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MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 is part of Civil Engineering (CE) preparation. The MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Civil Engineering (CE) exam syllabus.The MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 MCQs are made for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 below.
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MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

Average literacy rate of Madhya Pradesh according to 2011 census was

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

The correct answer is 69.32%.
Literacy Rate:

  • The literacy rate is defined by the percentage of the population of a given age group that can read and write.
  • In Madhya Pradesh as per Census 2011, the average literacy was 69.32%.

Explanation

  • Kerala has the highest Literacy rate while Bihar has the Lowest Literacy rate.
  • Kerala has the highest female literacy rate but Lakshadweep has the highest male literacy rate (95.56 %).

Important Points
Literacy rates as per Census 2011:

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

50% reservation for women Panchayati Raj Institutions is legalized in certain states such as:
I. Bihar
II. Uttarakhand
III. Madhya Pradesh
IV. Himachal Pradesh

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

The correct answer is I, II, III, and IV.
Explanation

  • Among the States that already follow reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) are the state Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, and Himachal Pradesh.
  • Article 243-D of the constitution provides for reservation in the Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • Panchayati Raj Institutions were constitutionalised by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment act of 1992.
  • L.M. Singhvi committee is credited for recommending constitutional status for PRIs.

Other Related Points

  • Some important articles of the constitution associated with PRIs include-
    • 243 - Definition
    • 243A - Gram Sabha
    • 243I - State Finance Commission
    • 243K - State Election Commission
    • 243G - Power, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayats.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

What is the latitudinal spread of the state of Madhya Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

The correct answer is 21.2°N–26.87°N

  • The latitudinal spread of the state of Madhya Pradesh is 21.2°N–26.87°N.

Explanation

  • The Tropic of Cancer passes through 14 districts of M.P, namely Ratlam, Ujjain, Agar Malwa, Rajgarh, Sehore, Bhopal, Vidisha, Raisen, Sagar, Damoh, Katni, Jabalpur, Umaria, and Shahdol.
  • It is responsible for the harsh climate that the region of Madhya Pradesh is known for.
  • Madhya Pradesh means "Central Province", and is located in the geographic heart of India.

Other Related Points

  • There is a total of 12 National Parks and 7 Tiger reserves in MP which include Kanha, Bandhavgarh, Satpura, Sanjay, Panna, and Pench National parks.
  • Betwa river is known as the Ganga of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Betwa river originates from Kumhara village of Raisen.
  • Ganga, Godavari, Tapti, Narmada, and Mahi are the major river basins fed by the state.
  • The State is further divided into ten river sub-basins. These are: 1) Chambal; 2) Sindh; 3) Betwa; 4) Ken; 5) Tons (Tamsa); 6) Son; 7) Narmada; 8) Wainganga; 9) Tapti; and 10) Mahi.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

From which state does the 'Madhubani' folk-art style originate?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Madhubani folk art is the traditional art of Bihar.
Explanation
Madhubani painting:

  • Mithila painting, popularly known as Madhubani art.
  • It is from the district of the same name in Bihar and is now well-known all over the world.
  • The colours used in Madhubani paintings are usually derived from plants and other natural sources.
  • Women usually paint their homes to celebrate festivals and the theme of the painting can be varied from nature to myths.
  • Women decorate the nuptial chamber and the inner walls of their homes to celebrate festivals.
  • The return of Ram from exile and Krishna playing with gopis are the preferred subject matter.
  • Artists often show scenes of nature, an abundant harvest, tantric images of snake worship, and even city scenes if they have visited one.
  • The United Nations in India decided to display Indian folk paintings for the eighth Millennium Development Goals program.
  • For which Madhubani artists Satya Narain and Moti Karn created a beautiful expression of prevention of child mortality.
  • They showed it by showing how elephants and other animals protect their young ones.

Other Related Points

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Which sector is NOT mentioned as being affected by the U.S. tariffs on Indian imports?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

The provided information specifies that garments, precious stones, and auto parts are among the sectors affected by the U.S. tariffs, facing competition from countries like Vietnam and South Korea. Pharmaceuticals are not mentioned as an impacted sector in this context.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

What is collusive litigation, and why is it a concern for the judicial system?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Collusive litigation refers to lawsuits where the parties collaborate rather than genuinely contest each other, aiming to manipulate judicial outcomes. This practice raises concerns about the integrity of the judicial process, as it undermines the adversarial system that is essential for fair and just legal proceedings.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Which soil is famous in Madhya Pradesh for agriculture?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

The correct answer is Black Soil.

  • Black soil is famous in Madhya Pradesh for agriculture.
    • Black soil is composed of Basaltic rocks mainly found in the Deccan Trap (Malwa Plateau).
    • It is distributed in nearly 47.6% of the land of Madhya Pradesh. Such soils mainly consist of Iron and lime rocks.
    • Black soils are also called Cotton soils or Regur Soils.
    • These soils are mainly found in the Deccan lava tract which includes the states of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat.

Other Related Points

 

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Orchha Fort complex is located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

The correct answer is Niwari.

  • The Orchha Fort complex is located in the Niwari district.
  • The fort complex was constructed by King Rudra Pratap Singh of the Bundela Rajput dynasty in the 16th century AD.
  • It houses a large number of ancient monuments consisting of the fort, palaces, temple, and other edifices.

Explanation

  • The fort complex is within an island formed by the confluence of the Betwa River and Jamni River in Orchha town.
  • The palaces, temples, etc. were constructed by successive kings.
  • Given below is the list of all monuments located in the fort complex:
    • Raja Mahal
    • Sheesh Mahal
    • Jahangir Mahal
    • Phool Bagh

Other Related Points

  • Orchha (or Urchha) is a town in the Niwari district of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Rudra Pratap Singh established the town in 1531.
  • The town lies on the bank of the Betwa river.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Which of the following chemical compounds causes biomagnification?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Explanation

  • Biomagnification is the accumulation of the increasing amount ​ of non-degradable pollutants through the food chain i.e., the concentration of toxicants increases at successive trophic levels.
  • It is caused because a toxic substance accumulated in an organism cannot be metabolized or excreted out.
  • It can only be passed on to the next trophic level, in which the concentration of the toxicant increases.
  • It is observed in aquatic food chains.
  • An aquatic food chain can be represented as:

Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small Fish → Large Fish → Fish-eating birds

  • Phytoplanktons are the producers in the food chain, which are eaten by the zooplanktons and successively by fishes and then fish-eating birds.
  • Biomagnification is a well-known phenomenon for toxicants like mercury and DDT, which get released into water bodies.
  • If we take the example of DDT, it starts with 0.003 ppb (parts per billion) in water.
  • Its concentration is found to increase to 0.04 ppm (parts per million) in zooplanktons.
  • It keeps increasing in successive trophic levels and we can find up to 25 ppm of DDT in the fish-eating birds.
  • Such high concentrations of DDT disturbs the calcium metabolism in birds.
  • It may cause thinning of eggshell and premature breaking of eggs, which eventually leads to decline in bird populations.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Mandana is the Folk painting of

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

The correct answer is Malwa.
Key Points

  • Mandana is the most popular art form in the Malwa region which is mostly drawn during the Deepawali festival or some other occasions.
    • It is drawn on the floor with white chalk and geru (brown powdered earth).
    • The floor is Kuccha polished with cow dung and yellow mud.

Important Points

  • Bundelkhand Art: Most famous art of Bundelkhand is Floor Painting.
    • It is a kind of dry painting also known as Rangoli.
  • Baghelkhand Art: In Baghalkhand art along with the floor and wall Paintings, engraved wall paintings are also done.
    • Kohbar is drawn on the marriage ceremony.
  • Nimar Art: The painting of this region are pre-historic in nature as the worship of eye-shaped figures 'Jirauti'.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 11
Which of the following sources has the highest proportion of irrigation in Madhya Pradesh?
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

The correct answer is Wells-tubewells.

Explanation

  • Wells-tubewells have the highest proportion of irrigation in Madhya Pradesh.
  • About 2/3rd part of the state is irrigated through wells, hand pumps and borewells.
  • Wells and tube wells are the major sources of irrigation.
  • As per the Economic Survey of 2017-18, around 66.48% area of net irrigated sown is irrigated through wells and tube wells.
  • Wells and tube wells are the most popular sources of irrigation in the Western districts.
  • The highest irrigated area through wells is the Mandsaur district.
    • Highest irrigated area through tube wells is the Indore district.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

What is one of the key features of the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2024?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

The Coastal Shipping Bill, 2024 aims to modernize and streamline India's coastal trade by providing a dedicated legal framework, which is critical for reducing logistics costs and promoting sustainable transportation. This represents a legislative reform to enhance the efficiency of maritime operations.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 13
The lowest population density district of Madhya Pradesh is
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

The correct answer is Dindori.

Explanation

  • The lowest population density district of Madhya Pradesh is Dindori (94).
  • Bhopal (855) has the highest population density in Madhya Pradesh.

Other Related Points

  • The lowest population is in the Harda district
  • Most populous division is Indore.
  • Shahdol is the least populous division.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Which instrument is used for measurement of odour of water?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Concept:
The odour of Water:

Taste and odour in water are determined by diluting the raw water sample up to an extent taste and odour in water is hardly detectable.
The intensity of taste and odour in water is expressed in terms of a unit called Threshold Odour Number (TON), which signifies the dilution ratio at which taste and odour are hardly detectable.
It is measured in the apparatus called Osmoscope.
Note:

  1. Acceptable limit: 1 TON.
  2. Cause of Rejection Limit: 3 TON.
  3. Sources for taste and odour in water: Inorganic salts like Na, Ca, Mg etc, Organic dissolved impurities, dissolved gases like H2S, CO2.

Explanation:
Olfactometers:
It is used to determine an odour measurement; concentration, intensity, and hedonic tone. This is achieved by diluting a sample with odour-neutral air, which is then presented to a panel.
The odour characteristic is used for classifying the odour of a given water sample as per IS 3025 (part-5) 1983 as follows:
1. Degrees of sweetness
2. Degrees of pungency
3. Degrees of smokiness
4. Degrees of Rottenness

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

The shear strength of concrete depends on:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Concept:
The design shear stress (τc) in reinforced cement concrete depends on

  1. Characteristic strength of concrete.
  2.  Percentage of steel Reinforcement.

Whereas, the maximum shear strength (τmax) of reinforced cement concrete depends on the grade of concrete only.
As per IS code, Stipulates the maximum shear stress of reinforced concrete in beams τcmax as given below in Table. Under no circumstances, the nominal shear stress in beams τv shall exceed τcmax given in the table for different grades of concrete.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 16
If strength of joint per pitch length is equal to 2556 kg and original strength of plate per pitch length is 4260 kg, joint efficiency will be
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Concept:

Joint efficiency:

It is the ratio of the strength of the joint per pitch length to the original strength of plate per pitch length.

Calculation:

Given data

The strength of the joint per pitch length = 2556 kg

The original strength of the joint per pitch length = 4260 kg

So, the joint efficiency is

= 60%

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Which of the following best defines “Negative Stock”?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Explanation:
Negative stock/inventory:

  • The warehouse has negative inventory/slack for an item if the issued quantity is larger than the quantity in inventory.
  • Negative inventory/stocks refers to the situation which occurs when an inventory count suggests that there is less than zero of the item or items in question.
  • Consequently, the inventory levels of the item are below zero and there will be chances of delay of project due to non availability of resources and the project can run behind schedule.

The type of negative inventories are as follows:
1) Timing

  • This is probably the most common occurrence when looking into what is negative inventory.
  • An example of a timing issue could be that a customer places an order for a product that’s out of stock, but you go ahead and mark the order as shipped because you know that production for the product will be wrapping up soon.
  • This issue is probably the easiest to fix because once production is complete, you can make the necessary inventory adjustments.

2) Production

  • During manufacturing, you need to take into account byproducts, scrap amounts, production statistics, and batch numbers.
  • Misunderstanding your manufacturing orders or accidentally creating a duplicate can lead to manufacturing either not enough or too many products.

3) Inventory at multiple location

  • A negative balance can also occur when the same types of inventory are located in different warehouses.
  • A negative balance can easily occur here when an order is made for goods from the wrong location, resulting in inaccurate inventory records.
  • This is called a location-level negative balance.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Select which is not the reason to provide extrawidening:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Explanation
Extra Widening:
The extra width of carriageway that is required on a curved section of a road over and above that is required on a straight alignment is known as Extra Widening.
Extra widening of road is given by,

We = Wm + Wps

Where,
Wm = Mechanical widening, Wps = Psychological widening, n = number of lanes, l = length of wheelbase, R = Radius of curve, V = Velocity of vehicle (in kmph)
Note:
Reasons to provide extra widening are:

(i) To avoid off tracking due to rigidity of wheelbase
(ii) To counteract transverse skidding
(iii) To increase the visibility at curves
(iv) To encounter psychological tendency while overtaking operation
Important Point
IRC recommended values of extra widening for single and two-lane pavement are given below:
1) If R > 300 m, then extra widening is not provided.
2) If R < 50 m, Then extra widening is provided at the inner edge.
3) If 50 < R < 300 m, then extra widening is provided at both edges.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

For long span such as 800 m, which type of bridge is provided?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Explanation:
Different dimensions of the bridge:
(i) Width of bridges:
It is based on the traffic survey. It may be a single lane or double lane with a pedestrian platform on only one side or on both sides.
(ii) Length of bridge: It depends upon the waterway.
(iii) Span of the bridge: It depends upon the type of superstructure proposed.

  • Masonry arch: 3 to 15 m
  • Slab bridges: Up to 9 m
  • Girder and beams: 10 to 60 m
  • Truss bridges: 30 to 375 m with simply supported ends
  • Suspension bridges: 300 m to 2300 m
  • Cable-stayed bridges: 150 m to 600 m

(iv) Height of the bridge is generally 1.2 to 1.5 meters above the high flood level of the given region.
Confusion Points
The above data for the span of different types of bridges is variable with daily innovations and modern technologies.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

As per recommendations of Indian standards, the shape of lined canal is

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Explanation:
Canal Lining:

  • Canal Lining is an impermeable layer provided for the bed and sides of the canal to improve the life and discharge capacity of the canal.
  • 60 to 80% of water lost through seepage in an unlined canal can be saved by constructing canal lining.
  • The loss is more in the unlined canal as compared to the lined canal.
  • As per the recommendation of the Bureau of Indian Standard, The shape of the lined canal is Trapezoidal.

Advantage of the lining of the canal:

  • Prevents seepage loss and hence more area can be employed for irrigation.
  • Helps in the prevention of water logging.
  • Increased velocity in a canal prevents silting of the canal.

Disadvantage of lining canal:

  • It requires a heavy initial investment.
  • It is difficult to repair initial investment.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

When is a masonry wall known as a shear wall?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Explanation:

Shear wall

  • A wall that carries horizontal loads in its own plane is called a shear wall.
  • In structural engineering, a shear wall is a structural system composed of braced panels (also known as shear panels) to counter the effects of lateral load acting on a structure.
  • Wind and seismic loads are the most common loads that shear walls are designed to carry.

Note:

A masonry wall is known as a shear wall if it is placed as in fill to the frame.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Bearings are provided in the bridges to

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Bridge bearings function:
Bridge bearings are used to transfer forces from the superstructure to the substructure.
This transfer of load allows the following types of movements of the superstructure:
(a) Translation movements

  • Displacements in vertical and horizontal directions.

(b) Rotational movements

  • Cause due to moments.
  • Allow free movement of girders due to temperature variations (contractions and expansion).
  • Prevent excessive damage to the bridge if any pier sinks slightly.
  • It is located between the substructure and superstructure of bridge

The types of bridge bearings used are as follows:

  1. Pin
  2. Roller
  3. Rocker
  4. Metal sliding bearings
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

What is the minimum time period required for soffit formworks to slabs when props are to be refixed?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Explanation:

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 24
In roof trusses, the most frequently used section is:
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Explanation:

Use of angle section in truss:

  • Angle sections are more resistant to buckling than plate sections. Connections between angles are simple, and fabricated with ease, whether they’re bolted or welded.
  • Angles offer a wide range of variety as you can use them singly, back to back and star shaped.
  • It is quite possible for a truss to experience ever changing loading in terms of both magnitude and directions. Under any given loading condition, a set of truss members remain in compression while others remain in tension.
  • For one loading condition, a group of truss members remain loaded in compression while for a different loading condition, a different set of truss members remain loaded in compression.
  • Although plate members perform very efficiently in tension, but they perform poorly under compression as they buckle under insignificant load (reason: very small radius of gyration).
  • So, in place of plate members angle section members are used which can significantly resist buckling in comparison to their plate counterparts. (reason: large radius of gyration).
  • For the above two reasons, angle sections are used in steel trusses so that when applied load reverses its direction and causes the tension members turn into compression members, the new set of compresses members don’t fail by buckling and cause catastrophic failure of the structure.

Four angle sections are used in Compression members.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Floating gradient is:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Explanation:
Floating gradient:
(i) The gradient on which a motor vehicle moving with a constant speed continues to descend with the same speed without any application of power brakes is called floating gradient i.e the vehicle does not require any tractive effort to maintain the specific speed.
Other Related Points
Ruling gradient:
(i) The gradient usually adopted while making the road alignment is called the ruling gradient.
(ii) It is the maximum gradient within which the designer attempts to design the vertical profile of a road. It is also known as design gradient.
(iii) As per IRC, the recommended value of ruling gradient for plain or rolling terrain is 1 in 30 or 3.3 %.]
Limiting gradient:
(i) The gradient steeper than the ruling gradient, which may be used for a limited Road length, is called limiting gradient or maximum gradient.
(ii) It is used where the topography of place compels adopting a steeper gradient than the ruling gradient to minimize the cost of road construction.

Exceptional gradient:
(i) The gradient steeper than the limiting gradient which may be used in a short length of the road, only in an extraordinary situation is called exponential gradient.
(ii) This type of gradient is adopted only in a very difficult situation and for a short length not exceeding 100 m at a stretch.
(iii) As per IRC, the recommended value of Exceptional gradient for plain or rolling terrain is 1 in 15 or 6.7 %.
Minimum gradient:
(i) The minimum desirable slope essential for effective drainage of rainwater from the road surface is called minimum gradient.
(ii) The desirable minimum gradient for this purpose is 0.5 % if the side drains are lined and 1 % if the side drains are unlined.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Identify the option which holds true in the case of the depth of the neutral axis of a doubly reinforced beam.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Explanation:
Critical depth of neutral axis:
The term critical neutral axis is used to represent the depth of the neutral axis in a balanced section where the concrete and steel both attain their
maximum permissible stress at the same time.
As per IS 456:2000, xulim is depend upon the grade of steel:

Types of section

  1. Balance section: A balanced section is that in which stress in concrete and steel reach their permissible value at the same time.
  2. Under-reinforced section: Reinforced concrete beam sections in which the steel reaches yield strain at loads lower than the load at which the concrete reaches failure strain are called under-reinforced sections. Every singly reinforced beam should be designed as under-reinforced sections because this section gives enough warning before failure.
  3. Over-reinforced section: Reinforced concrete beam sections in which the failure strain in concrete is reached earlier than the yield strain of steel is reached are called over-reinforced beam sections.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

Which of the following tests are conducted to determine the undrained strength of the clayey soil?

1. Unconfined Compression test

2. Vane shear test

3. Consolidated drained Test

4. Slow direct shear test
Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

UC (Unconfined Compression) test: This is an undrained test which is widely applicable on soils with ϕu = 0 i.e. fully saturated non fissured clays.

Vane shear test: This is used for determining the shearing resistance of soft, saturated clay deposits. It gives undrained shear strength of the soil.

Consolidated drained Test: This is recommended for cohesionless soils.

Unconsolidated undrained Test: This is suitable for cohesive soil.

Direct Shear Test: It is recommended for cohesionless soil.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Three rolled steel beam ISWB 300 as shown in the figure are used as built-up sections for columns having Ixx = 9821.6 × 104 mm4 and Iyy = 990 × 104 mm4. The moment of inertia of the combined section Ixx is given as:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Explanation:
Let the I-section be named as I1, I2 and I3 as per the given figure.

The Ixx value of I1 and I3 will lie on same plane/axis for the combined Ixx as shown in the figure.
Similarly, Iyy of I2 will lie on same plan/axis for the combined Ixx as shown in the figure.
Thus combined Ixx for the three rolled steel beam will be:
IXX = (Ixx)1 + (Ixx)3 + (Iyy)2
IXX = (9821.6 × 10
4 + 9821.6 × 104 + 990 × 104) = 20633.2 × 104 mm4 = 206.33 × 106 mm4.

MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

BOT contract means

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Explanation:
BOT/BOOT:

  • Build operate transfer/ Build own operate transfer is the type of contract usually done by a government organization with private player.
  • In this, private company builds the project, owns it for some predefined time, and later hands it to the government.

Other Related Points
Cost-plus percentage contract:

  • In this type of contract, the contractor is given a certain percentage over the actual cost of the construction as his profit
  • .The contractor arranges materials and labor at his cost and keeps proper account and he is paid by the department or owner the whole cost together with a certain percentage, say 10% as his profit as agreed upon beforehand.
  • Item rate contract: It is also known as a unit-price contract or schedule contract. For such contracts, contractors are required to quote rates for individual items of work on the basis of a schedule of quantities furnished by the department.
  • This type of contract is followed by Central Public works and Railway departments.

Labor contract

  • It is an agreement with specific terms & conditions between two or more persons or entities or between the owner & the contractor
  • In which there is a promise to execute or do some work wherein all materials required for the construction are supplied by the owner.

Schedule contract:

  • It is a type of contract system where the contractor undertakes the execution of specific work with all its contingencies.

Lump-Sum or Fixed Price Contract:

  • A lump sum or fixed-price contract is the type of contract where all construction-related activities are regulated with a total fixed price agreement.
  • Lump-sum contracts are favored in situations when a clear scope and a defined schedule are negotiated and accepted.

Turnkey Contract:

  • one under which the contractor is responsible for both the design and construction of a facility.
  • The basic concept is that in a Turnkey Contract the contractor shall provide the works ready for use at the agreed price and by a fixed date.
MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

A simply supported concrete beam pre-stressed with a force of 2500 kN is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m, the central dip of the cable profile should be

Detailed Solution for MPPSC AE CE Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

Concept:
Prestress concrete is the concrete in which internal stresses are produced due to compression or tension applied before applying external load and these stresses are counter balanced by the applied load to the desired degree.

Calculation:
Given,
Prestressing force = 2500 KN
Effective span length = 10 m
Total external load = 40 kN/m
We know that,

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