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Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - KTET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Kerala SET Mock Test Series 2025 - Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce)

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) for KTET 2025 is part of Kerala SET Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) questions and answers have been prepared according to the KTET exam syllabus.The Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) MCQs are made for KTET 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) below.
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Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 1

What is the sustainable growth rate of the company that enjoys return on equity = 30 percent and a dividend payout ratio of 40 percent?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 1

The correct answer is 18 per cent

Key Points Sustainable Growth Rate:

  • The maximum rate of growth that a business or social enterprise may maintain without needing to raise more capital or take on more debt is known as the sustainable growth rate (SGR).
  • It measures how quickly a business can expand using only internal revenue and without borrowing money from other sources.

Important Points

The sustainable growth rate of the company that enjoys return on equity = 30 percent and a dividend payout ratio of 40 percent is 18%

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 2

The discount rate at which the Net Present Value (NPV) of a project becomes zero is known as:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 2

The correct answer is Internal Rate of Return

Key Points

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 3

Assertion (A): “Price Discovery” is a function of derivatives market.

Reason (R): ‘Price Discovery’ deals with the study of influence of futures price on spot price.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 3

Assertion (A): “Price Discovery” is a function of the derivatives market.

Reason (R): ‘Price Discovery’ deals with the study of the influence of futures price on the spot price.

Here Both (A) and (R) are correct. Hence option4 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Price discovery is the overall process, whether explicit or inferred, of setting the spot price or the proper price of an asset, security, commodity, or currency.
  • The process of price discovery looks at a number of tangible and intangible factors, including supply and demand, investor risk attitudes, and the overall economic and geopolitical environment.
  • Simply put, it is where a buyer and a seller agree on a price and a transaction occurs.
  • The derivatives market serves as an important source of information about prices. Prices of derivative instruments such as futures and forwards can be used to determine what the market expects future spot prices to be.
  • The information is accurate and reliable. Thus, the futures and forwards markets are especially helpful in the price discovery mechanism.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 4

Statement I: Data material held in any electronic form is 'information' under RTI Act, 2005.

Statement II: IT Act, 2000 came into force on 10th October, 2000.

Choose the correct code:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 4
Data material held in any electronic form is 'information' under the RTI Act, 2005. IT Act, 2000 came into force on 17 October 2000.

Therefore, the only statement I is correct.

Section 2(f) of the RTI Act, 2005 defines 'Information' as any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advice, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 5

Given below are two statements:

One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion ‘A’: When holding company holds more than 50% (but not whole) shares of a company, then the holders of the rest of shares will be known as "Minority".

Reason ‘R’: Minority interest is calculated by considering proportionate shares and reserves of Holding Company.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 5

The correct answer is A is true but R is false.

Key Points

Assertion ‘A’: When holding company holds more than 50% (but not whole) shares of a company, then the holders of the rest of shares will be known as "Minority". 

The term "minority" refers to shareholders who hold less than 50% of the shares of a company. This means that if a holding company holds more than 50% of the shares of a subsidiary company, the remaining shareholders are considered the minority shareholders.

Reason ‘R’: Minority interest is calculated by considering proportionate shares and reserves of Holding Company. However, the reason provided in Reason 'R' is incorrect. Minority interest refers to the proportionate share of a subsidiary's net assets that are not owned by the parent company. It is calculated based on the ownership percentage of the minority shareholders in the subsidiary company, not by considering the shares and reserves of the holding company.

Therefore, Assertion 'A' is true as it correctly defines minority shareholders, but Reason 'R' is false as it provides an incorrect explanation of minority interest calculation.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 6

The existence of a good system of internal check reduces the ______ to a great extent.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 6

The correct answer is Work of the Auditor.

Internal Check is an integral function of the internal control system. It is an arrangement of duties of the staff members in such a way that the work performed by one person is automatically and independently checked by the other.

Auditing is the systematic and scientific examination of the books of accounts and records of a business so as to enable the auditor to satisfy himself that the Balance Sheet and the Profit and Loss Account are properly drawn up so as to exhibit a true and fair view of the financial state of affairs of the business and profit or loss for the financial period.

From the Auditors Point of View,

  • The auditor may be relieved of undertaking detailed checking if there is an efficient system of internal checks.
  • The system of internal checks facilitates the work of auditors to a great extent by enabling them to rely on test checking.
  • He can plan to utilize the time saved thereby in auditing the other important areas.
  • He should test the systems of internal checks for his satisfaction. In the event of his dissatisfaction or suspicion, he must probe the matter to the bottom.
  • In the absence of any suspicious circumstances, he may rely upon the internal checks in force but is not totally relieved of his responsibility.
  • He runs the risk of being held liable for negligence if errors and frauds are de­tected afterward.
  • The internal check system is in­troduced not by the auditor but by the client or­ganisation. So, the auditor should appraise the sys­tem for reliability with reasonable skill and care.
  • In short, the existence of an efficient internal check system may reduce the auditor’s work vol­ume but does not reduce his liability.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 7

Original vouchers are called ______ vouchers and their copies or supporting documents are called ______ vouchers.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 7

The correct answer is primary, collateral.

Key PointsVoucher

  • A voucher denotes a source document, typically created for future reference and maintaining a record of the circumstances surrounding the transaction.
  • Because it supports the entries made in the journal, it serves as documentary proof of that transaction.
  • It is important to remember that a transaction can only be recorded in the books of accounts if there is documented basis for it.

 Important PointsBased on the source, there are two kinds of vouchers:

  1. Primary Vouchers: A primary voucher is considered to be a written document that is in its original form and exists. Purchase invoices, cash receipt counterfoils, and other related documents may be included.
  2. Collateral Vouchers: These are Copies of supporting documents that are not available in the original. They are xerox copies. The contracts may be kept in the vaults of banks. The copies are kept in the office for vouching.

Hence, Original vouchers are called primary vouchers and their copies or supporting documents are called collateral vouchers.

Additional InformationTypes of Vouchers on the basis of recording of transactions

  1. Transaction Voucher: Simple transactions are those that only include a single debit or credit, and they need the preparation of Transaction Vouchers.
  2. Compound Voucher: Transactions are considered compound if they include both a single debit or credit and many debits or credits. Compound vouchers are created for these types of transactions.
  3. Complex Voucher: Transactions with multiple debits and multiple credits are referred to as complex transactions, and the journal voucher created for them is a complicated voucher.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 8
Choose the option which is a requirement of the disclosure convention
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 8

The correct answer is Full disclosure of all material facts that can affect the financial statement.

Key Points

  • The Full Disclosure Principle states that all relevant and necessary information for the understanding of a company’s financial statements must be included in public company filings.
  • For example, financial analysts who read financial statements need to know what inventory valuation method has been used, if there have been any significant write-downs, how depreciation is being calculated, and other critical information for the understanding of the financial statements.
  • The full disclosure principle is crucial to ensuring that there is limited information asymmetry between the company’s management and its current shareholders, debtors, or other third parties.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 9

Assertion: All EU member states can control their own monetary policy.

Reasoning: Monetary policy is decided by the ECB, not individual countries.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 9

The correct answer is Assertion is incorrect, but Reasoning is correct.

Key PointsAs per the passage, "Despite these advantages, there are challenges, particularly the restriction on individual countries' monetary policies as monetary policy is decided by the ECB, not individual countries."

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 10
Which institution manages the Euro?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 10

The correct answer is the European Central Bank.

Key PointsAs per the passage, "Managed by the European Central Bank (ECB) and the Eurosystem which comprises the central banks of the Eurozone, it currently serves as the official currency for 19 of the 27 EU member states collectively known as the Eurozone."

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 11
When was the Euro introduced in tangible form?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 11

The correct answer is 2002.

Key Points As per the passage, "Introduced in 1999 as an electronic currency for banking and financial transactions and in tangible form in 2002, the Euro is the second most traded currency worldwide after the US Dollar."

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 12

Investment in which of the following is most risky?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 12

Investment in Equity shares is the most risky. The higher the volatility of a stock, or any asset, the higher its risk. Unit trusts that invest only in equities are higher risk than those that invest in other assets. Their prices move further and the chance of loss is higher.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 13

Which among the following can be inferred from the sentence – “It is, however, worth considering whether the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (then DIPP) will strike the right balance between regulating consumer interests and encouraging innovation and investment, without discriminating against a particular class of investors”?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 13
The author wants to make the point here that the DPIIT will have to strike the right balance between the investors and the buyers of the e-commerce industry so that there is no disparity in the policy. A policy should take into account the interests of each and everybody since that is the important approach here.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 14

Which among the following is/are the problem(s) faced by e-commerce customers in India these days, as stated in the passage?

I. They do not get the money back easily in case they have to return the products delivered to them.

II. They have no credible information regarding the products and the feedback regarding them available to them.

III. They have to pay extra to ship the products directly to their homes as they do not need to come out for shopping.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 14
Statement I is correct since it has been stated in the passage that the customers often do not get the refund if they have returned the products. Refer to, “Returns and reimbursements are risky and cumbersome.”

Statement II is also correct for the fact that the reviews posted on the websites of the e-commerce companies are not always true and there is no way to find out if they are true or fake or even the discounts are not always for real. Refer to, “There are no authentic ways to figure out if product reviews, ratings or even discounts are genuine.”

Statement III cannot said to be correct for the fact that it is not the case at all rather the reality is the opposite of what is being said here. The prices are generally lower in case of the ecommerce companies and that is the main reason they are becoming popular day by day.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 15
What aspect is being increasingly considered in service design and delivery in India?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 15

The correct answer is Sustainability.

Key Points

As per the passage 

  • "Furthermore, as awareness of environmental and societal concerns has risen, businesses are endeavoring to factor in sustainability into their service design and delivery."

    • This sentence explains how sustainability is being increasingly considered in service design and delivery in India.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 16
How has the scope of service marketing in India evolved? 
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 16

The correct answer is It has become more multifaceted.

Key Points

As per the passage:

  • "Therefore, service marketing in India has transformed into a multifaceted domain that balances complex business, customer, and societal demands in its broad scope."

    • This sentence shows how the scope of service marketing in India has become more multifaceted.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 17

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Prepaid expenses are not considered as liquid assets.

Reason (R): Prepaid expenses cannot be converted into cash.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 17

The correct answer is Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Key PointsPrepaid Expenses

  • Future expenses that are paid in advance are known as prepaid expenses.
  • Prepaid expenses are first recognised as an asset on the balance sheet.
  • The sum is recorded as an expense after the assets' benefits are realised over time.
  • Example of Prepaid Expenses: Insurance is an excellent example of a prepaid expense, as it is customarily paid for in advance. If a company pays ₹12,000 for an insurance policy that covers the next 12 months, then it would record a current asset of ₹12,000 at the time of payment to represent this prepaid amount. In each month of the 12-month policy, the company would recognise an expense of ₹1,000 and draw down the prepaid asset by this same amount.

Liquid Assets:

  • Liquid assets are those that can be quickly converted into cash.
  • While assets are valuable belongings that can be turned to cash, not all of them can be sold for cash immediately or without incurring a loss.
  • Cash, Bank balance, Accounts receivable, Treasury bills, notes, and bonds are some examples of liquid assets

Important Points Assertion (A): Prepaid expenses are not considered as liquid assets.

  • The assertion is True as prepaid expenses are not considered liquid assets

Reason (R): Prepaid expenses cannot be converted into cash.

  • The Reason (R) is also true & correctly explains the assertion (A) as prepaid expenses and income tax receivables, cannot be sold for cash, which is why they are not considered liquid assets.
  • They are recorded as Other current assets, as prepaid expenses are the expenses that have been paid in advance before they are even due for payment. An obligation that is met in advance is an asset for the company,
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 18
Creams and medicines are the examples of __________ products?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 18

The correct answer is convenience products.

Key Points

  • Any good or service you offer to satisfy a customer's need or desire is a product.
  • There are both real and virtual ones. Durable things (such as automobiles, furniture, and computers) and nondurable items are examples of physical products (like food and beverages).
  • Services or experiences are offered as virtual products (such as education, software, and streaming services).
  • A product could also be a hybrid, containing both real-world and digital components (like a kitchen appliance with its own mobile app).
  • As traditionally analog items combine digital technology to better reach and serve customers, hybrid products are becoming more widespread.

 Important Points

Convenience Goods: Convenience goods are regularly bought and require minimal preparation or effort. They are frequently affordable, readily available, and simple to purchase.

For example, periodicals, on-demand applications, and services

Features of Convenience Goods

  • Lack of durability
  • Convenience stores frequently have them in stock.
  • Contains fewer items and is cheaper
  • Typically, it only comprises standardized goods.
  • Advertising campaigns and promotions are important for its sale.
  • Constantly in demand

Note: Creams and medicines are the types of convenience goods because it requires minimal preparation and effort to purchase.

Additional Information

  • Shopping Goods: Shopping items cost more and are bought less frequently than convenience items. Before making a purchase, consumers weigh factors like quality, design, and cost. For instance, clothing lines and airline tickets
  • Specialty Goods: Products that fit into a certain market or niche have attributes that appeal to that market. In order to reach the correct consumers, this type of product needs more focused advertising. For illustration, consider applications for the real estate or banking markets.
  • Unsought Goods: Few buyers are aware of or actively seek out unsought products. Customers do not have an immediate need for these products, hence direct benefit promotion is required to spark interest. Examples include life insurance and dictionaries.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 19

In the market value method, which of the following should be kept in mind while determining the normal rate of return for valuing shares?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 19

Valuation of shares is the process of determining the fair value of the company shares.

Key PointsYield Or Market Value Method Of Valuation Of Shares:

  • Under the yield method, the emphasis goes to the yield that an investor expects from his investment.
  • The yield, here we mean, is the possible return that an investor gets out of his holdings—dividend, bonus shares, right issue.
  • If the return is more, the price of the share is also more.
  • Under this method, the valuation of shares is obtained by comparing the expected rate of return with the normal rate of return.
  • The normal rate of return, for individuals, is the average rate of return on all investments, i.e. the average of all returns yields the normal rate of return.
  • Determining the normal rate of return for the valuation of shares in the Market value method comprises of following:
    • The risk involved in a particular share or class of share in which amount is to be invested, 
    • Current market rate and trends in companies market value,
    • Cost of capital of particular company so as to find the performance of the company, and
    • The weighted average cost of capital.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 20
Globalisation is beneficial for firms because of the major reason (from among the following):
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 20

The correct answer is It opens up new market opportunities.

Key Points

  • Globalisation is beneficial for firms because it opens up new market opportunities.
  • Benefits of Globalization:
    • Access to new cultures.
    • The spread of Technology and Innovation.
    • Lower costs for products.
    • Higher standards of living across the globe.
    • Access to new markets.
    • Access to new talent.
  • Global markets can reduce marketing costs, create new market opportunities abroad, and level income streams.

Additional Information

  • Liberalization - It refers to a relaxation of government restrictions in the areas of social, political, and economic policies.
  • Privatization - It means different things including moving something from the public sector into the private sector.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 21
The call-option value of a callable bond is likely to be high when :
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 21

The correct answer is interest rates are low and expected to remain low.

Key Points Call-Option value:

  • The call-option value of a callable bond represents the additional value of the option to call (redeem) the bond before maturity.
  • The value of the call option is determined by the difference between the market interest rate and the coupon rate of the bond, as well as the remaining time to maturity and the call price.
  • The call-option value of a callable bond is likely to be high when interest rates are falling.
  • The call-option value of a callable bond is likely to be high when interest rates are low. This is because when interest rates decrease, the issuer of the bond has the incentive to call (redeem) the bond and refinance it at a lower interest rate.
  • When interest rates are low, the probability of the bond being called by the issuer increases, and this expectation of early redemption enhances the value of the call option embedded in the bond.
  • This is because when interest rates fall, the value of the callable bond increases due to its higher coupon rate relative to prevailing market rates.
  • As a result, the issuer is more likely to exercise the call option and redeem the bond before maturity to refinance at a lower cost of borrowing.

Hence, the correct answer is interest rates are low and expected to remain low.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 22
Which of the following is a permanent inter-governmental body governing and regulating international trade in goods and services?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 22

WTO (World Trade Organisation) is a permanent inter-governmental body governing and regulating international trade in goods and services. The WTO has the following objectives: 

  • To set and enforce rules for international trade 
  • To provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalisation
  • To resolve trade disputes
  • To increase the transparency of decision-making processes 
  • To cooperate with other major international economic trade-related issues

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 23

Match the following according to the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 23

The correct match is given below-

  • Differential pricing - Low prices for early and evening movies, weekends discounts for car parking rentals.
  • Complimentary service - Customer lounges to sit in while waiting for a table at service centers, etc.
  • Reservation system - Airlines, hotel, physician employ extensively.
  • Non-peak demand cultivation - Breakfast service by McDonald's and mini-vacation and weekends by hotels.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 24

The best measure of dispersion to compare between two colleges/university's result:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 24
Coefficient of variation commonly used to compare the data dispersion between several series of data. A standard deviation's size in proportion to its mean is shown by the coefficient of variation (CV), a relative measure of variability. It is a standardised, unitless measurement that enables comparisons of variability among various groups and traits.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 25

Which of the following relationships is NOT true in a model distribution?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 25
Mean is the average of the data set which is calculated by adding all the data values together and dividing it by the total number of data sets.

Median is the middle value among the observed set of values and is calculated by arranging the values in ascending order or in descending order and then choosing the middle value.

The mode is the number from a data set that has the highest frequency and is calculated by counting the number of times each data value occurs.

In the case of a moderately skewed distribution, i.e. in general, the difference between mean and mode is equal to three times the difference between the mean and median. Thus, the empirical relationship as Mean – Mode = 3 (Mean – Median).

If solved further, Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean and 3 Median = 2 Mean + Mode

Hence 2 Median - 3 Quartile Deviation = 2 Mean is NOT true in a model distribution.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 26

Which of the following is not necessary for promotion from within?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 26

Promotion means elevation of employee status. To promote an employee, his / her personal record, performance evaluation and job posting factors are considered. The employee's efficiency and his / her goals are considered to promote his / her achievement. Advertising is not required for promotion.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 27

Direction: Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Choose which of the following alternatives is correct.

Assertion (A): Family pension is not taxable.

Reason (R): The person who receives the family pension was not an employee but despendent of the employee.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 27

Pension is a retirement benefit and it is taxed as salary in the hands of an employee. Family pension is taxable under the head "Income from other sources" u/s 57(ii) a standard deduction shall be allowed to the legal heir @33.33% of such pension or Rs. 15,000, whichever is less.

The person who receives the family pension was not an employee but the dependent of the employee. People eligible for pension/family pension are the person himself, his/her spouse, children below 25 years of age, and unmarried daughter.

Therefore, statement (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 28
How much loan was provided by World Bank and IMF during the nineties to bail India out of the crisis?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 28
  • Economic crisis is a severe and sudden upset in any part of the economy. It could be a stock market crash, a spike in inflation or unemployment, or a series of bank failures.
  • The IMF oversees the stability of the world's monetary system, while the World Bank's goal is to reduce poverty by offering assistance to middle-income and low-income countries
  • In 1991, India met with an economic crisis relating to its external debt. India approached the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), popularly known as World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF), and received $7 billion as loan to manage the crisis. Therefore Option 3 is the correct answer.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 29
In which of the following types of collective bargaining does one party gain at the expense of the other?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 29
In distributive bargaining, one party gains at the expense of the other. It is also known as win-lose bargaining. In this, it is to decide how to distribute the fixed resources, e.g money.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 30

The estimated requirement of total funds for working capital met from long-run sources is known as:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 (Commerce) - Question 30
The estimated requirement of total funds for working capital met from long-run sources is known as the conservative approach.The conservative approach is a risk-free strategy of working capital financing. A company adopting this strategy maintains a higher level of current assets and therefore higher working capital also.
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