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MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 is part of Civil Engineering (CE) preparation. The MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Civil Engineering (CE) exam syllabus.The MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 MCQs are made for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 below.
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MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

How many elected seats are there in Madhya Pradesh Vidhan Sabha?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

The correct answer is 230.
Explanation

  • The Madhya Pradesh Vidhan Sabha or the Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly is the unicameral state legislature of Madhya Pradesh state in India.
    • The seat of the Vidhan Sabha is at Bhopal, the capital of the state.
    • It is housed in the Vidhan Bhavan, an imposing building located at the center of the Capital Complex in the Arera Hill locality of Bhopal city.
    • The term of the Vidhan Sabha is five years unless dissolved earlier.
    • Presently, it comprises 230 members who are directly elected from single-seat constituencies.

Important Points

  • ​Ravishankar Shukla was the first chief minister (1 November 1956 - 31 December 1956) of Madhya Pradesh state.

Other Related Points

  • Bhagwantrao Mandloi was the second chief minister of MP state and he was elected twice chief minister of state.
  • Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya was the first governor of Madhya Pradesh in India from 1 November 1956 to 13 June 1957.
    • He was a famous Indian independence activist and political leader in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Hari Vinayak Pataskar was the second Governor of Madhya Pradesh.
    • ​He was awarded the second-highest civilian award the Padma Vibhushan.
  • Purushottam Vinayak Dixit was appointed the "first Lokayukta" of Madhya Pradesh state.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

By what name is the summer season in Madhya Pradesh known?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

The correct answer is Unala.
Explanation

  • ​Madhya Pradesh experiences a sub-tropical monsoon climate consisting of three seasons:
    • Summer Season
    • Winter season
    • Rainy Season
  • Madhya Pradesh is divided into 4 climatic regions
    • Northern Plains: An extreme level of summer and winter is experienced in this region.
    • Malwa Plateau: A balanced level of summer and winter is experienced in this region.
    • Vindhya Plateau: The region experiences slightly hot in summer and moderately cold in winters.
    • Narmada Valley: The region experiences extreme summers and moderate winters due to its proximity to the Tropic of Cancer.

Additional Information

  • Madhya Pradesh receives rainfall from the southwest monsoon.
  • The Tropic of Cancer passes through 14 districts of Madhya Pradesh.
    • They are Ratlam, Ujjain, Agar Malwa, Rajgarh, Sehore, Bhopal, Vidisha, Raisen, Sagar, Damoh, Katni, Jabalpur, Umaria, and Shahdol.
  • The Weather Observatory of MP is located at Indore.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Nauradehi Sanctuary is located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Sagar.

  • Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary is the largest wildlife sanctuary in the state of Madhya Pradesh, covering about 1,197 km2.
  • This sanctuary for wildlife is a part of a forested ecosystem of 5500 km2.
  • It is situated at the centre of the state that encompasses parts of Sagar, Damoh, Narsinghpur, and Raisen Districts.
  • In 1975, the forest area became a sanctuary.
  • The protected area sits astride two of India's major river basins, namely the Narmada, which flows west to the Arabian Sea and the Ganges, flowing east to the Bay of Bengal.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

What is a key objective of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) regarding plastic pollution?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

The INC aims to draft a legally binding treaty on plastic pollution by 2024, addressing the entire lifecycle of plastics, from production to disposal. This objective reflects a global commitment to tackling plastic pollution through collaborative international efforts, highlighting the urgency of environmental preservation.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

Chandrashekhar Azad was born in which district of Madhya Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

The correct answer is Jhabua.
Explanation

  • Azad was born in a small Madhya Pradesh village of Bhavra in Jhabua district on July 23, 1906.
  • Young Azad was terribly moved by the Britishers killing thousands of innocent Indians at Jhalianwala Bagh in Punjab.
  • He wholeheartedly plunged into the freedom struggle. He was arrested for his protests against the British rulers.
  • A fearless comrade-in-arms of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev, Azad was killed in an encounter with the Britishers at Alfred Park in Allahabad.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

The correct answer is Sua-Nimar.
Explanation
Sua -Baghelakhand

  • Sua is a traditional dance presented mainly in Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh.
  • This folk dance is prevalent among the Baiga tribe.
  • This dance is performed by Baiga tribe of Baghelakhand at the time of paddy harvesting.
  • It is mainly performed by women and is a dance performed by women on the occasion of Gaura Vivah in October and November.
  • The name Sua means a parrot, hence Sua dance is also called Parrot dance. While dancing sua, women bow their heads and dance like birds. It moves like a parrot.
  • Simultaneously, the women also prepare a wooden parrot and place the parrot on an earthen pot covered with paddy sprouts. A girl carries a pot over her head and dances in the middle. This wood is the only instrument used for sua dancing.

Other Related Points
Swang-Bundelkhand

  • ​It incorporates suitable theatrics and mimicry, accompanied alternately by song and dialogue.

Maach-Malwa

  • Maach is a form of folk theatre from the Malwa region of the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
  • In Madhya Pradesh, Maach is said to have been introduced by Gopalji Guru who himself authored several Maach plays.
  • Maach derives its name from the Hindi word manch which means a stage.
  • It is a sung folk theatre that has a semi sacred character, blending religious and secular themes within it.
  • Many of the themes are historical, borrowing from local legends and tales of warriors and rulers but they also borrow from the Puranas and the Hindu epics of Mahabharata and Ramayana.

Rai-Bundelkhand

  • ​It is the traditional dance form of 'Beria tribe'.
  • This dance is performed in the group with a signle female dancer in the center of all dancers.
  • this dance is to celebrate the beauty of womanhood.
  • The dancer at the center is called Bedni. On the break from dance, swang is performed which highlights the social evils.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 7
In which Article of the Constitution, the function of the Council of Ministers is said to "Assistance and Advise" the Governor?
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

The correct answer is Article - 163.

Explanation

  • Article 163 states that there shall be a council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion.

Other Related Points

  • Article 162 states that the powers of the State executive extend to those matters upon which the State has the power or the authority to legislate/make laws
  • Article 164 states that The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
  • Article 165 states that The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate General for the State
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Which of the following activities does not require resources for its execution?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Concepts:
An activity that neither requires time nor any other resources are called dummy activity or artificial activity. It is represented by a dotted line in a network. These are required in any network to establish the grammatical and logical relationship between different activities.
Purpose of Dummy Activity:
Dummy activity is used to establish the uniqueness in the network i.e. if two or more activities start from a single node and terminate to the same node then dummies are used to establish the grammatical relationship between these two activities.
Refer to the following figure:

In Fig 1- Activity A and B are starting from node 1 and terminate A dummy to same node 2 which violates the network rules. To correct this, we introduced a dummy activity between node 2 and node 3 (see fig 2).

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Web crippling in I section steel beams occurs at the points where:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Explanation:
Crippling is just like buckling and it happens in the web of a beam when it is being compressed. It often occurs at the supports of a beam, where the bottom flange is resting on a support, and the top flange is holding up the load, such as on a bridge abutment.
In this case of a beam,
the reaction at support developed due to high concentrated point load on the beam leads to the development of high compressive stresses in the thin web close to the upper flange or lower flange. As a result of this, the thin web may develop a fold at a place close to the flange.

Note:

  1. Web crippling results in stress concentration and bearing failure.
  2. It is analyzed by considering load dispersion at a slope of 1 : 2.5
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

The type of road pattern adopted by city roads of Chandigarh is:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

Explanation:
The various road patterns may be classified as follows:
(a) Rectangular or block pattern
(b) Radial or star and block pattern
(c) Radial or star and circular pattern
(d) Radial or star and grid pattern
(e) Hexagonal pattern


Important points:
(i) The rectangular or block pattern has been adopted in the city roads of Chandigarh
(ii) Radial and circular pattern is the road network of Cannaught Place in New Delhi

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 11
Choose the CORRECT statement for the reception signal.
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

Concept:

Classification of the signal based on location characteristics:

(1) Reception signal:

Signals which control the reception of trains into a station.

These signals are related to the station section (station section is that section that comes under the direct control of that station and it is this particular section in which trains remain stationed at that platform).

Here, also we have two types of signals:

  • Outer signal
  • Home signal

​Outer signal:

The outer signal is the first stop signal before the train enters from the block section to the station section.

Home signal:

The home signal is just provided at the door of the station (signal just before reaching the platform).

(2) Departure signal:

When the train standing on the platform and has to depart, at that location the signal provided to dispatch the train from the station is known as the departure signal.

Departure signals can be subdivided into two types:

  • Starter signal
  • Advance signal

(3) Routing signals:

It is a group of semaphore signals placed at the facing point of a cone or a number of turnouts.

(4) Shunting signal:

Used for shunting operations (It is the slow operations which take place in station yard) in station yards.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 12
Which grade of concrete should be used when reinforced concrete is exposed to rain or remain continuously under water?
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

Concept:

As per IS 456:2000; CL 8.2.8; Concrete in sea-water or exposed directly along the sea-coast shall be at least M 20 Grade in the case of plain concrete and M30 in case of reinforced concrete. The use of slag or Pozzolana cement is advantageous under such conditions.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Calculate the value of minimum edge distance for 20 mm diameter bolt using machine flame cut.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Concept:
Specification for the pitch of bolts or rivets
1. Minimum pitch and minimum gauge length

  • P = 2.5 × nominal diameter of the bolt

2. Minimum end and edge distance

  • emin = 1.5 × diameter of the bolt hole ....... (for machine cut element)
  • emin = 1.7 × diameter of the bolt hole ....... (for hand-cut element)

Calculation:
Given,
Diameter of bolt = 20 mm,
as the bolt diameter is in the range of (16 - 24) mm
Hole Dia = Bolt dia + 2 mm = 20 + 2 = 22 mm

Minimum edge Distance for machine flame cut = 1.5 × 22 = 33 mm.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

The minimum area of tension reinforcement shall be not less than ______ for design of beam.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

Explanation:

Tension reinforcement (As per IS 456: 2000, clause 26.5.1.1):

The minimum area of tension reinforcement should be governed by

where As = minimum area of tension reinforcement,

b = breadth of rectangular beam or breadth of web of T-beam,

d = effective depth of beam,

fy = characteristic strength of reinforcement in N/mm2

The maximum area of tension reinforcement shall not exceed 0.04 bD,

where D is the overall depth of the beam.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 15
An open tank contains 1m deep water with 50cm depth of oil of specific gravity 0.8 above it. The intensity of pressure at the bottom of the tank
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

Explanation:

The pressure at the bottom of the tank is given by:

P = ρoil × g × hoil + ρwater × g × hwater

ρ = density of oil of specific gravity “s”, where s = ρoilwater

ρw = 1000 kg/m3, ρoil = 1000 x 0.8 = 800 kg/m3

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s2

hwater = depth of water in an open tank = 1 m

hoil = depth of oil in an open tank = 50 cm = 0.5 m

Hence, The pressure at the bottom of the tank is

P = 800 × 9.81 × 0.5 + 1000 × 9.81 × 1 = 13.73 kN/m2

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

The critical shear plane will have an angle of ______ with reference to the major principal plane.

where ϕ is the angle of shearing resistance

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

Concept:

  • The failure plane is one at which the angle of obliquity is maximum.
  • Failure shear stress is one at which the difference between shear stress and shear strength is minimum.

θc = Angle of the critical plane to the major principal plane

where, βmax = Angle between resultant stress and normal stress on critical plane = Friction angle of soil = ϕ

Hence,

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

The correct sequence of the parts of a canal system is

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

Explanation:
A typical layout of a canal irrigation system is shown below:
Headwork ⇒ Main Canal ⇒ Major Branch Canal ⇒ Minot Branch Canal ⇒ Major Distributaries ⇒ Minor Canal ⇒ Water Course or field Channels

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

What is the maximum cant deficiency for a M.G Track?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

Concept:
The maximum cant deficiency permitted for BG track for Speed ≤ 100 km/hr is 7.6 cm or 76 mm.
The actual cant provided on a railway track is based on the average speed of trains. However, in the case of high-speed trains, cant requirement will be more than the actual value of cant provided so that train will be forced to move on a lower value of cant then maximum cant is required for high-speed train. This deficiency in cant for high speed trains is called the cant deficiency.
The maximum permissible limit of cant deficiency is given below in tabulated form different type of railway gauges:

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Deflections can be controlled by using the appropriate:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Concept:
Control of Deflection:
The deflection of a structure or part thereof shall not adversely affect the appearance or efficiency of the structure or finishes or partitions. The deflection shall generally be limited to the following:
a) The final deflection due to all loads including the effects of temperature, creep, and shrinkage and measured from the as-cast level of the supports of floors, roofs, and all other horizontal members, should not normally exceed span/250.
b) The deflection including the effects of temperature, creep and shrinkage occurring after the erection of partitions and the application of finishes should not normally exceed span/350 or 20 mm whichever is less.
The vertical deflection limits may generally be assumed to be satisfied provided that the span to depth ratios are not greater than the values obtained as below:
Basic values of span to effective depth ratios for spans up to 10 m:

For spans above 10 m, the values are multiplied by 10/span in meters, except for the cantilever in which case deflection calculations should be made.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

The following should be arranged in ascending order based on their safety factor in the working stress method:
(i) Connections, (ii) Short column, (iii) Long column, (iv) Tension members

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

Explanation:
Working stress method:

  • Working stress method is used for the design of Reinforced concrete, Steel, and Timber Structures.
  • The main assumption in the WSM is that the behavior of structural material is restricted within the linear-elastic region and the safety of it is ensured by restricting the stresses coming on the members by working loads.
  • It assumes that both steel and concrete are elastic and obey hook's law.
  • FOS for concrete is taken as 3 and for steel, it is 1.8

So, from the above table, the sequence of FOS will be
Short column = Tension member < Long column < Connection
Other Related Points
Drawbacks of WSM:

  • It assumes the concrete is elastic which is not true.
  • It uses a factor of safety for stresses only and not for loads.
  • It gives uneconomical sections.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

For the following stream function calculate velocity at a point (1, 2)

1) ψ = 4xy

2) ψ = 3x2y - y3

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

Concept:

Stream Function:

It is defined as the scalar function of space and time, such that its partial derivative with respect to any direction gives the velocity component at right angles to that direction.

It is denoted by ψ and defined only for two-dimensional flow.

Properties of Stream function:

  • If stream function exists, it is a possible case of fluid flow which may be rotational or irrotational
  • If the stream function satisfies the Laplace equation i.e. , it is a case of irrotational flow

Calculation:

Let u and v are horizontal and vertical components of fluid velocity.

Given that,

1) ψ = 4xy

We know that:

And

Velocity, = ui + vj

= (-4x) i + (4y) j

Velocity at point (1, 2) i.e. at x = 1 and y = 2 is:

= - 4i + 8j

Or

Given that,

2) ψ = 3x2y - y3

And

Velocity, = ui + vj

v = (-3x2 + 3y2)i + (6xy)j

Velocity at point (1, 2) i.e. at x = 1 and y = 2 is:

v = -9i + 12j

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

From the below given, identify the softest grade and hardest grade of bitumen.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

Concept:
Grade of bitumen is based on

A. Penetration value

  • Penetration value is calculated by measuring the penetration of a standard needle consisting of 100gm weight in the bitumen sample at 25°C for 5 seconds. The greater the penetration value, the softer will be the bitumen. E.g. 80/100 where the penetration value is between 8 to 10 mm.

B. Viscosity

  • Based on viscosity, gradings are VG30, VG20, and VG10. Where VG stands for “Viscosity Grading” and the numeric value denotes absolute viscosity at 60°C and kinematic viscosity at 135°C.

VG10 - Softest Grade
VG40 - Hardest Grade

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 23
Which of the following treatments reduces the salinity of water?

a. Alum coagulation, flocculation, and settling

b. Carbon filtration

c. Reverse osmosis

d. Electrolysis

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Explanation:

Conventional methods of water treatment ( Sedimentation, filtration ) don't materially change the mineral content of water. So, various methods are used to reduce the salinity of the water.

1) Freezing :

  • Water is transposed from saline water to the solid phase as ice. The ice crystals formed constitute essentially pure water.

2) Reverse osmosis :

  • A membrane permeation process for separating relatively pure water from a less pure solution.
  • For this saline water is passed through a semi-permeable membrane under pressure

3) Electrolysis :

  • Unaided osmosis is a slow process hence it is combined with electrolysis.
  • Application of an external electromotive force can draw the ions away from the salt solution and towards the electrodes to remove the salt of the solution.

Note: Alum coagulation, flocculation comes under sedimentation and carbon filtration is a technique used for filtration of water, and as discussed above, sedimentation and filtration are not enough for removing salts from the water.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 24
According to IS 800: 2007, the main function of diagonal stiffener in a plate girder is
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Explanation:

The main purpose of stiffener in a plate girder is to prevent buckling of web. In which different type of stiffeners are used

According to IS 800: 2007, different type of stiffeners are:

1) Intermediate transverse stiffener:

To improve the buckling strength of slender web due to shear

2) Load carrying stiffener:

To prevent local buckling of the web due to concentrated loading

3) Bearing stiffener:

To prevent local crushing of the web due to concentrated loading

4) Torsion stiffener:

To provide torsional restrained to beams and girders at supports

5) Diagonal stiffeners:

To provide local reinforcement to web under shear and bending

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

In a sedimentation tank, the surface overflow rate is 0.4 mm/s and the settling velocity of a discrete particle of diameter d is 0.1 mm/s. But if the size of the particle is increased to 2d keeping other factors constant. Then find the % removal of the particle?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

Concept:

We know from stokes law settling velocity formula is given as

Where, Vs is the settling velocity of particles,

g is the acceleration due to gravity,

G is the specific gravity of inorganic material,

ν is the kinematic viscosity,

d is the diameter of the particle.

Where μ is the dynamic viscosity of a fluid.

ρ is the density of the fluid.

Where

Vs is the settling velocity of the particle

Vo is surface overflow rate

Calculation:

Given,

Vo = 0.4 mm/s

Vs1 = 0.1 mm/s

d1 = d

d2 = 2d

Note:

From the above formula,

Vs2 = 0.4 mm/s

Vo = 0.4 mm/s

Since, efficiency is 100 %, it means 100 % removal of particles take place.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

In horizontal curves of Railway Tracks, Negative Super elevation means:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

Cant or Superelevation: It is the amount by which one rail is raised above the other rail.
It is positive when the outer rail on a curved track is raised above inner rail and is negative when the inner rail on a curved track is raised above the outer rail.
Other Important Terms:

  • Cant deficiency: Cant deficiency occurs when a train travels around a curve at a speed higher than the equilibrium speed. It is the difference between the theoretical cant required for such higher speed and actual cant provided.
  • Cant excess: Cant excess occurs when a train travels around a curve at a speed lower than the equilibrium speed. It is the difference between the actual cant and the theoretical cant required for such a lower speed.
  • Cant gradient and cant deficiency gradient: It indicates the amount by which cant or deficiency of cant is increased or reduced in a given length of transition e.g. 1 in 1000 means that cant or deficiency of cant of 1 mm is gained or lost in every 1000 mm of transition length.
  • Rate of change of cant or Rate of change of cant deficiency: It is the rate at which cant or cant deficiency is increased or reduced per second, at the maximum permissible speed of the vehicle passing over the transition curve, e.g. 35 mm per second means that a vehicle when traveling at a maximum speed permitted will experience a change in cant or deficiency of cant of 35 mm in each second of travel over the transition.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 27
Four rain-gauge stations A, B, C and D in a catchment area have recorded 20, 25, 22 and 15 cm respectively. If their Thiessen weights are 0.3, 0.4, 0.1 and 0.2, then what is the average depth of rainfall on the catchment?
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

Concept:

Thiessen polygon method:

In this method, the rainfall recorded at each station is given a weightage on the basis of the area closest to the station. The average precipitation over the catchment area is given as,

Where is called the weightage factor

Calculation:

Given,

PA = 20, PB = 25 cm, PC = 22 cm, PD = 15 cm

Pavg = ?

Weightage factor for station A, B, C and D is given, 0.3, 0.4, 0.1 and 0.2

∵ We know, The average rainfall

Pavg = 21.2 cm

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 28
The steepest gradient on a 2° curve on a Broad Gauge line with a stipulated ruling gradient of 1 in 200, given that grade compensation is 0.04% per degree of curve, is
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

Concept:

The ruling gradient is the maximum gradient on a particular section, but if a curve lies on a ruling gradient, the resistance due to gradient is increased by that due to curvature and this further increases the resistance beyond the ruling gradient.

In order to avoid resistances beyond the allowable limits, the gradients are reduced on curves and this reduction in known as the grade compensation for the curve.

Calculation:

Given gradient = 1 in 200 = 1 / 200

Degree of curve = 2°

Grande compensation = -0.04% per degree of curve.

Grrade provided = Ruling rradient – grande compensation

=
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

A sample of silty clay has a volume of 14.88 cm3, a total mass of 28.81 gm, a dry mass of 24.83 gm and a specific gravity of solids 2.7. What is the void ratio ?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

Explanation:
Given,
Volume = 14.88 cm3, Total Mass = 28.82 gm, Dry mass = 24.83 gm

Specific Gravity G = 2.70,

Bulk density

γb = 28.82/14.88 = 1.93 gm/cc

Dry density,

Water content formula is given by:
w = Ww/Ws

where,

w = Water content, Ww = Weight of water, Ws = Weight of solids

Water content,

= 16.02%

⇒ e = 0.623

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 30
The result of ring and ball test on bitumen is given in terms of
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

Concept:

The softening point of bitumen:

Softening point denotes the temperature at which the bitumen attains a particular degree of softening under the specifications of the test.

The test is conducted by using Ring and Ball apparatus.

A brass ring containing a test sample of bitumen is suspended in liquid like water or glycerin at a given temperature.

A steel ball is placed upon the bitumen sample and the liquid medium is heated at a rate of 5°C per minute.

Temperature is noted when the softened bitumen touches the metal plate which is at a specified distance below.

Generally, a higher softening point indicates lower temperature susceptibility and is preferred in hot climates.

Other Related Points
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