Practice Test: Environment- 1 - UPSC MCQ

Natural Heritage Sites in India

• Natural Heritage Sites in India, like India's Sundarbans, Western Ghats, and Kaziranga National Park, are vital ecosystems recognised by UNESCO. These sites conserve unique biodiversity, landscapes, and habitats. They are a global asset, contributing to scientific research and environmental balance.
• Three types of sites: Cultural, natural and mixed.

Here's a list of the Natural Heritage sites in India, sourced from UNESCO.

• Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area (2014)
• Kaziranga National Park (1985)
• Keoladeo National Park (1985)
• Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (1985)
• Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks (1988, 2005)
• Sundarbans National Park (1987)
• Western Ghats (2012)
• Khangchendzonga National Park (2016) is a natural as well as cultural world heritage site of UNESCO

• Ecotones:
  • An ecotone is a transitional area or boundary zone between two distinct ecosystems or habitat types. For example, it could be the transition between a forest and a grassland or between a wetland and a terrestrial environment.
• Edge Effect:
  • The "Edge effect" refers to the ecological changes and variations that occur at the boundaries or edges of different ecosystems, specifically in ecotones. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. These changes include alterations in environmental conditions and shifts in the composition of species, often leading to unique ecological dynamics.
  • The edge effect typically results in different environmental conditions than those found in the interior of the adjacent ecosystems. For instance, there may be variations in light, temperature, humidity, and wind patterns at these transition zones.
  • Species Composition in Ecotones often supports a unique mixture of species, including those adapted to both of the adjacent ecosystems. Some species thrive in these transitional areas due to the availability of resources from both ecosystems. This can lead to increased biodiversity and the presence of species not commonly found in either adjacent habitat.
  • Edge effects are essential in understanding ecosystem dynamics and biodiversity. They can influence species interactions, population dynamics, and the overall functioning of ecosystems. They also have implications for conservation efforts, as changes at ecotones can affect the vulnerability and distribution of species.
  • While edge effects occur naturally, human activities, such as habitat fragmentation and urban development, can exacerbate these effects.

Lemru Elephant Reserve, Chhattisgarh

• Lemru Elephant reserve was proposed to prevent human-animal conflict in the Korba region of Chhattisgarh as elephants regularly move from Jharkhand and Odisha to Chhattisgarh. The area proposed under this reserve is part of the Hasdeo Aranya forests, a very diverse biozone that is also rich in coal deposits. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

Chirang-Ripu Elephant Reserve – Assam

• Ripu and Chirang are two contiguous reserve forests, in extreme western Assam bordering West Bengal. They are part of the buffer zone of Manas TR. These forests have the largest known population of the endangered Golden Langur (EN).
• Ripu-Chirang is a conservation link between Buxa Tiger Reserve (in WB)-Phipsu Wildlife Sanctuary (in Bhutan)-Royal Manas National Park (in Bhutan)-Manas National Park (India). Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Singphan Elephant Reserve- Nagaland

• It is the 30th elephant reserve in the country and is located in Mon district of Nagaland. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• It is strategically located in contiguity with the Abhaypur Reserve Forest of Assam. The creation of reserve will give better protection and conservation of elephants in the state.

• The Nature 2030 IUCN Programme, marks the culmination of many years of deliberation across the Union. Adopted by democratic vote at the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) World Conservation Congress in Marseille, for the first time, sets its ambition over ten years.
• It is a call for mobilisation to the Members, Commissions, and Secretariat.
• This longer-term outlook aligns with the United Nations 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the post-2020 global biodiversity framework.
• The Programme defines broad areas of work and sets aspirational targets as well as indicators to measure success. • It will help the Union deliver for people, land, water, oceans, and climate through five pathways to transformative change: recognize, retain, restore, resource and reconnect.
• Over the next decade IUCN’s 1,400+ State, Government Agencies, Indigenous Peoples, and NGO Members, our network of 15,000+ scientists, and our Secretariat of hundreds of dedicated staff will work together towards the Nature 2030 agenda.
• Through this global call to action, we commit to delivering clear and demonstrable contributions to the Sustainable Development Goals, the post-2020 global biodiversity framework and the Paris Agreement on Climate Change, as well as global recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Population: 
  • A population is a group of individuals of a single species that live in the same general area. Members of a population rely on the same resources, are influenced by similar environmental factors, and have a high likelihood of interacting with and breeding with one another. The distinguishing characteristics of a population includes,
    • Sharing similar resources:
      • This is an essential aspect of a population. In a given geographical area, a population of individuals, whether they are of the same species or different species, often shares and competes for similar resources like food, water, shelter, and other necessities. This resource sharing and competition are critical in understanding the interactions and dynamics within a population. Hence option 1 is correct.
    • Competing for similar resources:
      • Competition for similar resources is a defining feature of a population. It occurs when individuals within the population vie for access to limited resources. This competition can have a significant impact on population size, growth, and distribution. In some cases, it may lead to the development of specific adaptations or behaviors to reduce competition, such as niche differentiation. Hence option 2 is correct.
    • Interbreeding and reproduction:
      • For individuals to be considered part of the same population, they should have the potential to interbreed and produce fertile offspring. This feature is crucial because it defines the genetic cohesion within a population. Interbreeding ensures that the genetic diversity of the population is maintained and that traits are passed on to the next generation. Hence option 3 is correct.

• The 2023 Production Gap Report: “Phasing down or phasing up? Top fossil fuel producers plan even more extraction despite climate promises” finds that governments plan to produce around  110% more fossil fuels in 2030 than would be consistent with limiting warming to 1.5°C, and 69% more than would be consistent with 2°C.
• The Production Gap Report — first launched in 2019 — tracks the discrepancy between governments’ planned fossil fuel production and global production levels consistent with limiting warming to 1.5°C or 2°C. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• The Report has been prepared by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and other institutes such as Stockholm Environment Institute, etc. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The 2023 Report highlights that major countries' plans and projections would lead to an increase in global coal production until 2030, and in global oil and gas production until at least 2050. It includes countries like Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, India, UAE, etc.
• Recommendations:
  • Adopt near and long-term reduction targets in fossil fuel production.
  • An equitable transition away from fossil fuel production must recognize countries’ differentiated responsibilities and capabilities.
  • Governments with greater transition capacity should aim for more ambitious reductions and help finance the transition processes in countries with limited capacities.

National Parks In India

• Chapter IV “Protected Area” of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 lay down Provisions for declaration, conservation and management of Wildlife Sanctuaries, National Parks, Tiger Reserves and closed and protected areas.

Declaration of National Parks by Statel Government:-

• Section 35 deals with the declaration of national parks by a State Government. It says:-
• An area which by reason is ecological, has fauna, flora or with other benefits related to the wildlife needs to be constituted as a national park. To protect the wildlife, it may be constituted by the notification.
• If any area is intended to be declared as a national park it is first applied to investigation of the land and determination of the claims.
• The State government has all the rights of lands to be included in the national parks and none can enter except the person who brings livestock for the animal. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Only on the recommendation of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL), the changes to the boundaries of national parks can be made. Hence statement 3 is correct.

National Park declared by Central Government :-

• Section 38 defines the power of the Central Government to declare areas as national parks. The central government, if satisfied with the conditions of the specified area, can declare it as a national park by the notification.
• The central government has the power to declare sanctuaries or national parks if the government is satisfied by the conditions which are given in section 35. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Kaziranga National Park

• Kaziranga National Park is home to more than 2200 Indian one-horned rhinoceros, approximately 2/3rd of their total world population.
• Formed in 1908 on the recommendation of Mary Curzon, it is located in the edge of the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspots – Golaghat and Nagaon district. In 1985, it was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
• The park is the breeding ground of elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer.
• The tiger population has increased in Kaziranga, and so it was declared as Tiger Reserve in 2006. Also, the park is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the conservation of avifaunal species.
• Birds like lesser white-fronted goose, ferruginous duck, Baer’s pochard duck lesser adjutant, greater adjutant, black-necked stork, and Asian Openbill stork specially migrate from Central Asia during the winter season.
• The park is equally rich in fauna with four main types of vegetation namely alluvial inundated grasslands, tropical evergreen forests, tropical moist mixed deciduous forests, and alluvial savanna woodlands.
• Trees include Indian gooseberry, elephant apple, kumbhi, and cotton trees. Elephant grass, spear grass, and sugarcane are some of the common tall grasses available here.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Conservation Reserves

• Notified by: State Government after consulting with the central government and the local communities. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Criteria: An inhabited area which typically act as buffer zone to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India. Parts of the land in this area are privately owned. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Such areas are designated as conservation areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India but used for subsistence by communities.
• Tamil Nadu government recently announced India’s first conservation reserve for Dugongs in Palk Bay. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• The UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration is a rallying call for the protection and revival of ecosystems all around the world, for the benefit of people and nature. It aims to halt the degradation of ecosystems, and restore them to achieve global goals. Only with healthy ecosystems can we enhance people’s livelihoods, counteract climate change, and stop the collapse of biodiversity.
• The UN Decade runs from 2021 through 2030, which is also the deadline for the Sustainable Development Goals and the timeline scientists have identified as the last chance to prevent catastrophic climate change.
• The United Nations General Assembly has proclaimed the UN Decade following a proposal for action by over 70 countries from all latitudes.
• Led by the United Nations Environment Programme and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations, The UN Decade is building a strong, broad-based global movement to ramp up restoration and put the world on track for a sustainable future. That will include building political momentum for restoration as well as thousands of initiatives on the ground.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• State governments exercise complete administrative control over all statutorily recognized forests and other government-owned lands in the country. The state government’s power to constitute reserved forests, national parks and wildlife sanctuaries is absolute but it has to seek prior approval of the Central Government for de-reservation, de-notification, diversion, logging, or leasing of forests for non-forestry activities.
• The State Forest Department is vested with the task of administration and management of forests, including wildlife reserves. State Forest Departments are headed by Principal Chief Conservators of Forests (PCCF) who are officers of the Indian Forest Service (IFS).
• The Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) is the statutory authority, under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 who heads the Wildlife Wing of the department and exercises complete administrative control over Protected Areas (PAs) within a state. Every PA is typically classified as a Wildlife Division and is headed by a Deputy Conservator of Forests (DCF).
• Important provisions related to CWLW of Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: 
  • The Chief Wild Life Warden may, if he is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule I has become dangerous to human life or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, by Order in writing and stating the reasons therefor, permit any person to hunt such animal or cause such animal to be hunted. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
  • It shall be lawful for the Chief Wild Life Warden, to grant a permit, by an order in writing stating the reasons therefor, to any person, on payment of such fee as may be prescribed, which shall entitle the holder of such permit to hunt subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, any wild animal specified in such permit, for the purpose of education, scientific research. o
  • No person shall cultivate a specified plant except under and in accordance with a licence granted by the Chief Wild Life Warden or any other officer authorised by the State Government in this behalf:

• Mangroves represent a characteristic littoral (near the sea shore) forest ecosystem, and they are mostly evergreen forests that grow in sheltered low lying coasts, estuaries, mudflats, tidal creeks backwaters (coastal waters held back on land), marshes, and lagoons of tropical and subtropical regions.
• The mangrove forests comprise trees and shrubs belonging to some 12 genera, and the dominant genera are Rhizophora, Avicennia, Bruguiera, and Sonneratia.
• Mangroves show the following adaptations to live on the water’s edge and on saline and poorly aerated soils, which are fine grained and high in organic content: 
  • Prop roots and stilt roots: Prop roots are aerial roots that provide support to the tree. Stilt roots are the roots that arise from the base of the plant and perform the function of supporting the plant.
  • Pneumatophores: Specialized roots that grow upwards from the soil and have numerous apertures which exchange gases. e.g., Avicennia, Sonneratia.
  • Knee roots: To exchange gases (Bruguiera).
  • Vivipary: The seedling grows while attached to the parent tree. When it is released, it either gets stuck in the mud or floats upright until it touches the bottom and settles down, e.g., Rhizophora, Bruguiera.
  • Cutinized epidermis: The epidermis is highly cutinized and the water storage tissue is extensive. In most species, there are salt secreting glands which help to get rid of excess salt.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Leith’s Softshell Turtle is a large freshwater soft-shelled turtle which is endemic to peninsular India and it inhabits rivers and reservoirs. The species has been subject to intensive exploitation over the past 30 years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It has been poached and illegally consumed within India. It has also been illegally traded abroad for meat and for its calipee.
  • The population of this turtle species is estimated to have declined by 90% over the past 30 years such that the species is now difficult to find.
  • It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ by the IUCN. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Types of Public Forest under the Indian Forest Act, 1927

• Reserved Forests
• Village Forests
• Protected Forests

Reserved Forests

• They are reserved by the Government. More than half of the forest area in India is declared as a Reserve forest. 53% of the total forests in India are the Reserved Forests. For their conservation the Government reserves these forests.
• The activities like hunting and cutting the trees are strictly banned in these forests. Only on special permissions by the higher authorities, these activities may be performed unless and until there is a valid reason for performing it.

Protected Forests (Section 29)

• The Indian Forest Act empowers the State Government to use any land as protected forest. Forests are not reserved under the state government.
• A protected forest can be a reserved forest but a reserved forest cannot be a protected forest. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The State also has some power to reserve some species of trees in these forests so that the state can have control over the trees, whose timber, fruits and non-wood products have revenue-raising potential.

Village Forests (Section 28)

• The State Government can give the rights to any village group, which the Government has over any land which has been reserved. Rules for regulating the management of the forest to be made by the State Government. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Here two interchangeably terms are used- 'village forest' itself and the other is a 'forest village' but both are different from each other. The village forest is in legal category whereas the forest village lies in the administrative category in the Act.

• Niche:
  • A niche can be thought of as a species' "address" in the ecosystem, encompassing all the environmental factors and interactions that allow it to thrive. It defines what a species does, where it lives, what it eats, and how it reproduces. Essentially, a niche is the sum total of an organism's ecological requirements and contributions to its ecosystem.
• Fundamental niche:
  • Fundamental niche is the entire set of conditions under which an animal (population, species) can survive and reproduce itself.
  • The fundamental niche represents the theoretical or potential ecological niche of a species, considering only the influence of abiotic (non-living) factors. It encompasses the full range of environmental conditions, such as temperature, humidity, light, and other abiotic factors, where a species could survive and reproduce without competition from other species. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
  • Think of it as the "perfect world" scenario for a species, where it can exploit all available resources and environmental conditions without any constraints. This is an idealized concept and often does not reflect the real-world ecological interactions and competition that occur.
  • The fundamental niche helps scientists understand the theoretical limits of a species' ecological tolerance and adaptability.
• Realized niche:
  • It is the set of conditions actually used by given animal (pop, species), after interactions with other species (predation and especially competition) have been taken into account.
  • It takes into account biotic interactions, such as competition and predation, which often narrow down a species' ecological range in nature. The realized niche is where a species is actually found in a given ecosystem, considering both abiotic and biotic factors.

• Desert food chain:
  • A desert food chain is a graphical representation showing who eats whom and thus the flow of energy in the desert biome. Like other food chains, there are two main types of organisms in a desert food chain: producers and consumers.
  • Producers are organisms that make their food. Usually, plants and microorganisms are producers. In contrast, consumers feed on producers for their livelihood. Based on their position in the food chain, consumers are divided into primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary consumers or apex predators.
• A desert food chain is unique due to its harsh environment. The Desert ecosystem food chain proceeds as follows,
  • Desert Willow: This is a plant and serves as the primary producer in the food chain. It captures sunlight and converts it into energy through photosynthesis. The other primary producers in Deserts are date palms, cacti, acacia, sagebrush, and desert milkweed.
  • Desert Hare: The Desert Hare is an herbivore that feeds on plants, including the Desert Willow. Herbivores are primary consumers in the food chain as they consume primary producers. The other primary consumers are Kangaroo rats, desert tortoises, ground squirrels, Arabian camels, and some insects feed only on plants to survive.
  • Snake: Snakes can be both secondary and tertiary consumers, depending on what they prey on. They may eat smaller herbivores like Desert Hares or smaller carnivores like birds. The other secondary consumers are izards, coyotes, rattlesnakes, mongooses, tarantulas, and scorpions.
  • Falcon: Falcons are higher-level carnivores that feed on other animals, including birds and rodents. They are tertiary consumers in the food chain. The other tertiary consumers are hyenas, sand cats, foxes, hawks, and eagles.
  • Coyote: Coyotes are at the top of the food chain, or at the highest “trophic” level. Coyotes prey on mesopredators, like raccoons, opossums, striped skunks, Falcons, and red foxes, which occupy the next lowest trophic level Carnivores are secondary consumers because they feed on herbivores.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Biosphere Reserves (BR)

• The Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme, launched in 1971 by UNESCO , is an intergovernmental scientific programme that aims to establish a scientific foundation for improving people's relationships with their environments. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• UNESCO has designated Biosphere Reserves (BR) as representative parts of natural and cultural landscapes spanning large areas of terrestrial or coastal/marine ecosystems, or a combination of both. They strive to strike a balance between economic and social development, cultural preservation, and environmental preservation.

Criteria for Designation of Biosphere Reserve (BR)

• A site must contain a protected and minimally disturbed core area of value of nature conservation.
• The core area must be a bio-geographical unit and should be large enough to sustain a viable populations representing all trophic levels.
• The involvement of local communities and use of their knowledge in biodiversity preservation. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• The MAB Programme is governed globally by its International Coordinating Council (ICC), which reports to the UNESCO General Conference and its Executive Board.There is no law that governs the Biosphere Reserves (BR) and in 1979, the world's first biosphere reserve was established. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Marine Protected Areas (MPA):

• MPA is a section of ocean where a government has placed limits on human activity. Currently, an estimated 7.65% of ocean is covered by MPAs.
• They are notified as either ‘national parks’ or ‘wildlife sanctuaries’ under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They are given special protections for natural or historic marine resources by local, state, territorial, native, regional, or national authorities.
• Recently, a total of 106 coastal and marine sites have been identified and prioritized as Important Coastal and Marine Areas (ICMBA) using globally used criteria by the Wildlife Institute of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Important MPAs (coastal or marine) of India are as given in image:-

• Recent context: Around 1.6 million people in Somalia could be affected by the heavy seasonal downpours, which have been worsened by the combined impact of two climate phenomenons, El Niño and the Indian Ocean Dipole.
• El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. El Niño is the “warm phase” of a larger phenomenon called the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO). La Niña, the “cool phase” of ENSO, is a pattern that describes the unusual cooling of the region’s surface waters. El Niño and La Niña are considered the ocean part of ENSO, while the Southern Oscillation is its atmospheric changes. It has an impact on ocean temperatures, the speed and strength of ocean currents, the health of coastal fisheries, and local weather from Australia to South America and beyond.
• El Nino is likely to be disastrous for many African regions. Rainfall in most of southern Africa will likely decline, especially in Angola, South Africa, Zambia, and Zimbabwe. Shortages of staple crops, such as corn, are likely. The Horn of Africa, on the other hand, will likely see increased rainfall. El Nino typically impacts Southeast Asia with drier-than-average conditions, usually stemming rainfall and leading to the threat of drought.
• The Indian Ocean Dipole - often called the "Indian Niño" because of its similarity to its Pacific equivalent - refers to the difference in sea-surface temperatures in opposite parts of the Indian Ocean. Temperatures in the eastern part of the ocean oscillate between warm and cold compared with the western part, cycling through phases referred to as "positive", "neutral" and "negative".
• The dipole's positive phase means warmer sea temperatures in the western Indian Ocean region, with the opposite in the east. The result of this strong positive dipole is higher-than-average rainfall and floods in eastern Africa (including Horn of Africa) and droughts in south-east Asia and Australia.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Recent context: E-way bill generation in October has crossed 10 crore for the first time since its introduction. Data from the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) showed e-way bill generation touched 10.03 crore, surpassing the previous high of 9.34 crore in August, this year.
• A waybill is a receipt or a document issued by a carrier giving details and instructions relating to the shipment of a consignment of goods and the details include name of the consignor, consignee, the point of origin of the consignment, its destination, and route.
• An Electronic Way Bill (E-Way Bill) is basically a compliance mechanism wherein by way of a digital interface the person causing the movement of goods uploads the relevant information prior to the commencement of the movement of goods and generates e-way bill on the GST portal.
• As per Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) Rules, 2017, consignment value of more than ₹50,000 is required to generate an e-way bill. This is required for movements between the two States and within a State. However, a State can decide the threshold for the value of goods to be applicable for movement within its boundary. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• The validity of an e-way bill depends on the distance to be traveled by the goods. For a distance of less than 100 Km, the e-way bill will be valid for a day from the relevant date. For every 100 Km thereafter, the validity will be an additional one day from the relevant date.
• No e-way bill is required to be generated in the following cases:
  • Transport of goods as specified in Annexure to Rule 138 of the CGST Rules, 2017
  • goods being transported by a non-motorized conveyance. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • goods being transported from the port, airport, air cargo complex and land customs station to an inland container depot or a container freight station for clearance by Customs;
  • Consignment value less than Rs. 50,000/.

World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR)

• The World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) was formed in 1971, as a backbone for biodiversity conservation, ecosystem restoration, and living in harmony with nature. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It integrates people and nature for sustainable development through dialogue; knowledge sharing; poverty reduction and human well-being improvements; respect for cultural values and society’s ability to cope with change - thus contributing to the Sustainable Development Goals.
• It promotes North-South and South-South collaboration and represents a unique tool for international cooperation.
• There are 748 biosphere reserves in 134 countries, including 23 transboundary sites. Biosphere reserves in India
• There are 18 Biosphere Reserves in the country and out of which 12 internationally recognised BRs. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• 12 internationally recognised BRs of India:
  • Nilgiri
  • Gulf of Mannar
  • Sunderban
  • Nanda Devi
  • Nokrek
  • Pachmarhi
  • Similipal
  • Achanakmar-Amarkantak
  • Great Nicobar
  • Agasthyamala
  • Khangchendzonga
  • Panna
• In India, the first biosphere reserve was designated by UNESCO in 2000, namely, Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve stretching over Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) was adopted during the fifteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 15) following a four year consultation and negotiation process. This historic Framework, which supports the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals and builds on the Convention’s previous Strategic Plans, sets out an ambitious pathway to reach the global vision of a world living in harmony with nature by 2050. Among the Framework’s key elements are 4 goals for 2050 and 23 targets for 2030. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The countries will monitor and report every five years or less on a large set of indicators related to progress. The Global Environment Facility has been requested to establish a Special Trust Fund to support the implementation of the Global Biodiversity Framework (“GBF Fund”).
• In the GBF, the world made a number of significant commitments to halt and reverse biodiversity loss.
  • It targets to protect 30 per cent of the terrestrial and marine environment. 
  • It targets to put 30 percent of land and marine area under active restoration by 2030 and mobilize US$ 30 billion by 2030. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It agreed to reduce – at least by half – nutrients introduced into the environment.
  • It agreed to reduce the risk from pesticides and hazardous chemicals by at least half.
  • It agreed to reduce the rate of introduced invasive species by 50 per cent by 2030 and to eradicate and control those already introduced. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • And It agreed to eliminate, phase out or reform harmful subsidies, reducing them by US$ 500 billion per year by 2030 – starting with the most harmful.

About Indian elephant (Elephas maximus)

• Characteristics:- Highly intelligent animals characterised by strong family bonds, sophisticated forms of communication and complex behaviour, including tool use and the ability to feel grief and compassion.
• It is the National Heritage Animal of India. The frieze of the circular abacus of Lion Capital is adorned with sculptures an elephant, agalloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening Dharma Chakras. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Conservation measures:

• Project Elephant, a centrally sponsored scheme and was launched in 1992 by the Narsimha Rao government for the protection of elephants, their habitats, and corridors.
• Elephant census is conducted once in 5 years and there are around 33 Elephant Reserves in India. Hence statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
• Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE), an international effort for conservation of elephants in Asia and Africa.

• Recent context: The World Meteorological Organization released the latest Greenhouse Gas Bulletin and found that levels of carbon dioxide are similar to those found 3 to 5 million years ago.
• The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin represents the latest analysis of observations from the WMO GAW Programme. It shows globally averaged surface mole fractions for carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄) and nitrous oxide (N₂O) and compares them with the mole fractions during the previous year and with the preindustrial levels. It also provides insights on the change in radiative forcing by long-lived GHGs (LLGHGs) and the contribution of individual gases to this increase. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
• It is published annually. Since 2006, WMO has published annual Greenhouse Gas Bulletins. The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin of 2023 comes ahead of the UN climate change conference COP28 in Dubai. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• The current bulletin estimates that the current trajectory “puts us on the pathway of an increase in temperatures well above the Paris Agreement targets by the end of this century,” he added, referring to efforts to limit global temperature rise to 1.5 degrees Celsius.

• An organism can be conserved in a natural/ artificial habitat or in the form of a germplasm (bacterial cultures, animal tissues, seeds etc.) by employing various methods. A number of efforts have been put forward by various governmental and non-governmental organizations aiming for the conservation of biodiversity. It includes certain in-situ and ex-situ approaches. Emergence of in-vitro technology as an adjunct to ex-situ conservation is being viewed with great expectations for conservation of threatened species.
• In-vitro techniques include the laboratory practices used for the conservation of plant/ animal and microbial diversity through its storage in germplasm banks, propagation via tissue culture methods, preservation using the technique of cryopreservation, conversion into artificial seeds, maintenance as slow growth cultures, and long term perpetuation as DNA clones.
• Germplasm banks: Germplasm banks or biobanks provide controlled storage facilities of temperature, humidity etc. for the material to be conserved. These are variously called as seed banks, gene banks, DNA banks etc. depending on the material that is conserved in them.
• Seed banks: In case of plant species, seeds are a convenient means of long term storage of genetic diversity, as the samples are small in size, easy to handle, require low maintenance and frequently remain viable for long periods. In seed banks, material in the form of seeds are stored at nearly -10 to -20°C, often using silica gel in the seed containers to reduce humidity.
• Tissue culture: It is an in-vitro technique, based on the concept of “totipotency” of plant cells. Cellular totipotency is the capability of a cell to give rise to a whole new plant. Mature cells undergo dedifferentiation to become meristematic and then undergo redifferentiation to form a whole new organism. Germplasm available in the form of microbial cultures, cells or organs in case of animal species and seeds, cuttings or vegetative propagules in case of plants is used for micropropagation.
• Cryopreservation: It is a technique of preservation of germplasm at ultra low temperature of -196°C i.e. the temperature of liquid nitrogen. The principle underlying cryopreservation involves bringing the culture to a state of non-dividing and zero metabolism, so that any biological activity, is effectively stopped. Cryopreservation also helps in storing tissues of animal origin such as cultured animal cells, spermatozoa, ovarian or embryonic tissues and whole embryos for livestock breeding programmes.
• Artificial seeds: Somatic embryos are cultured in vitro through embryogenesis and can be preserved as artificial or synthetic seeds by coating with gels like sodium alginate, calcium alginate, and polyacralamide gel etc. which prevent them from desiccating. These somatic embryos are then dehydrated to a suitable level and subjected to slow growth or cryopreservation in a manner similar to zygotic seeds. Production of sodium alginate beads by encapsulation of shoot tips and nodal segments of medicinally important plant Mentha arvensis helps in its in-vitro regeneration and conservation.
• DNA clones: DNA, the basic unit of heredity of a cell, can effectively be used for conservation of threatened plant species. Germplasm can be stored in the form of DNA segments cloned into a suitable vector such as cosmids, plasmids and bacteriophage. With the recent progress in the field of molecular biology such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR), combined with gene cloning, small amounts of tissues can provide substantial collections of all the DNA of a plant genome.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is correct: Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of biological organisation like organisms, populations, communities and biomes.
• Statement 2 is correct: Ecology examines individual organisms and their adaptations to their environment.

• Statement 1 is correct: Populations refer to groups of individuals of the same species living in a particular area.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Communities consist of multiple populations of different species living and interacting in the same area.
• Statement 3 is correct: Biomes are largescale ecological regions characterized by distinct climate, vegetation, and animal communities.

Both statements are correct.

Population Growth of Species

• The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter. It keeps changing with time, depending on various factors including food availability, predation pressure and adverse weather.
• In fact, it is these changes in population density that give us some idea of what is happening to the population – whether it is fl ourishing or declining.
• The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic processes, two of which (natality and immigration) contribute to an increase in population density and two (mortality and emigration) to a decrease.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Natality and immigration contribute to an increase in population density
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Mortality and emigration contribute to a decrease in population density.

All pairs are correctly matched.

• Population density of Species
• Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density.
• Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
• Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration. 
• Emigration is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration.