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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - GRE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test GRE Mock Test Series 2025 - GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 for GRE 2025 is part of GRE Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 questions and answers have been prepared according to the GRE exam syllabus.The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 MCQs are made for GRE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 below.
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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 1

Which of the following best completes the passage below?

In a survey of job applicants, two-fifths admitted to being at least a little dishonest. However, the survey may underestimate the proportion of job applicants who are dishonest, because____.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 1

A is the best answer.

If applicants who are in fact dishonest claimed to be honest, the survey results would show a smaller proportion of dishonest applicants than actually exists. Therefore, this choice is the best answer. B is inappropriate because generally honest applicants who claimed to be dishonest could contribute to the overestimation, but not to the underestimation, of dishonest applicants. D is inappropriate because applicants who admitted their dishonesty would not contribute to an underestimation of the proportion of dishonest applicants. C and E are inappropriate because the argument is concerned neither with degrees of dishonesty nor with the honesty of non-applicants.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 2

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Q. The painting __________ the image of a bishop with quite __________ features, for the artist wished to express the wickedness that he perceived in the life of the __________ figure.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 2
The word "wickedness" is really the primary clue for this sentence. The word "fiendish" means devil-like, and this seems to be what the picture is trying to express. The adjective "ecclesiastical" means church-related and is often used to describe people like "bishops" who are "ecclesiastical figures" or "ecclesiastical servants" in the way we speak of "civil servants" working in the government. The first blank is best being "depicted," for this is closer to how a painting expresses its unique take on reality (in contrast to "recounting" or even to mere "copying"). (Note that this sentence is based upon a real story of a Dutch painter and not a "shot" taken at all ecclesiastical figures!)
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 3

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Q. As the blood around the wound began to __________, the increasingly viscous substance helped to __________ the continued flow of the __________ fluids.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 3
The clearest clue in this sentence is the remark that the blood is an "increasingly viscous substance." Viscosity is the thickness of a fluid. If the blood is becoming "thicker," this means that it is beginning to "coagulate." This is the technical term for a fluid becoming thick, most often applied to thickening blood. This helps to stop the continued flow of blood. To "stanch" a wound is to do just that. Finally, the bodily fluids are fairly called "vital fluids," meaning fluids needed for living. This is a sufficient choice for this last blank.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 4

Directions: Answer the question based on the following reading passage.

Was Felix Mendelssohn (1809–1847) a great composer? On its face, the question seems absurd. One of the most gifted prodigies in the history of music, he produced his first masterpiece at sixteen. From then on, he was recognized as an artist of preternatural abilities, not only as a composer but also as a pianist and conductor. But Mendelssohn’s enduring popularity has often been at odds — sometimes quite sharply — with his critical standing. Despite general acknowledgement of his genius, there has been a noticeable reluctance to rank him with, say, Schumann or Brahms. As Haggin put it, Mendelssohn, as a composer, was a “minor master . . . working on a small scale of emotion and texture.”

Q. The passage suggests that anyone attempting to evaluate Mendelssohn’s career must confront which of the following dichotomies?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 4

The passage clearly presents the discrepancy between Mendelssohn’s popularity and his critical standing as an interpretive problem. Therefore, Choice C is correct. The other answer choices are incorrect because the passage never indicates that there was any conflict among the different aspects of Mendelssohn’s professional life; never discusses Schumann’s and Brahms’s popularity; does not discuss any differences between Mendelssohn’s reputation during his lifetime and after his death; and makes no mention of a decline in Mendelssohn’s later life.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 5

Directions: Answer the question based on the following reading passage.

Was Felix Mendelssohn (1809–1847) a great composer? On its face, the question seems absurd. One of the most gifted prodigies in the history of music, he produced his first masterpiece at sixteen. From then on, he was recognized as an artist of preternatural abilities, not only as a composer but also as a pianist and conductor. But Mendelssohn’s enduring popularity has often been at odds — sometimes quite sharply — with his critical standing. Despite general acknowledgement of his genius, there has been a noticeable reluctance to rank him with, say, Schumann or Brahms. As Haggin put it, Mendelssohn, as a composer, was a “minor master . . . working on a small scale of emotion and texture.”

Q. It can be inferred that the “reluctance” mentioned in the passage is being ascribed to

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 5

Choice D is correct. The “reluctance” is mentioned in the context of a discussion about

Mendelssohn’s critical standing and thus is being ascribed to music critics generally. Choices A and B can be eliminated because the passage does not discuss any composers’ views of Mendelssohn. Choice C is incorrect because the word “reluctance” is mentioned only after the passage turns from discussing the popular view of Mendelssohn to the critical view. Choice E is incorrect because the words “As Haggin put it” indicate that Haggin is only one example of critics who have this reluctance.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 6

Over the course of his life, Clif has worked in the circus, flown planes as a stunt pilot, and had a number of other _____ jobs.

[ Note: Select 2 answer choices ]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 6

Since working in the circus and flying as a stunt pilot are each unusual jobs, the correct answer choices are A) unorthodox and D) unconventional. Commonplace and ordinary each mean unremarkable and do not fit the context of the sentence. Flamboyant might appear to be correct, but there is not another choice which has the same meaning. Charming, which means pleasant or attractive, is incorrect.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 7

Always a _____ man, Richard had no patience with his brother’s get-rich-quick schemes and often advised him to settle down with a respectable career.

[ Note: Select 2 answer choices ]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 7

The sentence indicates that Richard does not approve of his brother's scheming, and suggests that Richard is quite different. Therefore, the correct answers are B) practical and E) pragmatic. Fatuous, which means dull or stupid, does not fit the context of the sentence. Insipid, which means dull or flavorless, does not fit the context of the sentence. Florid, which means flushed or red-faced, does not make sense. Reckless, which means irresponsible, does not fit the context of the sentence.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 8

An only child whose parents were often away from home for work, Alison recalls her childhood as very _____.

[ Note: Select 2 answer choices ]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 8

Because Alison was an only child and her parents were often gone, it can reasonably be inferred that her childhood was a lonely one. Therefore, B) solitary and C) friendless are the correct answers. Sociable, which means friendly or affable, does not fit the context of the sentence. Insular, which means ignorant of cultures other than one's own, does not make sense. Anecdotal, which means an account that is not necessarily true, does not make sense. Authoritative, which means sound or authentic, does not make sense.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 9

Directions: Refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond to each question selecting the best answer choice for each one.

Chlorine is a mainstay in most swimming pools in the United States, and is used to eradicate bacteria. A bacteria-free pool will usually ensure that swimmers won’t contract a serious illness if they spend time in, and possibly ingest, the water.

When chlorine is added to pool water, a chemical reaction occurs whereby the chlorine breaks down into a legion of chemicals that combine to kill bacteria that may be in the water. These chemicals, specifically hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ion, eliminate bacteria by annihilating and then oxidizing the abhorrent cells. When this chemical reaction occurs, the bacteria are rendered essentially harmless. This chemical reaction doesn’t occur immediately - individual components within chlorine take varying amounts of time to interact with the bacteria, creating an almost time-release-type of kill in the pool water.

Chlorine must be regularly replenished. As they react, the hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ion combine to create a particular acceptable pH level in the pool water. A pH is a measure of the alkalinity and acidity present; a pH value of 7 represents a neutral value, and 7.4 is the pH value of the human tear. The pH ratio must be regularly monitored to ensure a consistent optimum rate - one usually kept within the spectrum of 7 to 8 as measured by a reliable pH measuring kit.

As the chemicals in chlorine complete their reactions, they break down and are no longer effective in keeping the pool water neutralized. Additional chlorine must be added to water at specific times. Outdoor pools that are in direct sunlight need to have water added more often because the chemical reaction time for chlorine is increased and its effectiveness is reduced in these conditions.

Since the hypochlorite ion is an especially potent chemical capable of fading fabrics and paint, most people are meticulous about rinsing chlorine from potentially affected areas. Although chlorine is inexpensive and widely available, some people find the bleach smell to be repugnant and the distinct aroma present at many swimming pools to be overwhelming. These people may not be able to enjoy aquatic pursuits in those pools that employ chlorine as a cleansing agent. Other people may find that inhaling chlorine at the high levels present around some pools may be difficult to tolerate. Still others may experience skin irritation after swimming in a pool containing chlorine. Although there are other chemicals and compounds available to clean swimming pools, they may be prohibitively expensive or incapable of killing all types of bacteria present in the water.

Q. All of the following statements are true about chlorine EXCEPT:

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 9

- Hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ion: The passage states chlorine breaks down into these chemicals, not hydrofluoric acid.
- Sunlight effect: Chlorine's effectiveness decreases in sunlight, requiring more frequent addition.
- Odor: Chlorine is noted for its strong smell, which some find unpleasant.
- Monitoring: Regular assessment of chlorine levels is necessary to maintain pool safety.
- pH impact: Chlorine affects the pool water's pH, crucial for swimmer comfort and safety.

Hence, the correct answer is B, as it incorrectly states chlorine is made of hypochlorous and hydrofluoric acids.The correct answer is (B). The passage mentions that chlorine is made up a legion of chemicals. These two chemicals are simply two of many.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 10

Directions: Refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond to each question selecting the best answer choice for each one.

Chlorine is a mainstay in most swimming pools in the United States, and is used to eradicate bacteria. A bacteria-free pool will usually ensure that swimmers won’t contract a serious illness if they spend time in, and possibly ingest, the water.

When chlorine is added to pool water, a chemical reaction occurs whereby the chlorine breaks down into a legion of chemicals that combine to kill bacteria that may be in the water. These chemicals, specifically hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ion, eliminate bacteria by annihilating and then oxidizing the abhorrent cells. When this chemical reaction occurs, the bacteria are rendered essentially harmless. This chemical reaction doesn’t occur immediately - individual components within chlorine take varying amounts of time to interact with the bacteria, creating an almost time-release-type of kill in the pool water.

Chlorine must be regularly replenished. As they react, the hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ion combine to create a particular acceptable pH level in the pool water. A pH is a measure of the alkalinity and acidity present; a pH value of 7 represents a neutral value, and 7.4 is the pH value of the human tear. The pH ratio must be regularly monitored to ensure a consistent optimum rate - one usually kept within the spectrum of 7 to 8 as measured by a reliable pH measuring kit.

As the chemicals in chlorine complete their reactions, they break down and are no longer effective in keeping the pool water neutralized. Additional chlorine must be added to water at specific times. Outdoor pools that are in direct sunlight need to have water added more often because the chemical reaction time for chlorine is increased and its effectiveness is reduced in these conditions.

Since the hypochlorite ion is an especially potent chemical capable of fading fabrics and paint, most people are meticulous about rinsing chlorine from potentially affected areas. Although chlorine is inexpensive and widely available, some people find the bleach smell to be repugnant and the distinct aroma present at many swimming pools to be overwhelming. These people may not be able to enjoy aquatic pursuits in those pools that employ chlorine as a cleansing agent. Other people may find that inhaling chlorine at the high levels present around some pools may be difficult to tolerate. Still others may experience skin irritation after swimming in a pool containing chlorine. Although there are other chemicals and compounds available to clean swimming pools, they may be prohibitively expensive or incapable of killing all types of bacteria present in the water.

Q. The author's primary purpose is to:

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 10
The correct answer is (D). The main idea of the article is to explain how chlorine works in pool water.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 11

Directions: Refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond to each question selecting the best answer choice for each one.

Chlorine is a mainstay in most swimming pools in the United States, and is used to eradicate bacteria. A bacteria-free pool will usually ensure that swimmers won’t contract a serious illness if they spend time in, and possibly ingest, the water.

When chlorine is added to pool water, a chemical reaction occurs whereby the chlorine breaks down into a legion of chemicals that combine to kill bacteria that may be in the water. These chemicals, specifically hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ion, eliminate bacteria by annihilating and then oxidizing the abhorrent cells. When this chemical reaction occurs, the bacteria are rendered essentially harmless. This chemical reaction doesn’t occur immediately - individual components within chlorine take varying amounts of time to interact with the bacteria, creating an almost time-release-type of kill in the pool water.

Chlorine must be regularly replenished. As they react, the hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ion combine to create a particular acceptable pH level in the pool water. A pH is a measure of the alkalinity and acidity present; a pH value of 7 represents a neutral value, and 7.4 is the pH value of the human tear. The pH ratio must be regularly monitored to ensure a consistent optimum rate - one usually kept within the spectrum of 7 to 8 as measured by a reliable pH measuring kit.

As the chemicals in chlorine complete their reactions, they break down and are no longer effective in keeping the pool water neutralized. Additional chlorine must be added to water at specific times. Outdoor pools that are in direct sunlight need to have water added more often because the chemical reaction time for chlorine is increased and its effectiveness is reduced in these conditions.

Since the hypochlorite ion is an especially potent chemical capable of fading fabrics and paint, most people are meticulous about rinsing chlorine from potentially affected areas. Although chlorine is inexpensive and widely available, some people find the bleach smell to be repugnant and the distinct aroma present at many swimming pools to be overwhelming. These people may not be able to enjoy aquatic pursuits in those pools that employ chlorine as a cleansing agent. Other people may find that inhaling chlorine at the high levels present around some pools may be difficult to tolerate. Still others may experience skin irritation after swimming in a pool containing chlorine. Although there are other chemicals and compounds available to clean swimming pools, they may be prohibitively expensive or incapable of killing all types of bacteria present in the water.

Q. In paragraph 5, line 3, repugnant most nearly means

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 11
The correct answer is (B). The sentence implies that the smell of chlorine bothers some people. Repugnant implies that the scent is offensive to these people. Bearable means that the smell is tolerable. Extrinsic means alien or foreign. Pleasant and congenial both imply that the smell is one that people like.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 12

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Q. Some people's views are quite __________; such individuals question the __________ mores of their community and looking to __________ them through revolution.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 12
Several points help to make this sentence clear. The "mores" of a society are its general customs. This word is related to "morals," though "morals" has a greater ethical content in its notion than does "mores." Secondly, the fact that such people are looking to do something "through revolution" implies that they are not undertaking their actions through peaceful means. This helps us to eliminate the options for the third blank that are too "calm" and reform-minded (as opposed to openly revolutionary). Hence, "overthrow" is excellent. Such people are likely questioning the accepted mores of the community. In a way, "accepted mores" is a bit redundant, but the expression does help to stress the fact that these revolutionaries are acting against the established order of things. Such people who wish to "tear down" the accepted order are called "iconoclastic." An "icon" is a likeness or image. The word "icono-clast" literally means the breaker of an icon. (This comes, in part, from a position in the Christian community that wished to destroy all images.) In general, "iconoclastic" signifies the outlook that would destroy or uproot established institutions.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 13

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted into the sentence, best completes the sentence.

Q. The fashion show featured pieces inspired by __________ styles, and the models were __________ in pieces that __________ to Greek togas, knightly armor, and trailing dresses with underskirts and bustles.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 13
For the first blank, we need to find an adjective that means something like old. "Antiquated," "archaic," and "ancient" could each work. For the second blank, we need a verb that means something like "dressed"; either "garbed" or "arrayed" could fit. For the third blank, we're looking for a verb that means something like "evoked," since we know the pieces were "inspired by (old) styles." Since to "allude" means recall another work of art or style to point out a relationship with it when it refers to an artist or a work of art, and "abate" is used to refer to negative things and means become less intense or widespread, "alluded" is the better choice and the answer is "archaic - garbed - alluded."
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 14

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted into the sentence, best completes the sentence.

Q. The intern was __________ with stacks of paperwork that covered his entire desk on the first day of his new job, but luckily, he managed to sort through it by working __________ throughout the day and ignoring potential distractions, and __________ out of the office at the end of the day, tremendously proud of his clean desk.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 14
For the first blank, we're looking for a verb that reflects how much work the intern was suddenly presented with; either "overwhelmed," "overrun," or "inundated" (flooded or overwhelmed) could work. For the second blank, we're looking for an adverb that means something like "diligently"; possible options include "assiduously" (unceasingly; persistently) and "sedulously" (involving perseverance and diligence). For the final blank, we need a verb that means "to walk proudly;" since "strut" means to walk as if proud of oneself and "burgeon" means begin to grow or flourish, "strut" is the better choice, and the answer is "inundated, assiduously, strutted."
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 15

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted into the sentence, best completes the sentence.

Q. The editor reduced the introduction from ten __________ pages to two __________ paragraphs by __________ all of the unnecessary verbal flourishes that riddled its sentences.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 15
We know that the introduction is edited from ten pages to two paragraphs, so we should look for a pair of adjectives for the first two blanks that emphasize its initial length and its later brevity. "Turgid . . . concise" and "tortuous . . . succinct" each do that. For the third blank, we need a verb that means something like trimming. Choosing between "excising" (surgically removing; removing (a section) from a text) and "qualifying" (making (a statement or assertion) less absolute; adding reservations to), "excising" is the better choice, so the answer is "tortuous - succinct - excising"
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 16

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

While most scholarship on women’s employment in the United States recognizes that the Second World War (1939–1945) dramatically changed the role of women in the workforce, these studies also acknowledge that few women remained in manufacturing jobs once men returned from the war. But in agriculture, unlike other industries where women were viewed as temporary workers, women’s employment did not end with the war. Instead, the expansion of agriculture and a steady decrease in the number of male farmworkers combined to cause the industry to hire more women in the postwar years. Consequently, the 1950s saw a growing number of women engaged in farm labor, even though rhetoric in the popular media called for the return of women to domestic life.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that the manufacturing and agricultural sectors in the United States following the Second World War differed in which of the following respects?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 16

The correct choice for this question is Choice B. We are told that few women remained in the manufacturing sector once men returned from the war, while the number of women who worked in agriculture increased after the war as the number of men in agriculture decreased. It is, therefore, inferable that the percentage of employees working in manufacturing who were men increased while the percentage of employees working in agriculture who were men decreased. Choices A, C, and E are incorrect because the passage provides no information about rates of expansion, wage trends, or women’s job satisfaction. Choice D is incorrect because the only mention of the popular media occurs in the final sentence, and no distinction is made between the sectors there.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 17

Directions: Answer the question based on the following reading passage.

While most scholarship on women’s employment in the United States recognizes that the Second World War (1939–1945) dramatically changed the role of women in the workforce, these studies also acknowledge that few women remained in manufacturing jobs once men returned from the war. But in agriculture, unlike other industries where women were viewed as temporary workers, women’s employment did not end with the war. Instead, the expansion of agriculture and a steady decrease in the number of male farmworkers combined to cause the industry to hire more women in the postwar years. Consequently, the 1950s saw a growing number of women engaged in farm labor, even though rhetoric in the popular media called for the return of women to domestic life.

Q. Which of the following statements about women’s employment in the United States during and after the Second World War is most clearly supported by the passage?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 17

The correct choice for this question is Choice D. We are told in the passage that

women’s employment in manufacturing fell quickly after men returned from the war. However, not only did women’s employment in agriculture not decline after the end of the war, it actually increased. The other choices are incorrect because the passage provides no information about what women who joined the workforce wanted to do; about the distribution of women across industries; about what happened to women who left manufacturing; nor about media appeals for women to join the wartime workforce.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 18

In some countries tipping waiters is considered a norm whereas in some others, it is believed to be an insult, making tipping a __________ issue.

[ Note: Select 2 answer choices ]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 18

The word must describe the issue of tipping. The context says that in some countries, tipping is considered a standard practice whereas in some others it is an insult. The word in the blank must describe this conflict or difference in opinion.

Now, let us look at the meaning of words in the options.

A. contentious – characterized by argument or controversy

B. treacherous – characterized by betrayal of confidence or trust

C. irrefutable – impossible to disprove

D. perfidious – deceitful

E. controversial – disputed

The correct answers are A and E.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 19

As a teacher of young children, I always find the last few days before summer vacation trying, because the students are especially _____.

[ Note: Select 2 answer choices ]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 19

One would expect that most young children become excited as summer break nears. Therefore, the two correct choices are A) restive and C) unruly, both of which mean uncontrollable or disorderly. Coordinated does not make sense in the context of the sentence. Ingenious, which means clever, does not fit the context of the sentence. Abnormal, which means deviating from what is normal, does not make sense. Charitable, which means relating to the assistance of those in need, does not make sense.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 20

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the passage?

The average life expectancy for the United States population as a whole is 73.9 years, but children born in Hawaii will live an average of 77 years, and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii, therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in Louisiana.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 20

C is the best answer.

This choice suggests that a significant proportion of Hawaii's population is genetically predisposed to be long lived. Since Louisianans are not necessarily so predisposed, and since the Louisianans' children will acquire their genetic characteristics from their parents, not from their birthplace, this choice presents a reason to doubt that Hawaiian born children of native Louisianans will have an increased life expectancy. Therefore, this choice is the best answer. Because the conclusion concerns people born in Hawaii, not the average Louisianan, A does not weaken the conclusion. Because the governor's allegation is false, it cannot affect the conclusion. D fails to weaken the conclusion because it is consistent with the information given and the conclusion about life expectancy. By suggesting that Hawaii's environment is in one respect particularly healthy, E supports the conclusion.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 21

Which quantity is the greatest?

Quantity A: 7−5

Quantity B: 49−3

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 21
First rewrite quantity B so that it has the same base as quantity A.

49−3 can be rewriten as (72)−3, which is equivalent to 7−6.

Now we can compare the two quantities.

7−5 is greater than 7−6.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 22

Quantitative Comparison

x < 0

y > |x|

Quantity A: (x + y)3

Quantity B: x3 + y3

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 22


GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 23

Quantitative Comparison

x < 0

y < 0

Quantity A: (x + y)2

Quantity B: x2 + 4xy + y2

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 23
To approach this problem, consider the two quantities

Quantity A: (x + y)2

Quantity B: x2 + 4xy + y2

They are in different forms, so expand quantity A:

Quantity A: x2 + 2xy + y2

Quantity B: x2 + 4xy + y2

Now, for the purpose of comparison, subtract shared terms from each quantity:

Quantity A*: 0

Quantity B*: 2xy

Both x and y are negative, non-zero values. Since 2xy is a product of two negative values, it must be positive. Quantity B must be greater than Quantity A.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 24

Quantitative Comparison

Quantity A: 22 + 32

Quantity B: (2 + 3)2

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 24
Quantity A: 22 + 32 = 4 + 9 = 13

Quantity B: (2 + 3)2 = 52 = 25, so Quantity B is greater.

We can also think of this in more general terms. x2 + y2 does not generally equal (x + y)2.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 25

Directions: Answer the question based on the following data.

Q. If s is a speed, in miles per hour, at which the energy used per meter during running is twice the energy used per meter during walking, then, according to the graph above, s is between

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 25
This question is about the speed at which the energy used per meter during running is twice that used per meter during walking. Graphically, this is the speed for which the running energy is twice as high as the walking energy. Looking at the graph, you can see that for speeds greater than or equal to 3.0 miles per hour, the running energy is less than twice the walking energy, so the desired speed must be less than 3.0. In fact, the desired speed is between 2.0 (the lowest speed on the graph) and 3.0. Looking at the answer choices, you see that there is only one answer choice that is between 2.0 and 3.0; namely, Choice A, which says the desired speed is between 2.5 and 3.0. The correct answer is Choice A.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 26

Jack has $15,000 to invest. If he invests two-thirds of it into a high-yield savings account with an annual interest rate of 8%, compounded quarterly, and the other third in a regular savings account at 6% simple interest, how much does Jack earn after one year?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 26
First, break the problem into two segments: the amount Jack invests in the high-yield savings, and the amount Jack invests in the simple interest account (10,000 and 5,000 respectively).

Now let's work with the high-yield savings account. $10,000 is invested at an annual rate of 8%, compounded quarterly. We can use the compound interest formula to solve:

Plug in the values given:

Therefore, Jack makes $824.32 off his high-yield savings account. Now let's calculate the other interest:

Interest = Principal x Interest Rate x Time

= 5,000 x (0.06) x (1)

= 300

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 27

Expand the function: (xy3 + x2y)(xy − x3y2)

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 27
Use the method of FOIL (First, Outside, Inside, Last) and add exponents for like bases

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 28

Directions: Each question shows a quantity in Column A and a quantity in Column B. Compare the two quantities.

Q.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 28
The correct answer is (A). To solve, find the fifth and sixth terms in the sequence

n6 = 62(6) = 216

n5 = 52(5)= 125

The difference between the sixth and the fifth terms is 216 - 125 = 91

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 29

Directions: Each question shows a quantity in Column A and a quantity in Column B. Compare the two quantities.

Q.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 29
The correct answer is (C). Any number raised to the power of 0 equals 1.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 30

Directions: Choose the letter that best answers the question.

Q. What is the length of DF given the information below?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 6 - Question 30

The correct answer is (E). The diagram shows that exterior angle EF = 150°. Since this angle lies on a straight line, angle DFE must equal 30°. We can see that this is a right triangle, just apply sin θ
sin 30ο = DE/DF = 9/DF
1/2 = 9/DF
DF = 18

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