Goa PCS Screening Mock Test- 1 - GPSC (Goa) MCQ

• In 1882, the Government appointed a commission under the chairmanship of W.W. Hunter to review the progress of education in the country since the Despatch of 1854. The Hunter Commission mostly confined its recommendations to primary and secondary education.
  • It emphasized that state’s special care is required for the extension and improvement of primary education and that primary education should be imparted through vernacular.
  • It recommended the transfer of control of primary education to newly set up district and municipal boards.
  • It recommended that secondary (High School) education should have two divisions— literary—leading up to university and vocational—for commercial careers.
  • It drew attention to inadequate facilities for female education, especially outside presidency towns and made recommendations for its spread.
• The Sadler commission was set up in 1917 to study and report on problems of Calcutta University but its recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also. It reviewed the entire field from school education to university education. It held the view that, for the improvement of university education, the improvement of secondary education was a necessary pre-condition. Its observations were as follows:
  • School course should cover 12 years. Students should enter university after an intermediate stage (rather than matric) for a three-year degree course in university.
  • A separate board of secondary and intermediate education should be set up for the administration and control of secondary and intermediate education.
  • There should be less rigidity in framing university regulations.
  • A university should function as centralized, unitary residential-teaching autonomous body, rather than as scattered, affiliated colleges.
  • Female education, applied scientific and technological education, teachers’ training including those for professional and vocational colleges should be extended
• The Hartog Committee was set up in 1929 to report on the development of education. Its main recommendations were as follows.
  • Emphasis should be given to primary education but there need be no hasty expansion or compulsion in education.
  • Only deserving students should go in for high school and intermediate stage, while average students should be diverted to vocational courses after VIII standard.
  • For improvements in the standards of university education, admissions should be restricted.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

The great Gujarati poet, Zaverchand Kalidas Meghani, in a famous poem gave expression to the nationalist misgivings regarding the 2nd Round Table Conference. Addressing Gandhiji on the eve of his departure for London, he sang in the first line : ̳Chchello Katoro Jerno Aa : Pi Jayo Bapu!‘ (Even this last cup of poison, you must drink, Bapu!) Mahatma Gandhi spontaneously gave him the title of Raashtreeya Shaayar.

• An important development in the second half of the nineteenth century was the establishment of large-scale machine-based industries in India. The machine age in India began when cotton textile, jute and coalmining industries were started in the 1850s. The first textile mill was started in Bombay by Cowasjee Nanabhoy in 1853, and the first jute mill in Rishra (Bengal) in 1855. The first steel in India was produced only in 1913. Thus, India lacked such basic industries as steel, metallurgy, machine, chemical and oil. India also lagged behind in the development of electric power.
• Most of the modern Indian industries were owned or controlled by the British capital. Foreign capitalists were attracted to the Indian industry by the prospect of high profit. Labour was extremely cheap; raw materials were readily and cheaply available; and for many goods, India and its neighbours provided a ready market. Foreign capital easily overwhelmed Indian capital in many of the industries. Only in the cotton textile industry did the Indians have a large share from the beginning.
• British enterprises in India also took advantage of their close connection with the British suppliers of machinery and equipment, shipping, insurance companies, marketing agencies, government officials and political leaders to maintain their dominant position in the Indian economic life. Moreover, the  government followed a conscious policy of favouring foreign capital as against the Indian capital. The railway policy of the government also discriminated against Indian enterprise; railway freight rates encouraged foreign imports at the cost of trade in the domestic products. It was more difficult and costlier to distribute the Indian goods than to distribute the imported goods.

• Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah was one of the many maulvis who played an important part in the revolt of 1857. In 1856, he was seen moving from village to village preaching Jihad (religious war) against the British and urging people to rebel. He moved in a palanquin, with drumbeaters in front and followers at the rear. He was therefore popularly called Danka Shah – the maulvi with the drum (danka). In 1857, he was jailed in Faizabad. When released, he was elected by the mutinous 22nd Native Infantry as their leader. He fought in the famous Battle of Chinhat in which the British forces under Henry Lawrence were defeated. He came to be known for his courage and power. Many people in fact believed that he was invincible, had magical powers, and could not be killed by the British. It was this belief that partly formed the basis of his authority.

• Shah Mal was a rebel at the time of the Indian Rebellion of 1857, based out of the village of Bijrol, Uttar Pradesh. He led the Jats of Baraut in rebellion against the East India Company. Maulvi Liaquat Ali was a Muslim religious leader from Prayagraj (Allahabad), in the state of Uttar Pradesh in present-day India. He was one of the leaders in the revolt against the British in 1857. Maulvi captured the Khusro Bagh and declared the independence of India. Khusro Bagh became the headquarters of the sepoys under Maulvi Liaquat Ali who took charge as the Governor of liberated Allahabad. However, the Mutiny was swiftly put down and Khusro Bagh was retaken by the British in two weeks.

• He escaped from Allahabad after the British recaptured the city, but was caught after 14 years in September 1871 at Byculla railway station in Surat. He was tried and sentenced to death, but died in captivity in Rangoon on 17 May 1892.

• Bakht Khan (1797–13 May 1859) was commander-in-chief of the Indian rebel forces in the region of Delhi during the Indian Rebellion of 1857 against the East India Company.

These comparisons are as follows:

• Statement 1 is correct. The stated objective this time was complete independence and not just remedying two specific wrongs and a vaguely-worded Swaraj. The Civil Disobedience Movement had the objective of Poorna Swaraj.

• The methods involved violation of law from the very beginning and not just non-cooperation with foreign rule.

• There was a decline in forms of protests involving the intelligentsia, such as lawyers giving up practice, students giving up government schools to join national schools and colleges.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Muslim participation was nowhere near that in the Non-Cooperation Movement level.

• No major labour upsurge coincided with the movement.

• The massive participation of peasants and business groups compensated for the decline of other features.

• The number of those imprisoned was about three times more this time.

• The Congress was organizationally stronger.

• The nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President.
• An assembly is dissolved. The members cease to be qualified to vote in the presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the presidential election.
• While electing and impeaching Vice- President, nominated members to participate.
• The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election

Knowledge Base: other provisions of the Cabinet mission plan:

1. The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

2. The representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Vice-President of India is the second highest constitutional office in the country.

• He serves for a five-year term, but can continue to be in office, irrespective of the expiry of the term, until the successor assumes office.

• The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot(Article 66 (1)).

Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The Election Commission of India conducts the election to the office of the Vice-President.

• The Election Commission is mandated to ensure that the election to the office of the VicePresident of India must be a free and fair election and the Commission is taking all necessary steps for discharging its constitutional responsibility

• All doubts and disputes arising in connection with the election of the Vice-President are enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India whose decision is final.

• A petition challenging the election of the Vice-President is heard by a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) was

announced in 2003 with the objectives of correcting regional imbalances in the availability of

affordable/ reliable tertiary healthcare services and also to augment facilities for quality

medical education in the country. PMSSY has two components:-

1. Setting up of AIIMS like Institutions

2. Upgradation of Government Medical College(GMC)/ Institutions.

Statement 2 is correct: The nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Statement 2 is correct. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) presides over the Election Commission, but does not have more powers than the other Election Commissioners. The CEC and the two Election Commissioners have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections as a collective body.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Constitution ensures the security of the tenure of the CEC and Election Commissioners. They are appointed for a six-year term or continue till the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: He can be removed by the President at any time. He can quit by submitting his resignation only to the President. Since he is appointed by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers, conventionally he is removed when the council is dissolved or replaced.
• Statement 2 is correct: The First Attorney General of India, M.C. Setalvad, held the position for the longest time—13 years— while Soli Sorabjee held the position for the shortest time. Nevertheless, he was twice appointed to the position.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Office of Profit  is used in Article 102 (1)(a) of the Indian Constitution which bars a member of the Indian Parliament from holding an offi ce that would give its occupant the opportunity to gain a fi nancial advantage or benefi t. It refers to a post under central/ state government which yields salaries, perks and other benefi ts.
• There are no such provisions for Attorney general of India. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.
• The Law Commission undertakes research in law and review of existing laws in India for making reforms therein and enacting new legislations on a reference made to it by the Central Government or suo-motu.
• Law and Legislative Secretaries in the Law Ministry will be the ex-offi cio members of the commission and not the Attorney general of India.
• It will also have not more than fi ve parttime members. A retired Supreme Court judge or Chief Justice of a High Court will head the Commission.

Notes:

Attorney General of India:

• The attorney general is chosen by the President of India. He must be an Indian citizen and have completed 10 years of high court advocacy or 5 years as a judge in any Indian state.
• He may also be regarded as a prominent jurist by the President. The duration of the Attorney General’s appointment is not specifi ed in the Constitution.
• The Constitution is also silent regarding the removal procedure and the justifi cations for removal. As a result, they are subject to the president’s whim and are thus subject to removal at any time.
• He or she can also step down by giving the President a letter of resignation.
• There are no constitutional limitations on the Attorney General’s remuneration, and it is determined at the President’s discretion.

The President is the head of the State and his power extends both to the administration by the Centre as well as to the states. Consequently, it is necessary that in his election, not only members of Parliament should play their part, but the members of the state legislatures should have a voice. But, when we come to the Vice-President, his normal functions are to preside over the council of states. It is only on a rare occasion, and that too for a temporary period, that he may be called upon to assume the duties of the president. That being so, it does not seem necessary that the members of the state legislatures should also be invited to take part in the election of the Vice-President.

The President is the head of the State and his power extends both to the administration by the Centre as well as to the states. Consequently, it is necessary that in his election, not only members of Parliament should play their part, but the members of the state legislatures should have a voice. But, when we come to the Vice-President, his normal functions are to preside over the council of states. It is only on a rare occasion, and that too for a temporary period, that he may be called upon to assume the duties of the president. That being so, it does not seem necessary that the members of the state legislatures should also be invited to take part in the election of the Vice-President.

Both of them are correct. Before entering upon his office, the Vice-President has to make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation. In his oath, the Vice President swears 1. to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India, and 2. to faithfully discharge the duties of his office. The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the President or some person appointed on that behalf by him.

The post of Vice President of India is based on the model of Vice President of America.

Concept of Wetlands:

• Wetlands are classified as
  • Inland wetlands
  • ​Coastal Wetlands
• Coastal Wetlands are further classified as Man-made wetlands and Natural wetlands.
• Examples of Natural Coastal Wetlands: Estuary, Lagoon, Creek, Backwater, Bay, Coral reef, Tidal flat, Mangroves, Saltmarsh

• Examples of Man-Made Coastal Wetland: Salt pans, Aquaculture

  

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Sand mining is the extraction of sand through an open pit but sometimes mined from inland dunes from oceans, riverbeds and beaches. It is defined under section 3(e) of Mines and Mineral Development and Regulation Act,1957(MMDR Act). This law has been implemented by the government to prevent illegal mining.

• Statement 2 is correct. As per Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, State Governments have complete powers for making Rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals and levy and collection of royalty on minor minerals. The regulation of grant of mineral concessions for minor minerals is, therefore, within the legislative and administrative domain of the state governments. The central government has the power to notify “minor minerals” under section 3 (e) of the MMDR Act, 1957.

• Pollens, which originate from plants

• Viruses, which are transmitted by people and animals

• Mould, bacteria, which are carried by people, animals, and soil and plant debris.

• Household pets, which are sources of saliva and animal dander (skin flakes).

• Droppings and body parts from cockroaches, rodents and other pests or insects.

• Viruses and bacteria.

• The protein in urine from rats and mice is a potent allergen. When it dries, it can become airborne.

• Animal dander and cat saliva, house dust, mites, parasites etc.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• The large population of bacteria decomposes organic matter present in water. They consume oxygen dissolved in water. The amount of oxygen that water can hold in the solution is limited. Even a moderate amount of organic matter when decomposes in water can deplete the water of its dissolved oxygen. The concentration of dissolved oxygen in water is very important for aquatic life. If the concentration of dissolved oxygen in water is below 6 ppm, the growth of fish gets inhibited. If too much organic matter is added to water, all the available oxygen is used up.

• Thus, the amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down the organic matter present in a certain volume of a sample of water is called Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). The amount of BOD in the water is a measure of the amount of organic material in the water, in terms of how much oxygen will be required to break it down biologically. Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD value of 17 ppm or more. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

• Recent Context: Supreme Court Upholds Laws Allowing Jallikattu, Kambala & Bull-Cart Racing In Tamil Nadu, Karnataka & Maharashtra.
• It is a traditional buffalo race in paddy fields filled with slush and mud which generally takes place in coastal Karnataka (Udupi and Dakshina Kannada) from November to March. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Traditionally, it is sponsored by local Tuluva landlords and households in the coastal districts. Tuluva people are an ethnic group native to Southern India. They are native speakers of the Tulu language. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• During the race, the racers try to bring the buffaloes under control by holding their reins tight and whipping them.
• In its traditional form, Kambala was non-competitive and buffalo pairs raced one after another in paddy fields.
• It was also observed as thanksgiving to gods for protecting the animals from diseases.

• Recent Context: The annual status of education report (ASER) 2022 has been released by NGO Pratham.
• Annual Status of Education Report (ASER), India’s largest NGO-run annual survey, has been conducted by Pratham since 2005 to provide estimates of children’s schooling status and their ability to read simple text and do basic arithmetic and evaluate the relevance and impact of its programs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Findings are disseminated at national, state, district, and village levels, and influence education policies at both state and central levels.
• ASER Survey is a household survey rather than a school-based survey. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • It consists of one-on-one oral assessments.
  • It is aimed at a representative sample of all children (whether in school or out of school).
  • It is limited to rural areas of the country. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • It is also the only annual source of information on children’s learning outcomes available in India.
• ASER 2022 is the first field-based 'basic' nationwide ASER since 2018. In ASER 2022, children in the age group of 3 to 16 years were surveyed to record their schooling status and assess their basic reading and arithmetic skills.
• The Key Findings are:
  • Government school enrolment: The proportion of children (aged 6 to 14) enrolled in government schools increased sharply from 65.6% in 2018 to 72.9% in 2022. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Nationally, the proportion of children in Standard I-VIII taking paid private tuition classes increased from 26.4% in 2018 to 30.5% in 2022.
  • The enrolment rate for the 6 to 14 age group has been above 95% for the past 15 years. Despite school closures during the pandemic, overall enrolment figures have increased from 97.2% in 2018 to 98.4% in 2022. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • 2022 was the first time when the percentage of children currently not enrolled in schools dropped to 2 per cent or below. Even after prolonged school closures during the pandemic period, proportion of children not enrolled in school continued to decline between 2018 and 2022.
  • As per the ASER 2022, there has been a record high in the number of enrollment, reaching the highest level since the introduction of the Right to Education Act in 2009. During the pandemic there was a spike in dropout rates, which was temporary.

• Standalone 5G and Non-Standalone 5G
  • 5G networks are deployed mainly in two modes: standalone and non-standalone.
  • Both architectures have advantages and disadvantages, and the path chosen by operators primarily reflects their view of the market for the new technology.
  • In the standalone mode the 5G network operates with dedicated equipment, and runs parallel to the existing 4G network, while in a non-standalone way, the 5G network is supported by the 4G core infrastructure.
  • Given that the non-standalone networks are built on existing infrastructure, the initial cost and the time taken to roll out services through this track are significantly less than standalone networks.
• Non-Standalone 5G
  • The initial rollouts of 5G networks provide customers with higher data transfer speeds by pairing a 5G Radio Access Network (RAN) with the LTE Evolved Packet Core (EPC). Because the 5G RAN remains reliant on the 4G core network to manage control and signaling information and the 4G RAN continues to operate, this is called a Non-Standalone Architecture.
  • By leveraging the existing infrastructure of a 4G network, carriers are able to provide faster and more reliable Enhanced Mobile Broadband (eMBB) without completely reworking their core network technology and pushing customers to new devices. Non-Standalone 5G provides a transitionary platform for carriers and customers alike.
• Standalone 5G
  • Standalone 5G does not depend on an LTE EPC to operate. Instead, it pairs 5G radios with a cloudnative 5G core network. The 5G core itself is designed as a Service Based Architecture (SBA) that virtualizes network functions altogether, providing the full range of 5G features enterprise needs for factory automation, autonomous vehicle operation, and more.
• Comparing Standalone 5G and Non-Standalone 5G
  • NSA 5G helps network operators maximize their existing LTE infrastructure while providing enterprises and users with faster and more reliable communications than ever before, thanks to 5G’s eMBB. But eMBB only scratches the surface of 5G’s promise. Non-standalone networks are built on existing infrastructure. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The SA 5G core architecture enables a host of new features and functionality beyond more bandwidth. These include Ultra-Reliable Low Latency Communications (URLCC), a key feature for applications requiring near-real-time responsiveness–things like autonomous driving vehicles, precision robotics, and machine vision. Massive IoT, with specialized machine-to-machine communication protocols, is also a key feature associated with Standalone 5G. In the standalone mode, the 5G network operates with dedicated equipment and runs parallel to the existing 4G network. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Ballast water is used in ships for stability purpose.

Recently, China launched the Einstein Probe (EP), a new astronomical satellite, for the observation of cosmic phenomena like black holes, colliding neutron stars, and exploding stars.

About

• The probe is named after Einstein for his theory of general relativity on black holes and gravitational waves.
• The probe will be used to search for X-ray signals accompanying gravitational wave events around the celestial bodies and to pinpoint them.
• The Einstein Probe was launched using the “Long March-2C carrier rocket”.
• The satellite is shaped like a lotus in full bloom. The lotus-inspired design incorporates 12 ‘petals’ housing wide-field X-ray telescopes (WXT) and two ‘stamens’ containing follow-up X-ray telescopes (FXT).

International Collaboration

• Einstein Probe is a collaboration led by the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS) with the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Max Planck Institute for Extraterrestrial Physics (MPE), Germany.

• An RNA vaccine is when a vaccine is made up of messenger RNA that will cause the body’s immune system to respond to a particular virus. A DNA vaccine is when a vaccine consists of the DNA of a pathogen that will trigger an immune response.
• RNA Vaccines: RNA vaccines are derived from the mRNA of viruses, via a process of genetic engineering. The RNA vaccine is carried in the form of a liquid nanoparticle that consists of lipids.
• The idea behind an RNA vaccine is to trigger an immune response in which T lymphocytes are activated and a response is mounted against the particular viral disease. The mRNA sequence is that which codes for an antigen of the illness; an antigen is a protein that the immune system will then recognize as foreign. Antibodies will then be manufactured by the body in response to this antigen.
• Advantages: The genetic code is already in a transcribed form for protein synthesis in the case of these vaccines. RNA vaccines are also believed by many scientists to be less risky than DNA vaccines since they would not affect the host’s DNA or even have to enter the nucleus of a host cell because the mRNA has already been formed. This also means the process of making antibodies is faster. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Disadvantages: The technology is fairly new and relies on nanotechnology, and so far none of these have been approved by the FDA for use in people. A further disadvantage is that since only a part of the viral mRNA can be used, the immune response that is activated may not be very strong. This would mean a person would need to get boosters every so often to maintain a high level of immunity. RNA degradation is a concern and thus more engineering is needed with substances added to protect the RNA and allow storage. Comparatively, DNA vaccines are safe, easy, affordable to produce, and, unlike RNA vaccines, are stable at room temperature. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• DNA vaccine: It uses a genetically altered plasmid which contains a piece of DNA from a virus in order to activate an immune response. The vaccine is made using DNA from a virus, which codes for an antigen. The antigen then elicits the formation of antibodies by the person’s body, which helps in the event of exposure to the virus that the particular DNA vaccine is designed for.
• How it works: A plasmid is used and modified to carry DNA of a virus. The plasmid is circular DNA from a prokaryotic bacterial cell, which is used in genetic engineering in molecular biology. The plasmid is inserted into the person when they are vaccinated.
• Advantages: Scientists have more knowledge and experience working with plasmids, so the process is somewhat easier compared with the nanotechnology involved in RNA vaccines. DNA is also less susceptible to degradation and more stable in a lab setting compared with RNA. This makes it easier and requires fewer steps for extraction and storage of the DNA compared with RNA.
• Disadvantages: Unlike an RNA vaccine, with which it may be confused, a DNA vaccine only contains DNA. This means an extra step is needed for making the antigen since mRNA has to first be transcribed in the nucleus from the DNA. This means it would take longer for the antibody response to be triggered.
• DNA vaccines have been investigated for use to treat the following illnesses: malaria, typhoid, dengue, TB, and cancer. At the current time, DNA vaccines have not been approved for use in humans, although some have been approved for use in animals.

Genetically modified crops (GM crops) are plants used in agriculture, the DNA of which has been modified using genetic engineering techniques. In the late 1990s, German scientists developed a genetically modified and biofortified crop variety of rice called Golden Rice.
The Golden rice was created by transforming rice with two beta-carotene biosynthesis genes:

• psy (phytoene synthase) from daffodil ('Narcissus pseudonarcissus'), which is a variety of maize.

Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• crtI (phytoene desaturase) from the soil bacterium Erwinia uredovora.

Thus, genetic modification of the rice resulted into in the greatest accumulation of total carotenoids and beta‐carotene which is collectively termed provitamin A. Therefore, golden rice is rich source of Vitamin A. It will help to fight against Vitamin A deficiency, which is the leading cause of blindness among children and can also lead to death due to infectious diseases such as measles.

Hence statement 2 is correct.
Indian government has not allowed any GM crops for the consumption. For the time being, Bt cotton is the only genetically modified crop that is under cultivation in India. It is Philippines government that approved Golden Rice for direct use 2019. Currently, Bangladesh government is thinking about approving the cultivation of golden rice.

Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Statement 1
The Know India Programme (KIP) is a unique initiative by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs, designed specifically for Indian diaspora youth aged 21-35.
It aims to bridge the gap between these young people and their ancestral homeland, fostering a deeper understanding and appreciation for contemporary India
Statement 2
KIP participants get an opportunity to acquaint themselves with the history and culture of India as a civilization as well as  the advancements and achievements of modern India across diverse domains, including but not limited to the realms of economy, industry, education, science and technology, telecommunications, information technology, and space science.
Statement 3
The Know India Programme (KIP) is a unique initiative by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs.
 

Aqua regia, (Latin for 'royal water') is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1. Hence statement 1 is correct.

It can dissolve gold, even though neither of these acids can do so alone. Aqua regia is a highly corrosive, fuming liquid. It is one of the few reagents that are able to dissolve gold and platinum. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Statement Analysis:

 

There are six countries bordering the Red Sea:

• Egypt: Egypt forms the western coast of the northern Red Sea, including the Gulf of Suez.
• Sudan: Sudan shares the western coastline south of Egypt, extending to the northern tip of the Red Sea.
• Eritrea: Eritrea occupies the northwestern coast of the Red Sea, with its capital, Asmara, located inland.
• Djibouti: Djibouti sits at the southwestern corner of the Red Sea, bordering both Eritrea and Ethiopia.
• Saudi Arabia: Saudi Arabia holds the eastern coastline, stretching from the northern tip down to Yemen.

Yemen: Yemen occupies the southernmost coastline of the Red Sea, including the Gulf of Aden.
Houthi Rebels Fire on Cargo Ships in Red Sea.

Statement 1 is not correct: Only three countries have managed successful Moon landings: the Soviet Union, the United States and China. 

Statement 2 is correct: South Pole of the Moon:

• The lunar south pole is of particular interest to scientists, who believe the permanently  shadowed polar craters may contain frozen water in the rocks that future explorers could  transform into air and rocket fuel.
• Until now, all previous lunar landings have been concentrated within the equatorial region, positioned just a few degrees north or south of the lunar equator. 
• A previous attempt by India, Chandrayaan-2, to land at the south pole in 2019 ended when the  spacecraft crashed into the Moon’s surface.
• India’s Chandrayaan-3 will also be attempting a landing on the south pole on August 23.If India achieves the landing as intended, it will join the coveted list of countries such as Russia, the United States and China to have previously achieved a controlled landing and will  be the first to land on Moon’s south pole.

Statement 3 is not correct: The polar regions of the Moon, however, are a very different, and difficult, terrain. Many parts lie in a completely dark region where sunlight never reaches, and temperatures can go below 230 degrees Celsius. 

Lack of sunlight and extremely low temperatures create difficulty in the operation of  instruments. 
In addition, there are large craters all over the place, ranging from a few centimetres in size to  those extending to several thousands of kilometres.