the mode of payment for the workers/beneficiaries under MGNREGA ?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

B is the correct option. As per NREGASoft, around 99% of the wages are being paid electronically into the Bank/Post Office accounts of MGNREGA workers through Electronic Fund Management System (eFMS).

GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

It needs no reiteration that the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) has acted as insurance for landless labourers during crop failures, agrarian crises and periods of a stressed economy. With the ongoing economic slowdown resulting in depressed rural wages and the lack of adequate opportunity to work, the MGNREGS has provided much needed succour and this explains why demand for it has peaked in the last few months across various parts of the country. The report that 15 States have already overshot budgets for the scheme‘s implementation and many have not been able to pay wage dues should be a cause for concern.
Compounding the situation is the fact that the Centre is on the verge of running out of funds. This problem was not unexpected. While in absolute terms, the allocations for the scheme in the budget presented in July 2019 were higher compared to the previous financial year, the outlay fell in relative terms as a percentage of the overall allocations. The outlay was also lower than the actual expenditure in the previous year, which indicated the importance of the scheme in arresting rural distress.
Q. What is the quota for women in MGNREGA ?

Detailed Solution for GK Mock Test - 3 - Question 30
Quota for women in MGNREGA:
- The quota for women in the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) is 1/3.
- This means that at least one-third of the total workforce engaged under MGNREGS should be comprised of women.
- The scheme aims to empower women by providing them with equal opportunities for wage employment.
- The participation of women in MGNREGS helps in reducing gender disparities and promoting social inclusion.
- The quota ensures that women have access to livelihood options and can contribute to the development of rural areas.
- The inclusion of women in the workforce also helps in enhancing their skills, financial independence, and decision-making abilities.
- The 1/3 quota for women in MGNREGS is an important step towards achieving gender equality and women's empowerment in rural India.
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