Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Kerala PSC KAS MCQ

• In 1908, Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose threw a bomb at a carriage supposed to be carrying a particularly sadistic white judge, Kingsford, in Muzaffarpur. Kingsford was not in the carriage. Unfortunately, two British ladies instead, got killed. Prafulla Chaki shot himself dead, while Khudiram Bose was tried and hanged. The Ghosh brothers including the Aurobindo ghosh and Barindra ghosh, were charged with ‘conspiracy’ or ‘waging war against the King’ – the equivalent of high treason and punishable with death by hanging in the Alipore conspiracy case (Manicktolla Bomb Conspiracy). Aurobindo Ghosh was acquitted due to lack of evidence, and others served varying life terms in prison. Thus, Khudiram Bose and Aurobindo Ghosh were involved in the Alipore conspiracy case given among. So, Option (c) is correct.
• Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal staged a spectacular bomb attack on Viceroy Hardinge while making his official entry into the new capital of Delhi in a procession through Chandni Chowk in December 1912. Investigations following the assassination attempt led to the Delhi Conspiracy trial. At the end of the trial, Basant Kumar Biswas, Amir Chand and Avadh Behari were convicted and executed for their roles in the conspiracy. Rashbehari Bose was known as the person behind the plan, but he evaded arrest because, it is said, he escaped by donning a disguise. Thus, Kumar Biswas, Rash Behari Bose and Sachin Sanyal were involved in the Delhi conspiracy case.

The idea was to reconstruct the governor-general's executive council pending the preparation of a new constitution. For this purpose, a conference was convened by the viceroy, Lord Wavell, at Shimla in June 1945. The main proposals of the Wavell Plan were as follows,

• Except for the governor-general and the commander-in-chief, all executive council members were to be Indians.
• Caste Hindus and Muslims were to have equal representation.
• The reconstructed council was to function as an interim government within the framework of the 1935 Act. The executive council was not responsible to the Central Assembly.
• The governor-general has veto powers but has to exercise that on the advice of ministers.
• Representatives of different parties were to submit a joint list to the viceroy for nominations to the executive council. If a joint list was not possible, separate lists would be submitted.
• Possibilities were to be kept open for negotiations on a new constitution once the war was finally won. So, Option (c) is correct.

The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria on June 28, 1914, in Sarajevo, was the immediate cause that triggered the start of the First World War.

The Battle of Jutland, fought between the British Royal Navy and the German High Seas Fleet in 1916, was the largest naval battle of the First World War.

The Zimmerman Telegram, a communication intercepted in 1917 from Germany to Mexico proposing a military alliance, pushed the United States to enter the war.

The First World War ended on November 11, 1918, with the signing of the armistice between the Allies and Germany.

Tanks were a new weapon introduced during the First World War, revolutionizing ground warfare and impacting military strategies.

The First World War is commonly known as "The Great War" due to its global scale and impact.

Option (c) is the correct answer.

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body, that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and states, and among the states as per the constitutional arrangement and present requirements. Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the President of India is required to constitute a Finance Commission at an interval of five years or earlier.

Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. Parliament may by law determine the qualifications of the members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. Therefore there is no express provision of members being either from judiciary or from the government.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a constitutional body directly established under Article 338 of the constitution.

• Statement 3 is correct: Finance Commissions (FCs) play a crucial role in shaping the fiscal federalism and development trajectory of India. They make recommendations on how to distribute the financial resources between the Union and the states, as well as among the states, for a period of five years.

The Portfolio System was introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this system, a member of the Viceroy’s Council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the department(s). The ‘portfolio system’ was given recognition by Indian Councils Act 1861.

Preamble

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity— to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and the LIC of India case (1995), the Supreme Court again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

  The Twenty-fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971, curtailed the right to property, and permitted the acquisition of private property by the government for public use.

Statement 1 is correct. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. The writ, on the other hand, is not issued where the (a) detention is lawful, (b) the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court, (c) detention is by a competent court, and (d) detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.

Statement 2 is correct. The writ of certiorari could be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities, and against administrative authorities. It is not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.

Statement 3 is correct. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.

Some other writs:

1) Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.

2) Quo-Warranto means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.

• The nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President.
• An assembly is dissolved. The members cease to be qualified to vote in the presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the presidential election.
• While electing and impeaching Vice- President, nominated members to participate.
• The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election

3 Prime Ministers of India have been members of the Rajya Sabha: Indira Gandhi (1966), Deve Gowda (1996), Manmohan Singh (2004). But in the UK, the Prime Minister must necessarily be a member of the Lower House (also called as House of Commons) alone.

• It was introduced by Justice P.N. Bhagwati of the Supreme Court.
• It was not mentioned in the constitution of India nor any law enacted by Parliament. It is a result of Judicial activism.
• An individual or group of people directly files public Interest Litigation in the supreme court.
• It was felt that the government undermines its interests. In such a situation, the court directly accepts the public good. It is a new legal horizon in which the court of law can initiate and enforce action to serve and secure significant Public Interest.

As Students read in College similarly Patients are treated in Hospital.

Time take for reaching B for ram is T = 5/5 = 1hr
Time taken for reaching B for Shyam is T = 5/10 = 1/2 hr

Its 10 am when ram reaches B and 10: 15 when Shyam reaches B , so they must meet each after 10 and before 10:15 for sure as ram starts back after reaching B

if we see for options 10: 10 am is the only answer

Since the second rabbit covers 7/120 of the distance in 2 hours 30 minutes
⇒ it covers 8.4 / 120 = 7% of the distance in 3 hours.

Thus, in 3 hours both rabbits together cover 15% of the distance which means 5% per hour so they will meet in 20 hours.

The ratio of speeds = 8 : 7.
⇒ the second rabbit would cover 700 ft to the meeting point in 20 hours and its speed would be 35 feet/hr.

So Option D is correct

It is given in the question that a man crosses 600m long street in 5 minutes. We have to find the speed of the man in km per hour. To find the speed of the man in km per hour, we have to convert the given distance to km and also convert the given time to hour.
First, let us see the conversion of the given distance into km. We know that 1km = 1000m.
So, to convert 600m to km, we can write, 600m = x km.
x = 600/1000 km 
x = 0.6km 
Now, let us convert the given time into hours. We know that 1 hour = 60 minutes.
So, to convert 5 minutes to hours, we can write, 5 minutes = y hours.
y = 5/60 hrs
y = 0.083 hrs
Now we know that speed can be found out using the formula, Speed=Distance/Time, We have found out that distance = 0.6km and time = 0.083 hrs. So, on substituting these values in the formula of speed, we get,  
Speed = 0.6/ 0.083
= 6×1000 / 83 × 10
= 6000/ 830
= 600/83
= 7.2 km/h
Therefore, we get the speed of the man crossing a 600m long street in 5 minutes as 7.2km/h.
Hence, option (D) is the correct answer.

Suppose C's capital = x then
B's capital = 4x (Since B's Capital is four times C's capital)
A's capital = 6x ( Since twice A's capital is equal to thrice B's capital)
A : B : C =6x : 4x : x
= 6 : 4 : 1
B's share

► S.P. of 1 kg of mixture = Rs. 9.24, Gain 10%.

By the rule of allilation, we have:

 Ratio of quantities of 1^st and 2^nd kind = 14 : 6 = 7 : 3.

► Let x kg of sugar of 1^st be mixed with 27 kg of 2^nd kind.

Then, 7 : 3 = x : 27

Thus, required ratio = 80 : 70 = 8 : 7

• Basic Needs Approach: This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e.: health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Capability Approach: This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education, and access to resources is the key to increasing human development. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Income Approach: This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys. The higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• Welfare Approach: This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary, and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximizing expenditure on welfare.

• General Motors, Ford Motor Company, and Chrysler Stellantis North America are often referred to as the "Big Three", being the largest automakers in the United States of America. All three have their headquarters in the Detroit area.

• Chennai is nicknamed "The Detroit of India", with more than one-third of India's automobile industry being based in the city. Chennai is also referred to as the ‘Detroit of India’ with the Indian operations of Ford, Hyundai, Renault, and Nissan headquartered in the city and BMW having an assembly plant on the outskirts. Chennai accounts for 35% of the country’s automobile component industry and 60 percent of the country’s automotive exports.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Industrial towns: Industries constitute the prime motive force of these cities such as Mumbai, Salem, Coimbatore, Modinagar, Jamshedpur, Hugli, Bhilai, etc.

• Commercial towns: Towns and cities specializing in trade and commerce are kept in this class. Kolkata, Saharanpur, Satna, etc. are some examples.

• Garrison Cantonment towns: These towns emerged as garrison towns such as Ambala, Jalandhar, Mhow, Babina, Udhampur, etc.

  • Ambala: It is a city and a municipal corporation in the Ambala district in Haryana. It has a large Indian Army and Indian Air Force presence within its cantonment area. Ambala separates the Ganges River network from the Indus River network and is surrounded by two rivers – Ghaggar and Tangri – to the north and to the south.

  • Mhow: Mhow, officially Dr. Ambedkar Nagar, is a cantonment in the Indore district in the Madhya Pradesh state of India.

  • Babina: Babina is a cantonment town in Jhansi district in the state of Uttar Pradesh.

  • Udhampur: Udhampur is a city and a municipal committee in the Udhampur district in the Indian union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Named after Raja Udham Singh, it serves as the district capital and the Northern Command headquarters of the Indian Army. Hence option (c) is the correct answer

• Administrative towns and cities: Towns supporting administrative headquarters of higher order are administrative towns, such as Chandigarh, New Delhi, Bhopal, Shillong, Guwahati, Imphal, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Jaipur Chennai, etc.

• Crude oil may be referred to as sweet crude if it contains relatively little sulfur (0.5%) or sour crude if it contains substantial amounts of sulfur.

• Iraq is one of the leading producers of sweet crude.

• Major locations where sweet crude is found include the Appalachian Basin in Eastern North America, Western Texas, the Bakken Formation of North Dakota and Saskatchewan, the North Sea of Europe, North Africa, Australia, and the Far East including Indonesia.

• Sour crude, on the other hand, has a high level of impurities in it, namely sulfur, which must first be removed before being processed into gas and other petroleum-based products.

• Venezuela is a leading producer of sour crude oil. Sour crude is more common in the Gulf of Mexico, Mexico, South America, and Canada.

• Crude produced by OPEC Member Nations also tends to be relatively sour, with an average sulfur content of 1.77%.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• From the 1950s to the 1970s, a series of land reform laws were passed – at the national level as well as in the states – that were intended to bring reform in the agrarian structure, especially in the landholding system and the distribution of land.

• The first important legislation was the abolition of the zamindari system, which removed the layer of intermediaries who stood between the cultivators and the state. Of all the land reform laws that were passed, this was probably the most effective, for in most areas it succeeded in taking away the superior rights of the zamindars over the land and weakening their economic and political power. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Among the other major land reform laws that were introduced were the tenancy abolition and regulation acts. They attempted either to outlaw tenancy altogether or to regulate rents to give some security to the tenants. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The third major category of land reform laws was the Land Ceiling Acts. These laws imposed an upper limit on the amount of land that can be owned by a particular family. The ceiling varies from region to region, depending on the kind of land, its productivity, and other such factors. Very productive land has a low ceiling while unproductive dry land has a higher ceiling limit. According to these acts, the state is supposed to identify and take possession of surplus land (above the ceiling limit) held by each household and redistribute it to landless families and households in other specified categories, such as SCs and STs.

• The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (also Land Acquisition Act, 2013) was passed to regulate the land acquisition process and lay down the procedure and rules for granting compensation, rehabilitation, and resettlement to the affected persons in India. The Act has provisions to provide fair compensation to those whose land is taken away, brings transparency to the process of acquisition of land to set up factories or buildings, infrastructural projects, and assures rehabilitation of those affected. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• The continent of Asia produces more than half of the world’s tin. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• China, Malaysia, and Indonesia are among the world’s leading tin producers. China also leads in the production of lead, antimony, and tungsten. Asia also has deposits of manganese, bauxite, nickel, zinc, and copper.

• Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the world. It is a leading producer of gold, diamond, iron ore, tin, and nickel. It is also rich in copper, lead, zinc, and manganese. Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie areas of western Australia have the largest deposits of gold. Hence statement 2 is not correct.