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JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test JPSC Mock Test Series 2025 - JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 for JPSC (Jharkhand) 2024 is part of JPSC Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 questions and answers have been prepared according to the JPSC (Jharkhand) exam syllabus.The JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 MCQs are made for JPSC (Jharkhand) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 below.
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JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

Consider the following statements:

  1. Rig Veda includes many hymns called sukta.

  2. The battles during Rig Vedic period were fought for cattle, land, water and to capture people.

  3. Samaveda contains charms and skills to ward off evils and diseases.

Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

Statement 1 is correct.

The oldest Veda, i.e. the Rig Veda was composed about 3500 years ago. It includes more than a thousand hymns, called sukta. These hymns, composed by sages (rishis) are in praise of various gods and goddesses. Agni (the god of fire), Indra (a warrior god) and Soma (a plant from where a special drink was prepared) are the three gods that were especially important.

Statement 2 is correct.

There were various battles fought during Rig Vedic period for cattle, land, water and to capture people.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Atharvaveda is completely different from the other three Vedas- Rig Veda, Samaveda and Yajurveda. It contains charms and skills to ward off evils and diseases. Its contents throw light on the beliefs and practices of the non - Aryans. The Samaveda is the Veda of melodies and chants. It is an ancient Vedic Sanskrit text, and part of the scriptures of Hinduism.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

Consider the following statements.

Laborers from Jharkhand migrated to Manipur in 2024 in search of better opportunities.
The recent attack on Jharkhand laborers in Manipur was the first instance of violence against non-locals since the ethnic conflict began.
The ethnic conflict in Manipur involves only the Meitei community.
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 2
Statement 1 is correct; Jharkhand laborers moved to Manipur for work.
Statement 2 is correct; this was the first attack on non-locals during the ongoing conflict.
Statement 3 is incorrect; the conflict also involves the Kuki-Zo Scheduled Tribe community.
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JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

Consider the following statements.

Cyclone Remal is expected to impact West Bengal and neighboring states, including Jharkhand.
The name "Remal" means "sand" in Hindi.
Cyclone Remal is the first cyclone of the 2024 pre-monsoon season.
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 3
Statement 1 is correct; the cyclone poses a threat to Jharkhand.
Statement 2 is incorrect; "Remal" means "sand" in Arabic, not Hindi.
Statement 3 is correct; it is the first cyclone of the pre-monsoon season in 2024.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 4
Consider the following statements.

Poppy is primarily grown for its alkaloids, which have medicinal properties.
Poppy straw is a legal substance without any regulations under the NDPS Act.
The opium poppy plant belongs to the family Papaveraceae.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 4
Statement 1 is correct; poppy is grown for its medicinal alkaloids.
Statement 2 is incorrect; poppy straw is regulated under the NDPS Act.
Statement 3 is correct; opium poppy does belong to the family Papaveraceae.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 5
Consider the following statements.

The Enforcement Directorate is investigating former Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren for money laundering.
Interim bail can be granted during the trial of a case.
The term "interim bail" is clearly defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 5
Statement 1 is correct; ED is investigating Hemant Soren.
Statement 2 is correct; interim bail can be granted while a case is ongoing.
Statement 3 is incorrect; "interim bail" is not explicitly defined in the CrPC.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 6
Consider the following statements.

There have been over 225 casualties due to the ethnic conflict in Manipur.
The Meitei community primarily resides in the hill districts of Manipur.
The Kuki-Zo Scheduled Tribe community is part of the ongoing conflict in Manipur.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 6
Statement 1 is correct; there have been many casualties due to the conflict.
Statement 2 is incorrect; the Meitei primarily reside in the Imphal Valley, not the hills.
Statement 3 is correct; the Kuki-Zo community is involved in the conflict.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 7
Consider the following statements.

Poppy straw can give a high if used in sufficient quantities.
Farmers in Jharkhand are allowed to sell poppy straw without any licenses.
The NDPS Act regulates the possession and sale of poppy straw.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 7
Statement 1 is correct; poppy straw can indeed give a high.
Statement 2 is incorrect; farmers must sell poppy straw to licensed buyers.
Statement 3 is correct; the NDPS Act does regulate poppy straw.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 8
Consider the following statements.

Cyclone Remal is expected to bring thunderstorms and lightning to Jharkhand.
The cyclone's impact will only be felt in urban areas of the state.
Jharkhand is one of the states that may face adverse weather due to Cyclone Remal.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 8
Statement 1 is correct; thunderstorms and lightning are expected due to the cyclone.
Statement 2 is incorrect; the cyclone will affect both urban and rural areas.
Statement 3 is correct; Jharkhand is among the states facing potential impact.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 9
Consider the following statements.

The Meitei language is the only official language of Manipur.
Meitei people do not intermarry within their clans.
The Kuki-Zo community is not recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in India.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 9
Statement 1 is correct; Meitei is the only official language of Manipur.
Statement 2 is correct; Meitei people do not intermarry within their clans.
Statement 3 is incorrect; the Kuki-Zo community is recognized as a Scheduled Tribe.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 10
Consider the following statements.

Bird flu primarily affects domestic poultry and wild birds.
The mortality rate for humans infected with H5N1 avian influenza is around 30%.
The Jharkhand government has culled birds in response to a recent bird flu outbreak.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 10
Statement 1 is correct; bird flu mainly affects poultry and wild birds.
Statement 2 is incorrect; the mortality rate for H5N1 is about 60%, not 30%.
Statement 3 is correct; the Jharkhand government has culled birds due to the outbreak.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 11
Consider the following statements.

The Enforcement Directorate has the power to attach properties involved in money laundering.
Money laundering is treated as an independent crime under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002.
Hemant Soren is the only former Chief Minister being investigated by the ED.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 11
Statement 1 is correct; the ED can attach properties linked to money laundering.
Statement 2 is correct; recent amendments treat money laundering as an independent crime.
Statement 3 is incorrect; other individuals may also be under investigation by the ED.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

  1. Milkiyat lands were cultivated for the private use of zamindars.

  2. The buying and selling of zamindaris accelerated the process of monetization in the countryside.

  3. Most zamindars had armed contingent comprising units of cavalry, artillery and Infantry.

Which of the statement given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

Statement 1 is correct.

The zamindars held extensive personal lands termed milkiyat, meaning property. Milkiyat lands were cultivated for the private use of zamindars, often with the help of hired or servile labour. The zamindars could sell, bequeath or mortgage these lands at will.

Statement 2 is correct.

Zamindars spearheaded the colonisation of agricultural land, and helped in settling cultivators by providing them with the means of cultivation, including cash loans. The buying and selling of zamindaris accelerated the process of monetisation in the countryside. In addition, zamindars sold the produce from their milkiyat lands. Zamindars often established markets (haats) to which peasants also came to sell their produce.

Statement 3 is correct.

Control over military resources was a source of power for the zamindars. Most zamindars had fortresses (qilachas) as well as armed contingent comprising units of cavalry, artillery and infantry.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

Which of the following statement correctly explains the ADDM-Plus?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

ADMM-Plus

About: It is an annual meeting of Defence Ministers of 10 ASEAN countries and eight dialogue partner countries. The ADMM-Plus countries include ten ASEAN Member States (Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar and Cambodia) and eight Plus countries, namely Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russian Federation, and the United States.

Aim:

  • It aims to promote mutual trust and confidence between defence establishments through greater dialogue and transparency.

Areas of cooperation:

  • Maritime security, counter-terrorism, humanitarian assistance and disaster relief, peacekeeping operations, and military medicine.

Hence, Option C is correct.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

The chief items of export in the Vijayanagar Empire were

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

According to the accounts of the foreign travellers, the Vijayanagar Empire was one of the wealthiest parts of the world at that time. The chief items of exports were cotton and silk clothes, spices, rice, iron, saltpetre and sugar. The imports consisted of horses, pearls, copper, coral, mercury, China silk and velvet clothes.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

Consider the following statements:

1. The Qalandars were a Ba-shara group of Sufi saints.

2. The verses of Sheikh Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar can be found in Adi Grantha.

3. Kalam refers to the rationalist ideas propagated under Islam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 15
  • Abul Fazl, while writing in the Ain-i- Akbari, speaks of fourteen silsilahs of the Sufis. These silsilahs were divided into two types: Ba-shara and Be- shara.

  • Ba-shara was those orders that followed the Islamic Law (Sharia) and its directives, such as namaz and roza. Chief amongst these were the Chishti, Suhrawardi, Firdawsi, Qadiri and Naqshbandi silsilahs.

  • The Be-shara silsilahs were not bound by the Sharia. The Qalandars belonged to this group.

  • Sheikh Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar of Ajodhan (Pattan in Pakistan) popularised the Chishti silsilah in modern Haryana and Punjab. He opened his door of love and generosity to all. Baba Farid, as he was called, was respected by both Hindus and Muslims. His verses, written in Punjabi, are quoted in the Adi Granth.

  • The term Kalam refers to the orthodox doctrines that prevailed in Islam. Kalam were challenged by the rationalist arguments developed by the Ashari School.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

With reference to the Gupta period, consider the following statements:

1. The position of shudras improved.

2. The women belonging to the upper varnas lacked proprietary rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

The position of shudras improved in this period, as they were now permitted to listen to the Ramayana, the Mahabharata and the Puranas. They could also worship a new god Krishna. They were also allowed to perform certain domestic rites, which brought fee to the priests. The women belonging to the upper varnas lacked proprietary rights and this, along with their complete dependence on men for their livelihood, was the main reason behind their subordination.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

Consider the following statements, with reference to Virashaiva traditions:

1. They believed that on death the devotee is united with Shiva, hence they cremated their dead.

2. They opposed widow remarriage.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 17
Karnataka, in the twelfth century, saw the emergence of a new movement led by Basavanna. His followers were called Virashaiva or Lingayats. They challenged the idea of caste and pollution (pollution is a part of the concept of ‘purity and pollution’ that defined the ancient caste system. Statement 1 is incorrect: They believed that after death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to the world. Therefore, they buried their dead, instead of cremating them, as mentioned in Dharmashastras.

Statement 2 is incorrect: They encouraged certain practices like post-puberty marriage and widow remarriage, which were disapproved by the Dharmashastras. We learn about Virashaiva traditions from ‘vachanas’ composed in Kannada.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

Who issued a token currency in copper coins between AD 1329 and 1330?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 18
Tughlaq’s silver coin was named Adi. However, it was difficult to maintain the supply of gold and silver coins on a large scale. So, Tughlaq replaced those coins and started the circulation of copper and brass coins as the token currency which had the same value of gold or silver coins in 1330-32 CE.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

Muhammad BinTughlaq transferred his capital from

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 19
Muhammad bin Tughlaq was the second ruler of Tughlaq dynasty who ruled from 1324–1351. He shifted the capital from Delhi to Devagiri, because it was difficult for him to control South India from there. When the capital was shifted, he now found it difficult to control North India and went back to Delhi. This step led to nothing but declaring him wise fool king in history.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

With reference to the Santiniketan, consider the following statements:
1. It is located in the Birbhum district in West Bengal.
2. It was originally established by Rabindranath Tagore.
3. It is surrounded by the rivers, the Ajay and the Kopai.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 20
  • Statement 1 is correct: Santiniketan, popularly known today as a university town, is located in the Birbhum district in West Bengal.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: It was originally an ashram built by Debendranath Tagore, where anyone, irrespective of caste and creed, could come and spend time meditating on the one Supreme God.
  • Debendranath, father of the Poet, Rabindranath, was also known as Maharshi (which means one who is both saint and sage) and was a leading figure of the Indian Renaissance.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The area is flanked on two sides by the rivers, the Ajay and the Kopai.
     
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

With reference to the Bakhshali manuscript, an ancient Indian text, consider the following statements:
1. It was found in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
2. It contains one of the earliest origins of the zero symbol.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 21
  • Statement 1 is not correct: The Bakhshali manuscript, an ancient Indian text, was found in 1881, buried in a field in a village called Bakhshali, near Peshawar, now in Pakistan.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Radiocarbon dating reveals the fragmentary text, which is inscribed on 70 pieces of birch bark and contains hundreds of zeroes, dates to as early as the 3rd or 4th century. This makes it one of the world’s oldest recorded origins of the zero symbol that we use today.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 22
  • Socialist ideas began to spread rapidly, especially because many young persons, who had participated actively in the Non-Cooperation Movement, were unhappy with its outcome and were dissatisfied with the Gandhian policies and ideas, as well as the alternative Swarajist programme.
  • Several socialist and communist groups came into existence all over the country.
  • In Bombay, S.A. Dange published a pamphlet Gandhi vs Lenin, and started the first socialist weekly, The Socialist.
  • In Bengal, Muzaffar Ahmed brought out Navayug and later founded the Langal in co-operation with the poet NazruI Islam.
  • In Punjab, Ghulam Hussain and others published Inquilab.
  • In Madras, M. Singaravelu founded the Labour-Kisan Gazette.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

With reference to Subramania Bharathi, consider the following statements:
1. He was a poet, freedom fighter and social reformer from Bengal.
2. He was known as Mahakavi Bharathiyar.
3. He opposed child marriage, dowry and supported widow remarriage.
How many statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Statement 1 is not correct: C. Subramania Bharathi was a poet, freedom fighter and social reformer from Tamil Nadu.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: He was known as Mahakavi Bharathiyar and the laudatory epithet Mahakavi means a great poet.

  • His songs on nationalism and freedom of India helped to rally the masses to support the Indian Independence Movement in Tamil Nadu.
  • Bharathi was also against the caste system. He declared that there were only two castes-men and women and nothing more than that.
  • He believed in women’s rights, gender equality and women emancipation. He opposed child marriage, dowry and supported widow remarriage
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding Guruvayur Satyagraha:
1. It was a movement to allow untouchables to fetch water from the public wells.
2. It took place in the Bombay Presidency of the British period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 24
  • Guruvayur Satyagraha took place in (1931–32) in the present Thrissur district, which was then part of Ponnani Taluk of Malabar district, now part of Kerala. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • It was an effort to allow entry for untouchables into the Guruvayur Temple. Hence, statement 1 is not correct It was led by K. Kelappan, who undertook a hunger strike for 12 days until it was abandoned because of a request from Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress. Kelappan was popularly known as Kerala Gandhi. Mahad Satyagrah was launched by Ambedkar to establish the right of untouchables to draw water from public wells and tanks. 
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

 In the context of colonial history, the 'Strachey Commission' and 'Woodhead Commission' were appointed to

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

The Company did not pay much attention to problems of famine and famine relief. It had no administrative machinery and experienced personnel to deal with the problems of famine. In the early 19th century, it did try to solve problems of famine-affected people by half-hearted measures.

  • First Famine Commission (1880): After the famine of 1876-78 Government of India appointed the first Famine Commission in 1778 under John Strachey, which submitted its Report in 1880. It formulated general principles of famine-relief policy and suggested preventive and protective measures for famine relief.
  • Second Famine Commission (1898): The famine of 1896-97 led to the appointment of the second commission under James Lyall. It mostly endorsed earlier recommendations and recommended a freer grant of gratuitous relief, a more liberal remission of land revenue, and special attention to weaker sections.
  • Third Famine Commission (1901): The famine of 1899-1900 led to the appointment of the Third Famine Commission in 1901 under Antony MacDonell. It emphasized the moral strategy of putting the heart into famine-affected people and building up their will-power by rendering assistance to them immediately after the danger of famine is scented.
  • Woodhead Commission (1944): The Bengal famine of 1943 led to the appointment of the Woodhead Commission. It recommended the creation of the All-India Food Council, monopoly procurement and distribution of food grains through a chain of fair-price shops, etc. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

"Tall and coarse grass with long roots, short and deciduous trees and renewed foliage and flower in the rainy season.”

Which of the following climatic region does the above vegetation relate to?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 26
  • The Savanna landscape is typified by tall grass and short trees. The trees are deciduous, shedding their leaves in the cool, dry season to prevent excessive loss of water through transpiration, e.g. acacias.

  • The grass is tall and coarse, growing 6 to 12 feet high. The elephant grass may attain a height of even 15 feet. The grass tends to grow in compact tufts and has long roots which reach down in search of water.

  • The vegetative luxuriance reaches its peak in the rainy season when trees renew their foliage and flower. Due to the presence of trees along with the luxuriant tall grass this landscape is also known as 'parkland' or 'bush-veld'. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

  • In tropical monsoon forests, the ecosystems which develop are very similar to the true rainforests which develop in equatorial climates, but are more open, less luxuriant & contains far fewer species. The natural vegetation of tropical monsoon land depends on the amount of summer rainfall. Trees are normally deciduous, because of the marked dry period, during which they shed their leaves to withstand drought.

  • China Type climate supports luxuriant vegetation. The lowlands carry both evergreen broad-leaved forests and deciduous trees. On the highlands, are various species of conifers such as pines and cypresses which are important softwoods. Perennial plant growth is not checked by either a dry season or a cold season.

  • Steppes occur in temperate climates, which lie between the tropics and polar regions. A steppe is a dry, grassy plain. Steppes are semi-arid, meaning they receive 25 to 50 centimetres (10-20 inches) of rain each year. This is enough rain to support short grasses, but not enough for tall grasses or trees to grow. Many kinds of grasses grow on steppes, but few grow taller than half a meter.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

Consider the following statements with respect to Shield Volcano:

  1. They form from non-explosive eruptions of low viscosity basaltic magma.

  2. Calderas are a common feature on shield volcanoes.

  3. The Hawaii islands are formed as a result of their eruption.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 27
  • A Shield volcano is characterized by gentle upper slopes and somewhat steeper lower slopes. Shield volcanoes are composed almost entirely of relatively thin lava flows built up over a central vent. They are formed by low viscosity basaltic magma that flows easily down slope away from the summit vent. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The low viscosity of the magma allows the lava to travel down slope on a gentle slope, but as it cools and its viscosity increases, its thickness builds up on the lower slopes giving a somewhat steeper lower slope. Most shield volcanoes have a roughly circular or oval shape in map view. Calderas are a common feature on shield volcanoes. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Very little pyroclastic material is found within a shield volcano, except near the eruptive vents, where small amounts of pyroclastic material accumulate as a result of fire fountaining events.

  • The best known shield volcanoes are the ones that make up the Hawaiian Islands, especially Mauna Loa and Mauna Kea. Hence statement 3 is correct.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

The amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface depends on:

  1. Angle of the sun’s radiation

  2. Length of the day

  3. Distance between the sun and the earth

  4. Sunspots

  5. Effects of the atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 28
  • The amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface varies due to angle of the sun’s radiation, length of the day, the distance between the sun and the earth, sunspots and effects of the atmosphere. Hence, all of the options given above are correct.

  • The solar energy radiated from the outer surface of the sun in the form of electromagnetic radiation, which travels at the speed of 3,00,000 km per second. The solar energy received at the earth’s surface is called insolation or solar radiation. The amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface varies significantly (decreases) from the equator towards poles due to certain astronomical and geographical factors viz.

    • Angle of the sun’s radiation: The angle between the rays of the sun and the tangent to the surface of the earth at a given place largely determines the amount of insolation to be received at that place.

    • Length of day: If all the other conditions are favourable and equal then the longer duration of sunshine and shorter duration of night enables the ground surface to receive a larger amount of insolation. On the other hand, the shorter the duration of sunshine and longer the period of the night, the lesser the amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface. The length of the day varies at all places except at the equator due to inclination of the earth’s axis, it’s parallelism and the earth’s rotation and revolution.

    • Distance between the sun and the earth: As per rule, the earth at the time of perihelion, when it is nearest to the sun, should receive maximum insolation while it should receive minimum insolation at the time of aphelion when the earth is at the greatest distance from the sun.

    • Sunspots: Sunspots are created in the solar outer surface due to periodic disturbances and explosions. The number of sunspots varies from year to year. The energy radiated from the sun increases when the number of sunspots increases and therefore the amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface also increases. On the other hand, the amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface decreases when the number of sunspots decreases.

    • Effects of the atmosphere: The electromagnetic solar radiation or the incoming shortwave solar radiation has to pass through a thick layer of the earth's atmosphere and hence it is partly absorbed, partly reflected and partly scattered by the atmosphere and partly transmitted to the earth’s surface.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

Consider the following statements with reference to laterite soil:

  1. They generally form in hot and humid climatic conditions.

  2. The pebbly crust is an important feature of the laterites.

  3. Such soils are rich in silica.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 29
  • The laterite soils are commonly found in the area of high altitude and heavy rainfall in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Orissa, Assam and Meghalaya extending over 13 million hectares. They generally form under hot and humid climatic conditions. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The lateritic soils are particularly found on high flat erosion surfaces in areas of high and seasonal rainfall. Loss of nutrients by accelerated leaching is the most common feature which renders the soil infertile. The pebbly crust is the important feature of laterites which is formed due to alteration of wet and dry periods. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • As a result of weathering, laterite becomes extremely hard. Thus, their characteristics include complete chemical decomposition of the parent rock, complete leaching of silica, a reddish-brown colour given by the oxides of aluminium and iron and lack of humus. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • The crops which are generally grown are rice, millets, sugarcane on lowland and tropical plantation such as rubber, coffee and tea on uplands.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

  1. Cold air mass is characterised by low specific humidity.

  2. Precipitation occurs only when a cold air mass lies over a warm ocean surface.

  3. Warm air masses generally originate in the subtropical regions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 30
  • Cold air masses: Cold air masses originate in the polar and arctic regions. They are characterized by the following properties in their source regions:

    • Specific humidity is extremely low. Hence statement 1 is correct.

    • Stability increases and normal lapse rate of temperature is low.

  • Cold air masses after moving from their source regions and reaching other areas have the following properties:

    • Temperature of that areas where cold air masses reach starts decreasing.

    • The air mass is warmed from below and thus normal lapse rate increases and the air becomes unstable. This mechanism causes convective currents.

    • If the cold air mass lies over warm ocean surface, then its specific humidity increases and cumulo- nimbus clouds are formed.

  • Precipitation occurs only when the cold air mass lies over warm ocean surface but if it lies over warm continent, there is clear weather. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • If the cold air mass lies partly over warm ocean surface and partly over the adjoining cold land surface, then cyclonic conditions are induced.

  • Warm air mass: Warm air mass is that whose temperature is greater than the surface temperature of the areas over which it moves.

  • Warm air masses generally originate in the subtropical regions characterized by anticyclonic conditions. Hence, statement 3 is the correct.

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