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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - GRE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test GRE Mock Test Series 2024 - GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 for GRE 2024 is part of GRE Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the GRE exam syllabus.The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 MCQs are made for GRE 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 below.
Solutions of GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 questions in English are available as part of our GRE Mock Test Series 2024 for GRE & GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 solutions in Hindi for GRE Mock Test Series 2024 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for GRE Exam by signing up for free. Attempt GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 | 54 questions in 118 minutes | Mock test for GRE preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study GRE Mock Test Series 2024 for GRE Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 1
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Raised in a wealthy and permissive home, Arthur developed the fatal tendency of indulging even the basest of his impulses; no one ever accused him of being __________.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 1
We know that we are looking for a word that is the opposite of how Arthur has been described, since "no one has ever" characterized him this way. So we are looking for a word that is the opposite of indulgent, and since an "abstemious" person is a person who practices self-denial, abstemious is correct.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 2
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

It would be expected that a novel by a figure as prominent as W. E. B. DuBois would attract the attention of literary critics. Additionally, when the novel subtly engages the issue of race, as DuBois’ The Quest of the Silver Fleece (1911) does, it would be a surprise not to encounter an abundance of scholarly work about that text. But though valuable scholarship has examined DuBois’ political and historical thought, his novels have received scant attention. Perhaps DuBois the novelist must wait his turn behind DuBois the philosopher, historian, and editor. But what if the truth lies elsewhere: what if his novels do not speak to current concerns?

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding DuBois’ The Quest of the Silver Fleece?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 2

Choice E is correct. The second sentence states that The Quest of the Silver Fleece subtly engages the issue of race and implies that such an issue would attract the attention of literary scholars. The passage provides no information about whether The Quest of the Silver Fleece is DuBois’ first novel (Choice A), whether it received more or less scholarly attention than his other novels (Choice B), whether it is better than any of his other novels (Choice D), nor about what scholars have said about it (Choice C).

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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 3
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

It would be expected that a novel by a figure as prominent as W. E. B. DuBois would attract the attention of literary critics. Additionally, when the novel subtly engages the issue of race, as DuBois’ The Quest of the Silver Fleece (1911) does, it would be a surprise not to encounter an abundance of scholarly work about that text. But though valuable scholarship has examined DuBois’ political and historical thought, his novels have received scant attention. Perhaps DuBois the novelist must wait his turn behind DuBois the philosopher, historian, and editor. But what if the truth lies elsewhere: what if his novels do not speak to current concerns?

Q. Which of the following best describes the central issue with which the passage is concerned?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 3
The passage focuses on the scant attention given to DuBois’ novels, The Quest of the Silver Fleece in particular. The first two sentences give reasons to expect greater attention, while the last two offer speculations about the explanation for the scant attention. Thus, Choice E is correct. The issues described in the other answer choices are all marginal to the passage, if they are mentioned at all.
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 4
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As he approached middle age, he realized how _____ were the dreams of his youth.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 4

A person approaching middle age is likely to look back at youth and feel that the dreams they once had quickly disappeared. Therefore, the correct answers are A) ephemeral and D) fleeting. Misguided, which means mistaken, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Nonsensical, which means making no sense, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Audacious, which means bold, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Emboldened, which means to give someone courage, is grammatically incorrect.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 5
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Although the stadium had been filled with a(n) __________ of voices and sounds, it was now stilled to a(n) __________. The people stood with mouths silent and __________ as the lightning struck multiple times on the field.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 5
This whole sentence indicates that the stadium was filled with sound but then became "silent." It is key to note this word, for the stadium did not merely become quiet. Thus, options like "whisper," "murmur," and "mumble" are not acceptable for our purposes. If the people's mouths were silent, they were either closed or open without making a sound. To be "agape" is to be hanging open, often in amazement. This works well. To be "stilled to a hush" means to be brought to absolute silence. Finally, a "cacophony" is a loud and unpleasant mixture of sounds—a situation which seems to be well described regarding the initial state of the stadium.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 6
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

The aged scholar was well known for his __________, having written __________ articles on many issues of cellular mutation from the most __________ of topics to large-scale, systemic investigations.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 6
The last blank of the sentence may be the simplest to fill in first. The scholar is known for writing on issues that are either large-scale or what seems to be contrasted to this, namely "small-scale." The word "minute" is not the same as the time measurement (i.e. minutes vs. hours). "Minute," in this context, means small. Thus, he wrote on minute, detailed topics as well as large-scale investigations. For such work, he was likely known for his vast learning and erudition. This does not mean he was known for his education or even his brilliance. "Erudition" describes having attained an impressive degree of learning and scholarship. Finally, we can guess that he has written many articles. (This is hinted at by the fact that he wrote "on many issues.") It is quite reasonable to describe these articles as being "innumerable."
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 7
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Often a person who is a mere __________ can appear to have a vast __________ of knowledge when he or she has a merely superficial grasp of __________ topics.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 7
The options given for this question contain many tempting, but ultimately less correct, answers. A "novice" is someone who is new to a given field or position, as is a "greenhorn." A "charlatan" is someone who lies in claiming to have a given set of skills or knowledge. One could very easily convince oneself that these sets are correct; however, the best hint for the answer is the "superficial grasp." A "dilettante" is specifically a person who gathers together various forms of knowledge without any interest in going deeply into the details. We might call such a person a "dabbler." He or she would accumulate knowledge on a variety of topics. "Sundry" means of several kinds or, merely, various.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 8
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Although many of its particular scientific facts are dated, the Physics of Aristotle retains a(n) ____________ worth for philosophical reflection. Its treatment of motion and change can help to ____________ any discussion as regards the general topics to be treated regarding the ____________ that we encounter in our everyday lives.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 8
Well, this is a somewhat strange sentence! Still, it is very approachable, so long as you pay attention to each clue. Note for the first blank that the sentence basically says that the Physics has a continuing worth, even though some of its facts are out of date. Thus, the worth endures or can be said to have an enduring worth. Now, for the second option, we are looking for something that expresses the idea of "giving a general direction." Whenever we get our "orientation", we get this general idea of the lay of the land. The word "orient" is derived from the Latin for east. Hence, getting your orientation could be understood as "finding East." This helps you to know your overall situation (indeed, all of the directions—North, South, East, and West). Finally, the last sentence really should only refer to something in the sentence. It doesn't presuppose any philosophical knowledge on your part. Thus, if motion and change are the topics treated in the Physics, then it is safe to say that "mutability" is the best option for the third blank. This word is clearly related to words like "mutation" and "mutable," both of which deal with changes and alterations.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 9
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

In a recent study, David Cressy examines two central questions concerning English immigration to New England in the 1630s: what kinds of people immigrated and why? Using contemporary literary evidence, shipping lists, and customs records, Cressy finds that most adult immigrants were skilled in farming or crafts, were literate, and were organized in families. Each of these characteristics sharply distinguishes the 21,000 people who left for New England in the 1630s from most of the approximately 377,000 English people who had immigrated to America by 1700.

With respect to their reasons for immigrating, Cressy does not deny the frequently noted fact that some of the immigrants of the 1630s, most notably the organizers and clergy, advanced religious explanations for departure, but he finds that such explanations usually assumed primacy only in retrospect. When he moves beyond the principal actors, he finds that religious explanations were less frequently offered, and he concludes that most people immigrated because they were recruited by promises of material improvement.

Q. The passage indicates that Cressy would agree with which of the following statements about the organizers among the English immigrants to New England in the 1630s?

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.]
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 9
Choice A is correct.

Choice A is correct: the organizers are mentioned in the second paragraph, where the passage says that Cressy “does not deny” that organizers “advanced religious explanations” for leaving England and immigrating to New England in the 1630s. This suggests that Cressy would agree with the statement in choice A about the organizers.

Choice B is incorrect: in lines 10–11, the passage says that Cressy finds that religious reasons for immigration “assumed primacy” only in retrospect, but this is not the same as Cressy’s concluding that no reasons were given at the time of immigration. Therefore it cannot be inferred that Cressy would agree with the statement in Choice B.

Choice C is incorrect: the passage refers in lines 13–14 to “promises of material improvement” as a factor that in Cressy’s view motivated most immigrants other than “the principal actors.” This suggests that Cressy regards the principal actors, such as organizers, as having been less, not more, motivated by material considerations than average immigrants were. Therefore it cannot be inferred that Cressy would agree with the statement in Choice C.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 10
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Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

In a recent study, David Cressy examines two central questions concerning English immigration to New England in the 1630s: what kinds of people immigrated and why? Using contemporary literary evidence, shipping lists, and customs records, Cressy finds that most adult immigrants were skilled in farming or crafts, were literate, and were organized in families. Each of these characteristics sharply distinguishes the 21,000 people who left for New England in the 1630s from most of the approximately 377,000 English people who had immigrated to America by 1700.

With respect to their reasons for immigrating, Cressy does not deny the frequently noted fact that some of the immigrants of the 1630s, most notably the organizers and clergy, advanced religious explanations for departure, but he finds that such explanations usually assumed primacy only in retrospect. When he moves beyond the principal actors, he finds that religious explanations were less frequently offered, and he concludes that most people immigrated because they were recruited by promises of material improvement.

Q. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 10
The passage is about Cressy’s investigation of English immigration to New England in the 1630s, and it summarizes his findings concerning who immigrated and why. Choice A, “summarizing the findings of an investigation,” is therefore the best description of the author’s primary concern in the passage. The passage does not analyze a method of argument, so Choice B is incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because the passage is not primarily concerned with evaluating a point of view: it does not assess the merits or demerits of Cressy’s viewpoint. The passage is concerned with reporting Cressy’s findings, not with hypothesizing or with establishing categories, so Choices D and E are incorrect.
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 11
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After a lifetime of taking advantage of people, especially those close to him, we were shocked to find that for the first time in his life, David actually appeared to be _____.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 11

The sentence indicates that David has spent his life taking advantage of people, and suggests that he showed little concern for his actions. For once, however, David did something that shocked people, which would indicate he showed remorse. Therefore, the correct answers are C) contrite and E) repentant. Remorseless and callous, both of which mean unrepentant, do not fit the context of the sentence. Indifferent and apathetic, both of which mean uncaring or unmoved, do not fit the context of the sentence.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 12
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The ___________ tone and appealing image of American Rock and Roll and blues musicians became popular with British youth in the late 1950s.

A. dulcet

B. cacophony

C. dissonant

D. bohemian

E. hoarse

F. glamorous
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 12
Meanings for the words given in this question are provided in the table. Before going through the detailed explanation, check whether you are able to arrive at the answer after knowing meanings for the words.

This sentence asks you to make a judgment on the quality of music which makes it popular among audiences. We know from the second half of the sentence that the musicians became popular with youth. The blank should contain a word which makes these musicians popular.

At this point, you can pause and ask yourself what kind of music would make musicians popular. Is it music that sounds good or bad? Music that sounds good, of course. That immediately rules out the words hoarse, cacophony and dissonant – all of which are words that describe bad noise. We are left with dulcet, bohemian and glamorous, all of which are “positive” words.

The author talks about the image of the musicians as well as the tone of their music. The sentence clearly emphasizes the tone AS WELL AS the image of the musicians. But what does the blank describe? Does the blank describe both the tone AND the image? No, because the word in the blank describes the tone whereas the word “appealing” describes the image. So the blank has to be filled with a word that can describe a sound. Can a tone be dulcet or bohemian? Yes. Can a sound be glamorous? Not likely.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 13
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Meteorite explosions in the Earth's atmosphere as large as the one that destroyed forests in Siberia, with approximately the force of a twelve-megaton nuclear blast, occur about once a century. The response of highly automated systems controlled by complex computer programs to unexpected circumstances is unpredictable.

Q. Which of the following conclusions can most properly be drawn, if the statements above are true, about a highly automated nuclear-missile defense system controlled by a complex computer program?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 13
If the defense system designers did not plan for the contingency of large meteorite explosions, such explosions would, from the system's perspective, be unexpected. The system's response 7 to such explosions is consequently unpredictable. E expresses this inference and is thus the best answer. A cannot be inferred since it is consistent with the stated information that no meteorite explosion will occur within a century. B cannot be inferred since there is no information to suggest that meteorite explosions in the atmosphere would destroy the system. C cannot be inferred since it is consistent with the stated information that an appropriately designed nuclear defense system might be able to distinguish nuclear from meteorite explosions. D cannot be inferred since there is no information to suggest that the location of blasts would determine the appropriateness of defense system's response.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 14
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. O is the center of the circle below.

Quantity A: x

Quantity B: 5
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 14
In this question you are asked to compare x with 5, where x is the length of a line segment from the center of the circle to a point inside the circle. In a circle the easiest line segments to deal with are the radius and the diameter. Looking at the figure in the question, you can see that you can draw two radii, each of which “completes” a right triangle, as shown in the figure below.

Since in one of the triangles the lengths of both legs are known, you can use that triangle to determine the length of the radius of the circle. The triangle has legs of length 3 and 4. If the length of the radius is r, then, using the Pythagorean theorem, you can see that

r2 = 32 + 42 or

r2 = 9 + 16 or

r2 = 25, and thus, r = 5

Since the length of the radius of the circle is 5 and the line segment of length x is clearly shorter than the radius, you know that x < 5,="" and="" the="" correct="" answer="" is="" choice="" />

You could also see that the two triangles are congruent, and so x = 4, again yielding Choice B.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 15
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. Runner A ran 4/5 kilometer and Runner B ran 800 meters.

Quantity A: The distance that A ran

Quantity B: The distance that B ran
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 15
In this question you are asked to compare two measurements, one given in kilometers and the other in meters. It would be easier to compare these measurements if they were both given in meters or both given in kilometers. If you choose to convert the distance that Runner B ran from meters to kilometers, you need to use the conversion 1 meter is equal to 1/1000 kilometer.

If you choose to convert the distance that Runner B ran from meters to kilometers, you need to use the conversion 1 meter is equal to 1/1000 kilometer.

If you choose to convert the distance that Runner A ran from kilometers to meters, you need to use the conversion 1 kilometer is equal to 1,000 meters. Since A ran 4/5 kilometer, it follows that A ran ⅘(1000) , or 800 meters, which is the same distance that B ran. Either way, A and B ran the same distance, and the correct answer is Choice C.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 16
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. x < y < z

Quantity A: x + y + z / 3

Quantity B: y
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 16
In this question you are given that x < y < z, and you are asked to compare x + y + z / 3 with y.

Approache that you could use to solve this problem are:

Search for a mathematical relationship between the two quantities.

Approach 1: Note that x + y + z / 3 is the average of the three numbers x, y, and z and that y is the median. Is the average of 3 numbers always equal to the median? The average could equal the median, but in general they do not have to be equal. Therefore, the correct answer is Choice D.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 17
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The ratio of 1/3 to 3/8 is equal to the ratio of
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 17
Multiplying both parts of a ratio by the same positive number produces an equivalent ratio. While you could multiply both fractions in the ratio by any number, 24 is a good number to choose because it is the least common multiple of 3 and 8. Thus, multiplying both ⅓ and 3/8 by 24, you get that the ratio of 1/8 to 3/8 is equal to the ratio of 8 to 9. The correct answer is Choice D.
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 18
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Directions: Answer the questions on following data.

Q. For which of the eight years from 2001 to 2008 did exports exceed imports by more than $5 billion? (Select all the answer choices that apply.)

Indicate all such years.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 18

Note that for all years shown, the dollar value of exports is greater than the dollar value of imports. For each year, the difference between the dollar value of exports and the dollar value of imports can be read directly from the graph. The difference was more than $5 billion for each of the years 2001, 2002, 2003, 2006, and 2007. The correct answer consists of Choices A, B, C, D and E

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 19
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Directions: Answer the questions on following data.

Q. Which of the following is closest to the average (arithmetic mean) of the 9 changes in the value of imports between consecutive years from 2000 to 2009?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 19
The average of the 9 changes in the value of imports between consecutive years can be represented as follows, where the function v(year) represents the value of imports for the indicated year.

Note that in the numerator of the fraction, each term, with the exception of v(2000) and v(2009), appears first as positive and then again as negative. The positive and negative pairs sum to 0, and the fraction simplifies to

Reading the values from the graph, you can approximate the value of the simplified fraction as 9.0 - 3.2 / 9 = 5.8/9 ≈ 0.644 billion dollars. The answer choice that is closest to $0.644 billion is $640 million. The correct answer is Choice E.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 20
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A reading list for a humanities course consists of 10 books, of which 4 are biographies and the rest are novels. Each student is required to read a selection of 4 books from the list, including 2 or more biographies. How many selections of 4 books satisfy the requirements?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 20
The requirement to select 4 books, including 2 or more biographies, means that you have to consider three cases. A student can choose 4 biographies and no novels, or 3 biographies and 1 novel, or 2 biographies and 2 novels.

Case 1: Choose 4 biographies. This case is easy, as there is only 1 way to choose all four biographies and no novels. In the other two cases, you have to find the number of ways of choosing the biographies and the number of ways of choosing the novels and then multiply these two numbers.

Case 2: Choose 3 biographies and 1 novel. First, you need to find the number of ways of choosing 3 biographies out of 4. If you think of this as not choosing 1 out of the 4, you see that there are 4 choices. The number of ways of choosing 1 novel out of the 6 novels is 6. Therefore, the total number of choices is (4)(6) = 24.

Case 3: Choose 2 biographies and 2 novels. First, you need to find the number of ways of choosing 2 biographies out of 4. This number is sometimes called “4 choose 2” or the number of combinations of 4 objects taken 2 at a time. If you remember the combinations formula, you know that the number of combinations is (which is denoted symbolically as

The value of Thus, there are 6 ways to choose 2 biographies out of 4. Similarly, the number of ways to choose 2 novels out of 6 is Thus, the total number of ways to choose 2 biographies and 2 novels is (6)(15) = 90. Adding the number of ways to choose the books for each of the three cases, you get a total of 1 + 24 + 90 = 115.

The correct answer is Choice B.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 21
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In a graduating class of 236 students, 142 took algebra and 121 took chemistry. What is the greatest possible number of students that could have taken both algebra and chemistry?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 21

This is the type of problem for which drawing a Venn diagram is usually helpful. The Venn diagram below is one you could draw to represent the information given in the question.

Note that the algebra and chemistry numbers given do not separate out the number of students who took both algebra and chemistry, and that this question asks for the greatest possible number of such students. It is a good idea, therefore, to redraw the Venn diagram with the number of students who took both algebra and chemistry separated out. The revised Venn diagram looks like the one below.

To solve this problem you want the greatest possible value of x. It is clear from the diagram that x cannot be greater than 142 nor greater than 121, otherwise 142 − x or 121 − x would be negative. Hence, x must be less than or equal to 121. Since there is no information to exclude x = 121, the correct answer is 121.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 22
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. In a set of 24 positive integers, 12 of the integers are less than 50. The rest are greater than 50.

Quantity A: The median of the 24 integers

Quantity B: 50
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 22
In general, the median of a set of n positive integers, where n is even, is obtained by ordering the integers from least to greatest and then calculating the average (arithmetic mean) of the two middle integers. For this set of 24 integers, you do not know the values of the two middle integers; you know only that half of the integers are less than 50 and the other half are greater than 50. If the two middle integers in the list are 49 and 51, the median is 50; and if the two middle integers are 49 and 53, the median is 51. Thus the relationship cannot be determined from the information given, and the correct answer is Choice D.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 23
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Directions: Select one of the following answer choices.

Q. AB is a diameter of the circle below

.

Quantity A: The length of AB

Quantity B: The average (arithmetic mean) of the lengths of AC and AD
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 23
Recall that in a circle, any diameter is longer than any other chord that is not a diameter. You are given that AB is a diameter of the circle. It follows that AC and AD are chords that are not diameters, since there is only one diameter with endpoint A. Hence, AB is longer than both AC and AD. Note that the average of two numbers is always less than or equal to the greater of the two numbers. Therefore, the average of the lengths of AC and AD, which is Quantity B, must be less than the length of AB, which is Quantity A. The correct answer is Choice A.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 24
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Directions: Answer the question based on the following data.

Q. The least amount of caffeine in a 5-ounce cup of drip-brewed coffee exceeds the greatest amount of caffeine in a 5-ounce cup of cocoa by approximately how many milligrams?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 24
Each horizontal bar in the bar graph shows the possible number of milligrams of caffeine in each of the common beverages and drugs. The least possible amount of caffeine in a 5-ounce cup of drip-brewed coffee is about 60 milligrams, and the greatest possible amount of caffeine in a 5-ounce cup of cocoa is about 20 milligrams. So, the difference is approximately 60 − 20, or 40 milligrams. The correct answer is Choice D.

To check your answer, it is useful to try to solve the problem using another method as well to see if you get the same answer. To solve this problem in another way, note that the distance between each pair of adjacent vertical grid lines represents 25 milligrams of caffeine, and the distance between the high end of the cocoa bar and the low end of the drip-brewed coffee bar is a little more than the distance between a pair of adjacent grid lines. Therefore, the answer is between 25 and 50. Among the choices, only Choice D is between 25 and 50, so the correct answer is Choice D.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 25
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Directions: Answer the question based on the following data.

Q. For how many of the 11 categories of beverages and drugs listed in the graph

can the amount of caffeine in the given serving size be less than 50 milligrams?

[Numeric Ability Question]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 25

In the graph, the left edge of each bar tells you what is the least possible amount of caffeine in the corresponding beverage or drug. A beverage or drug can have less than 50 milligrams of caffeine if the left edge of its bar lies to the left of the vertical line corresponding to 50 milligrams of caffeine. From the graph, you see that there are 9 bars for which this is true. There are only 2 bars that lie entirely to the right of the 50-milligram line — the bar for drip-brewed coffee and the bar for weight-loss drugs, diuretics, and stimulants. So there are 9 categories of beverages and drugs that can have less than 50 milligrams of caffeine in the given serving size. The correct answer is 9.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 26
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Directions: Answer the question based on the following data.

Q. Which of the following shows the four types of coffee listed in order according to the range of the amounts of caffeine in a 5-ounce cup, from the least range to the greatest range?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 26
For each of the four types of coffee, the range of the amounts of caffeine is the greatest possible amount minus the least possible amount. In the graph, this difference is represented by the length of the corresponding bar, so you can order the four types of coffee according to the lengths of their corresponding bars, from shortest to longest. From the graph, you can see that the order is decaffeinated coffee, instant coffee, drip-brewed coffee, percolated coffee. The correct answer is Choice B.
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 27
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Directions: For the following question, select all the answer choices that apply.

Q. Which of the following statements individually provide(s) sufficient additional information to determine the area of triangle ABC below?

Indicate all such statements.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 27

From the figure you know that ABC is a right triangle with its right angle at vertex B. You also know that point D is on the hypotenuse AC. You are given that the length of AB is 10 3. However, because the figure is not necessarily drawn to scale, you don’t know the lengths of AD, DC, and BC. In particular, you don’t know where D is on AC.

The area of a triangle is 1/2(base)(height). Thus, the area of right triangle ABC is equal to of the length of AB times the length of BC. You already know that the length of AB is 10 √3. Any additional information that would allow you to calculate the length of BC would be sufficient to find the area of triangle ABC. You need to consider each of the five statements individually, as follows.

Statement A: DBC is an equilateral triangle. This statement implies that angle DCB is a 60° angle; and therefore, triangle ABC is a 30°- 60°- 90° triangle. Thus the length of BC can be determined, and this statement provides sufficient additional information to determine the area of triangle ABC.

Statement B: ABD is an isosceles triangle. There is more than one way in which triangle ABD can be isosceles. Below are two redrawn figures showing triangle ABD as isosceles. In the figure on the left, the length of AD is equal to the length of DB; and in the figure on the right, the length of AB is equal to the length of AD.

Either of the figures could have been drawn with the length of BC even longer. So, statement B does not provide sufficient additional information to determine the area of triangle ABC.

Statement C: The length of BC is equal to the length of AD. You have no way of finding the length of AD without making other assumptions, so statement C does not provide sufficient additional information to determine the area of triangle ABC.

Statement D: The length of BC is 10. The length of BC is known, so the area of triangle ABC can be found. Statement D provides sufficient additional information to determine the area of triangle ABC.

Statement E: The length of AD is 10. The relationship between AD and BC is not known, so statement E does not provide sufficient additional information to determine the area of triangle ABC.

Statements A and D individually provide sufficient additional information to determine the area of triangle ABC. Therefore, the correct answer consists of Choices A and D.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 28
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Directions: Following question is a numeric ability questions.

a1, a2, a3, . . . , an, . . .

Q. In the sequence above, each term after the first term is equal to the preceding term plus the constant c. If a1 + a3 + a5 = 27, what is the value of a2 + a4?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 28

Note that answering this question requires information only about the first five terms of the sequence. So it is a good idea to work with the relationships among these five terms to see what is happening.

Since you are given that in this sequence each term after a1 is c greater than the previous term, you can rewrite the first five terms of the sequence in terms of a1 and c as follows.

a2 = a1 + c

a3 = a2 + c = a1 + 2c

a4 = a1 + 3c

a5 = a1 + 4c

From the question, you know that a1 + a3 + a5 = 27, and from the equations above, a1 + a3 + a5 = a1 + (a1 + 2c) + (a1 + 4c) = 3a1 + 6c. So you can conclude that 3a1 + 6c = 27, or a1 + 2c = 9

To find a2 + a4, you can express a2 and a4 in terms of a1 and c and simplify as follows.

a2 + a4 = (a1 + c) + (a1 + 3c)

= 2a1 + 4c

= 2(a1 + 2c)

But, a1 + 2c = 9, so a2 + a4 = 2(9) = 18. The correct answer is 18.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 29
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Directions: For the following question, select all the answer choices that apply.

Q. The total amount that Mary paid for a book was equal to the price of the book plus a sales tax that was 4 percent of the price of the book. Mary paid for the book with a $10 bill and received the correct change, which was less than $3.00. Which of the following statements must be true? Indicate all such statements.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 29
For this problem you may find it helpful to translate the given information into an algebraic expression. Since the price of the book is unknown, you can call it x dollars, and then the total amount that Mary paid is x dollars plus 4% of x dollars, or 1.04x dollars. The problem states that Mary received some change from a $10 bill, so 1.04x dollars must be less than $10. Since the change was less than $3.00, the total amount Mary paid for the book must have been greater than $7.00. You can express this information algebraically by the inequality

7.00 < 1.04x < 10.00

Solving the inequality for x by dividing by 1.04, and rounding, you get

6.73 < x < 9.62

So you see that x, the price of the book, must be between $6.73 and $9.62, and each price in between is possible. With this information, you can quickly examine the first two statements. Choice A is not necessarily true because the price could be as high as $9.61, and Choice B is not necessarily true because the price could be as low as $6.74.

To examine Choice C, you could compute the tax for the greatest possible price, which would be 4% of 9.61, or (0.04)(9.61) ≈ 0.38. Since this greatest possible tax is less than $0.45, Choice C must be true.

You can also quickly see that Choice C must be true if you note that 4% of $10.00 would only be $0.40, and since the price must be less than $10.00, the tax must be less than $0.40. The correct answer consists of Choice C.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 30
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If 2x = 3y = 4z = 20, then 12xyz =
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 9 - Question 30
One approach you can use to solve this problem is to find the values of all three variables.

2x = 20, or x = 10

3y = 20, or y = 20/3

4z = 20, or z = 5

So, 12xyz = 12(10)(20/3)(5) = 4,000 and the correct answer is Choice C.

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