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Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - KTET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Kerala SET Mock Test Series 2025 - Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 for KTET 2025 is part of Kerala SET Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 questions and answers have been prepared according to the KTET exam syllabus.The Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 MCQs are made for KTET 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 below.
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Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

When unbalanced forces act on a body, the body:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

The Second Law of Motion states that if an unbalanced force acts on a body, that body will experience acceleration ( or deceleration), that is, a change of speed.

 One can say that a body at rest is considered to have zero speed, ( a constant speed). So any force that causes a body to move is an unbalanced force. Also, any force, such as friction, or gravity, that causes a body to slow down or speed up, is an unbalanced force. 

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

Which one of the following water bodies separates Sri Lanka from India? 

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

Sri Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
The Draft National Education Policy, 2019 (DNEP) implements the India-centric education system, which contributes to the continuous transformation of our nation into a just and vibrant knowledge society, by providing high-quality education to all. The NITI Aayog has focused policy focus specifically on education and outcomes of education from programs. It has promoted competitive federalism among states to improve their educational indicators that are measurable by a battery of tests on students. But any serious work on 'No One Left Behind' (NOLB) can ask for a new and reformist approach. DNEP has provided some hope, but it calls for further examination of rhetoric and reality.
DNEP must be read in the context of the current economic and educational climate in order to estimate the path and speed needed to make its vision a reality. On the one hand, we are in another new era of industrial revolution or skilled age. On the other hand, at present, around one million youth enter the workforce in India each month, but most of them are just raw hands without professional technical knowledge or practical business skills. The weak relationship between education and employment poses a potential risk of turning India's demographic dividend into a demographic disaster.
In the education sector, the elusive chaos of the quantity-quality-equity triangle remains unresolved. Although the merits of education are well recognized as an invaluable public, public investment for this has been minimal. It is relevant to explore how DNEP has addressed some key areas for policy interventions in school education, namely access, which can be measured by the education system, the size and flow of students crossing over to equity, which can be seen development-deprived populations, and lack or persistence of quality, which can be understood by teaching-learning processes and developmental outcomes for children that are more easily implied by attainable scores.

Q.Our Indian education sector needs:
I. To resolve the elusive conundrum of the quantity-quality-equity triangle
II. To acknowledge the merit of education as an invaluable public good
III. More public investment
IV. Policy intervention in school education

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

To resolve the elusive conundrum of the quantity-quality-equity triangle:

  • The passage mentions that the elusive chaos of the quantity-quality-equity triangle remains unresolved. Hence, resolving this issue is needed.

II. To acknowledge the merit of education as an invaluable public good:

  • The passage states that the merits of education are well recognized as an invaluable public good. Therefore, acknowledging this merit is implied as necessary.

III. More public investment:

  • The passage mentions that public investment for education has been minimal. Thus, more public investment is needed.

IV. Policy intervention in school education:

  • The passage discusses the need for policy interventions in school education in key areas such as access, equity, and quality.

Given that the passage supports all these needs, the correct answer is: I, III and IV

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 4

Which of the following is not true regarding Renewable energy?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 4

Renewable energy is regenerative or, for all intents and purposes, practically endless energy.
Examples of renewable energy sources are solar energy, wind energy, hydropower, biomass, geothermal energy, and ocean energy.
Characteristics of Renewable energy are the following: 

  • These resources have the ability to regenerate.
  • Because they are replenished in tandem with exploitation, they are constantly available for use.
  • On a time scale, the regeneration of these sources involves some ecological processes.
  • If renewable resources are utilized faster than the ecosystem can replenish them, they become nonrenewable.
  • These resources include food, timber, raw materials for textiles, leather, and so on. Oxygen, freshwater, solar energy, and biomass are among them.
  • Increased use of renewable energy could reduce the usage of fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, and natural gas),
  • It can reduce air pollution and CO2 emissions while also contributing to national energy independence and economic and political security.

Thus, the need for elaborate arrangements for transport is not true regarding Renewable energy.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

Chronologically arrange the following sources in the order they connected through the 'hydrological cycle' (from first to last)

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

Hydrological Cycle

  • The process of circulation of water within the hydrosphere of Earth in different forms such as liquid, solid and gaseous states are called the Hydrological Cycle of water.
  • It starts with the Evaporation of water from the surface of the water bodies and further, it includes Transpiration, Sublimation, Condensation and Precipitation.

Key Points

'Hydrological cycle' steps

  • The first step of the water cycle is evaporation from water bodies means the part of the Hydrosphere.
  • The second step of the water cycle is condensation, which takes place in the atmosphere.
  • The third step of the water cycle is precipitation and runoff means the part of the lithosphere.
  • The final step of the water cycle is in the Biosphere. 
  • It is the zone where all the spheres interact and work together.
  • It includes processes like water uptake and transpiration by plants.

Thus, in the 'Hydrological cycle' the order of the source in which they connected from each other is first Hydrosphere, second Atmosphere, third Lithosphere and fourth Biosphere.

Additional Information

Processes during a hydrological cycle:

​​Evaporation

  • When waters convert from liquid to gas stage as it moves from the groundwater into the atmosphere, this phenomenon is called Evaporation.
  • Mainly Solar radiation is the source of energy for evaporation. 

Transpiration

  • When plant uptake of water at the roots, transport of water through plant tissues, and release of vapour by leaves is known as transpiration.

Condensation

  • The Process of conversion of water vapour to liquid water droplets in the air is called Condensation.
  • It is responsible for the formation of fog and clouds.

Precipitation

  • When the condensed water vapour falling to the surface of the Earth is known as Precipitation.
  • It occurs in the form of rain, snow, and hail.
  • It provides for the delivery of atmospheric water to the earth in the form of rain.
Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

Global warming during winter becomes more pronounced at the:
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Tropic of Cancer
(D) Tropic of Capricorn
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

Global warming during winter becomes more pronounced at the tropic of capricorn.
The five major circles of latitude are, from north to south:

  • The Arctic Circle (66º33'38"N)
  • The Tropic of Cancer (23º26'22"N)
  • The Equator (0ºlatitude)
  • The Tropic of Capricorn (23º26'22"S) Global warming during winter
  • The Antarctic Circle (66º33'38"S)

Tropic of Cancer at which the Sun appears directly perpendicular on June 21 in an event that is called Summer Solstice.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

Direction: The following table presents the details about the number of players participating in three (3) different games (Football, Cricket and Badminton) from six (6) different countries (India, UK, Australia, Canada, Spain and USA) during the year 
2020. Based on the date in the table, answer the question: 
Country-wise Participation of players in Games 

Q. What is the total number of players participating in cricket from Canada, Spain and USA and the number of players participating in Football from India, UK and Australia?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

Given:
Total number of players participating in cricket from Canada, Spain and USA
= 80+70+60 = 210
Total number of players participating in Football from India, UK and Australia
= 65+70+90 = 225
Total number of players participating in cricket from Canada, Spain and USA and in football from India, UK and Australia
= 225+210 = 435
∴ The total number of players is 435.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem ?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Crop field is an artificial ecosystem.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

Which is the most abundant gas in the earth’s atmosphere?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

The correct answer is Nitrogen.

Key Points

  • Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in Earth's atmosphere.
  • The composition of gases in Earth's atmosphere:
    • Nitrogen(78.08%)
    • Oxygen(20.95%)
    • Argon(0.93%)
    • Carbon dioxide(0.036%)

Hint

  • Code to remember the composition of gases in Earth's atmosphere is NO AC(Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, Carbon dioxide).
Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

"A diagram speaks more than 1000 words." - The statement means that the teacher should

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

"A diagram speaks more than 1000 words." - The statement means that the teacher should use teaching aids in the class.
A diagram can be worth a thousand words, provided it has been well designed and is sufficiently supported.
Instructional diagrams aim to teach students how to:
- perform new tasks,
- improve their existing tasks.
Diagrams should help students to:
- recall the knowledge and skills they have been taught,
- understand the material that is being taught,
- perform problem solving tasks,
- perform transfer tasks.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 11

Which of the following is the ‘biodiversity hot spots’ ?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 11

Forests are called biological hotspots because of the large numbers of life forms including flora and fauna that are found there.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

Which of the following was the most feared security force of the Nazi State ? 

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

In order to control and maintain the German society, along with the existing general police force and e SA or Storm Soldiers, the special surveillance and defense units like the Gestapo (secret state police), the criminal police, the Security Service (SD) and SS (the protection units)were formed. But the most feared protection unit of the Nazi state was the Gestapo. This unit had the power to review cases of treason, spying, sabotage and illegal attacks on the Nazi Party and Germany.  

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

Which certification is maintained for standardisation of jewellery ?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 13
The Hallmark Certification for Standardization of Jewellery

The correct answer is C: Hallmark.


Explanation:


The Hallmark certification is maintained for the standardization of jewellery.


What is Hallmark certification?



  • Hallmark is a certification that ensures the purity and quality of precious metal jewellery.

  • It is a quality assurance mark provided by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).

  • The hallmark consists of the BIS logo, purity grade, and jeweler's identification mark, ensuring the authenticity of the jewellery.


Why is Hallmark certification important?



  • It provides assurance to the customers about the purity and quality of the jewellery they are purchasing.

  • It helps in preventing the sale of counterfeit or low-quality jewellery in the market.

  • It ensures that the jewellery meets the standards set by the Bureau of Indian Standards.


Benefits of Hallmark certification:



  • Authenticity: Hallmark certification assures customers that the jewellery is made of genuine precious metals.

  • Purity: It guarantees the purity of the metal used in the jewellery.

  • Quality: Hallmarked jewellery undergoes strict quality checks, ensuring high-quality craftsmanship.

  • Value for money: Customers can trust the authenticity and quality of hallmarked jewellery, providing them value for their investment.

  • Consumer protection: Hallmark certification protects consumers from purchasing fake or low-quality jewellery.


In conclusion, the Hallmark certification is maintained for the standardization of jewellery. It ensures the purity, quality, and authenticity of precious metal jewellery, providing customers with confidence and value for their purchase.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

Which of the following combinations is correct regarding the ideals of our Constitution?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

Answer:
The correct combination regarding the ideals of our Constitution is option C: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. Let's break down each ideal:
Sovereign:
- The Constitution declares India as a sovereign nation, which means it is independent and not under the control of any external authority.
- India has the authority to govern itself and make decisions without interference from other countries.
Socialist:
- The Constitution aims to establish a socialist society in India.
- This means promoting social and economic equality, reducing inequalities in income and wealth, and ensuring equal opportunities for all citizens.
Secular:
- India is a secular nation, which means it does not promote any specific religion or give preferential treatment to any particular religion.
- The State maintains an equal distance from all religions and treats all citizens equally, irrespective of their religion.
Democratic Republic:
- India is a democratic republic, where the power to govern is vested in the hands of the people.
- The citizens have the right to elect their representatives through free and fair elections, and these representatives make decisions on their behalf.
- The President is the head of state, and the Prime Minister is the head of government.
In summary, the correct combination of ideals of our Constitution is C: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The goal of inquiry in fundamental research is directed at bringing an increment in the fund of knowledge.
Statement II: Action research is research by the practitioner, for the practitioner, and of the practitioner.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

Fundamental research:

  • Also known as basic or pure research
  • Concerned with generalizations and with the formulation of a theory
  • Finding information for the addition of knowledge
  • Developing an effective explanation through theory building 
  • Mostly academic research
  • Extensive in nature. 
  • The goal of inquiry in fundamental research is directed at bringing an increment in the fund of knowledge.
  • Example: some natural phenomenon

Action research:

  • The term 'Action research' first coined by Kurt Lewin in 1944 and described in his paper "Action Research and Minority Problems" published in 1946.
  • According to Lewin, "a comparative research on the conditions and effects of various forms of social action and research leading to social action" that uses "a spiral of steps, each of which is composed of a circle of planning, action, and fact-finding about the result of the action".
  • Action research is participatory in nature. It means ‘learning by doing’.
  • It generates democratic impulse, simultaneous contribution to social science (knowledge), and social change (practice).
  • For example, research on the educational situation, as well as the practitioner of education, undergo a change for the better.

Therefore, Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

Which one of the following soils is ideal for growing cotton?  

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

Regur soil which is also known as cotton soil.
It is ideal for the growth of cotton because of the following reasons:
(i) Black soil is clayey in nature.
(ii) It contains a high proportion of calcium and magnesium carbonates.
(iii) It isFertile
(iv) It have high moisture holding capacity.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

Assertion (A): Deforestation and constructional activities causes the extinction of wild animals
Reason (R): Due to loss of natural habitats, animal species become vulnerable or endangered

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

The correct answer is A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

Trees as a shelter for animals:

  • Trees provide shelter and food for a variety of birds and small animals, such as squirrels and beavers.
  • Enhancing growth diversity, trees create an environment that allows the growth of plants that otherwise would not be there.
  • Flowers, fruits, leaves, buds, and woody parts of trees are used by many different species.
  • Deforestation can directly lead to biodiversity loss when animal species that live in the trees no longer have their habitat, cannot relocate, and therefore become extinct. 

Deforestation can lead certain tree species to permanently disappear, which affects the biodiversity of plant species in an environment.

Hence, the reason is also correct.

Important Points

Human activities that influence the extinction and endangerment of wild species fall into a number of categories:

  • ​Land use practices like Deforestation, Projects in urban and suburban development, agriculture, and water management projects that encroach upon and destroy natural habitats.
  • Unsustainable hunting and harvesting result in higher rates of death than new individual recruitment.
  • Ecological damage caused by water, air, and soil pollution.
  • Anthropogenic (human-caused) global climate change.
  • ​According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019The forest and tree cover in the country is estimated at 80.73 million hectares, which is 24.56 percent of the total geographical area.​

Additional Information

The International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN):

  • For the purposes of conservation, the IUCN has divided the threatened plant and animal species into 9 categories.
  • Endangered Species: It includes those species which are in danger of extinction. The IUCN's Red List of Threatened Species provides information about endangered species around the world.
  • Vulnerable Species: This includes the species which are likely to be in danger of extinction in the near future if the factors threatening their extinction continue.
  • Rare Species: The population of these species is very small in the world; they are confined to limited areas or thinly scattered over a wider area.
Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the following question. 
If the world is different today, we need to think, talk and engage accordingly. Falling back is unlikely to help, he said adding “purposeful pursuit of national interest is shifting global dynamics”. Highlighting India’s new approach in dealing with terrorism he compared “lack of response to the terror attack in Mumbai in comparison to the way the country responded to the Uri and Pulwama strikes. On India walking away from the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership, the external affair minister said no agreement was better than having a bad agreement.
Giving a historical perspective to geopolitical issues, Jai-Shankar said “For years India’s position on the world state seemed assured but the 1962 conflict with China significantly damaged India’s standing.

Q. RCEP stands for:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

From the line given in the passage: On India walking away from the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership, the external affair minister said no agreement was better than having a bad agreement.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

Mrs. Suman cannot score her students objectively. She is probably using

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

Essay type questions do not provide scope to assess the students objectively. Mrs. Suman is using essay type questions. These questions are subjective in nature and their answers vary from subject to subject; whereas multiple choice questions, true/false type questions, or one word answer type questions are used to assess the students objectively.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

Directions: Each of the following consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Six persons are sitting around a circular table and facing the centre. Who sits to the immediate left of N?
Statement I: H sits to the immediate right of D. Two persons sit between D and F. A is an immediate neighbour of M, who sits to the immediate right of F.
Statement II: F and N are immediate neighbours and M sits immediate right of F. A sits third to the left of N.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

From Statement 1:
H sits to the immediate right of D.
Two persons sit between D and F.
A is an immediate neighbour of M, who sits to the immediate right of F.

So, H sits to the immediate left of N.
The data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement 2:
F and N are immediate neighbours and M sits immediate right of F.
A sits third to the left of N.
Here, we can not determine who sits immediate left of N.


Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

What does Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) indicate? 

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

(i) The COD (Chemical oxygen demand) test is used to measure the content of organic matter of waste water, both biodegradable and non-biodegradble.

(ii) The COD test uses potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) in presence of concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4) solution that oxidizes both organic (predominate) and inorganic substances in a waste water sample.

(iii) The reagents for COD test are followings:

  • Standard potassium dichromate solution (0.25N)
  • Concentrated sulfuric acid
  • Standard ferrous ammonium sulphate titrant (0.1N)
  • Ferroin indicator solution.
Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

National Literacy Mission was started in

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

The National Literacy Mission (NLM) is a nationwide program started by Government of India in 1988 with the approval of the Cabinet as an independent and autonomous wing of the Ministry of HRD (the then Department of Education). It aims to educate 80 million adults in the age group of 15–35 over an eighty-year period. By "literacy", the NLM means not only learning how to read, write and count but also helping people understand why they are deprived and helping them move towards change.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Kanti is the niece of Suman. Suman’s mother is Prema. Divya is Prema’s mother Divya’s husband is Harish. Karisma is the motherin-law of Harish. How is Kanti related to Harish?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Kanti is the niece of Suman.
Suman is the uncle of Kanti.
Prema is Suman’s mother.
Prema is grandmother of Kanti.
Harish is Prema’s father.
So, Kanti is the great-granddaughter of Harish.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

The most recurring natural hazard in India is:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

Floods are the most frequent disaster in India, accounting for 52 per cent of the total occurrences of calamities, followed by cyclones (30 per cent), landslides (10 per cent), earthquakes (5 per cent) and droughts (2 per cent).

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

Which of the following types of question would be most appropriate to evaluate the thought process of a student after teaching a lesson?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

The question 'What specialities of Einstein impressed you the most and why?' is most appropriate to evaluate the thought process of a student as it takes into consideration student's thinking. This makes students to choose from among multiple answers and hence they could be engaged in thinking rationally. The answers that come out are also subjective, unlike the direct questions, which fail to evaluate the thought process of students.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

Select the incorrect match in terms of correct waste management practices.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 26
  • Waste is unusable material. Waste comes in many forms.
  • Waste can be categorized as:
    • solid waste (vegetable peels, trash cans and other such municipal waste),
    • liquid waste (water discharge from industries, harmful runoff from fields etc),
    • and gaseous waste (harmful gases released from industries).

Key Points

Solid waste management is one important challenge of urban bodies. It can be achieved by following the 5 R's of waste management which are:

Refuse:

  • Refuse the usage of non-biodegradable products as much as possible.
  • Example: Refuse using plastic bags and using jute bags or cloth bags.

Reduce: 

  • If users cannot be refused completely, reduce the amount of consumption.
  • Example: Reducing the use of single-use plastics.

Reuse:

  • As much as possible try to use a substance for as long as and in as many ways as possible.
  • Example: Reuse wrapping paper, plastic bags, boxes.

Repurpose:

  • For every item that can't be refused, reduced, or reused, try repurposing it.
  • Example: try using wasted printer paper for scrap paper, cardboard boxes for storing supplies, binder clips to hold power cords

Recycle:  

  • Recycling is the most environmentally friendly waste disposal method, which means collecting waste and produce a new product from it.
  • Example: recycling of glass can be made to produce new glass jars and bottles or tiles.

Important Points

Plastic bags:

  • A plastic bag should be avoided because it is harmful to the environment and is difficult to degrade.
  • If one cannot avoid the use of plastic bags they must reuse, repurpose or recycle plastic bags.

Thus, the incorrect match is Plastic bags: Landfill

Additional Information

Composting:

  • Due to a lack of adequate space for landfills, biodegradable yard waste is allowed to decompose in a medium designed for the purpose.
  • Only biodegradable waste materials are used in composting. Example: kitchen waste
  • Good quality environmentally friendly manure is formed from the compost and can be used for agricultural purposes.
  • It is the only sustainable means of waste disposal.

Landfill:

  • Landfill refers to the disposal of waste material by burying it.
  • It is an extended storage area for non-biodegradable waste.
  • Landfills may lead to contamination from the waste entering the area surrounding by soil and water and it also causes odour and pests.
Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

With the end of apartheid, who became the first President of South African Republic?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 27
May 9, 1994, Nelson Mandela was unanimously elected president by the National Assembly, with Thabo Mbeki, deputy leader of the ANC and F.W. de Klerk as deputy presidents.
Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

______ is the most important characteristic of a good teacher.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

A teacher work as a role model for students. A teacher is the best source of motivation. A teacher can guide the students to the right path and can make their future brighter. Above characteristics are important for a teacher and to be a motivator is the prime role and the duty of a teacher.

Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

Consider the following statements about the Draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification:

  1. The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change is the nodal Ministry for notifying the EIA Notification, under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
  2. The public reporting of the environmental violations needs to be mandatorily taken cognizance of by the authorities.
  3. All the off-shore projects, located beyond 12 nautical miles, are exempted from public consultation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change is the nodal Ministry for notifying the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 (EPA), gives power to the central government to take all measures that it deems necessary or expedient for protecting and improving the quality of the environment, and preventing and controlling abating environmental pollution. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • The EIA Notification seeks to reduce or even remove public participation, and by extension independent expert opinion, from the process of granting environmental clearances to various projects. The public reporting of the environmental violations may also not be taken cognizance of by the authorities. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Exemption from public consultation in certain projects - Section 14 of the Draft provides for exemption from public consultation, thereby limiting the scope of public involvement in districts. All offshore projects, located beyond 12 nautical miles are exempted. So, statement 3 is correct.
Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

Direction: Study the following line graphs and answer the given questions.
The graph shows the ratio of marks of History to Geography of 7 students in an examination.

Q. Which of the following students got less marks in History than in Geography?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

Student 1 marks in History than in Geography = 0.65
= (65/100)
= (5/13)
Student 2 marks in history than in geography = 0.85
= (85/100)
= 17/20
Student 3 marks in history than in geography = 0.35
= (35/100)
= (7/20)
Student 4 marks in history than in geography = 1.25
= (125/100)
= 5/4
Student 5 marks in history than in geography = 1.40
= (140/100) = 7/5
Student 6 marks in history than in geography = 0.95
= (95/100)
= 19/20
Student 7 marks in history than in geography = 1.55
= (155/100)
= 31/20
∴ Students got less marks in History than in Geography is 1, 2, 3, 6.

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