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Practice Test - NEET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test 4 Months Preparation for NEET - Practice Test

Practice Test for NEET 2025 is part of 4 Months Preparation for NEET preparation. The Practice Test questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The Practice Test MCQs are made for NEET 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Practice Test below.
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Practice Test - Question 1

The amount of work done in moving a charge from one point to another along an equipotential line or surface charge is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 1

Since Potential difference between two points in equipotential surfaces is zero, the work done between two points in equipotential surface is also zero.

Practice Test - Question 2

In bringing an electron towards another electron, the electrostatic potential energy of the system

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 2

Definition based

Practice Test - Question 3

The potential energy of a system containing only one point charge is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 3

Potential Energy of a System with One Point Charge


  • Definition of Potential Energy: Potential energy is the energy stored in an object due to its position or configuration in a system.

  • Potential Energy of a Point Charge: In the case of a system containing only one point charge, the potential energy of the system is considered to be zero.

  • Explanation: When there is only one point charge in a system, there is no other charge or external force interacting with it to create potential energy. Therefore, the potential energy of a single point charge is considered to be zero.

This is why the correct answer is A: Zero.

Practice Test - Question 4

Two cells of emf 1.25V , 0.75V and each of internal resistance 1Ω are connected in parallel. The effective emf will be

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 4

We want the Voltage difference VAB.
let A and B be open and not connected to any thing.
There is a current that flows from cell of larger emf to the cell of small emf.
Call that current as  I Amperes.

1.25 V - 0.75 V - I * R2 - I * R1 = 0

I = 0.5 / (R1+R2)
VAB =  -0.75 - I * R2 =  - 0.75 - 0.5 * R2 / (R1+R2)

= - (0.75 R1 + 1.25 R2) / (R1+R2)

= - ().75 * 1 + 1.25 * 1) / (1 + 1)  volts

=  - 1 volts

Practice Test - Question 5

Flow of charges in direction of electrons is called 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 5
  1. Current: This is a general term for the flow of electric charge. It can refer to any type of charge flow, not specifically electrons.

  2. Electronic current: This specifically refers to the flow of electrons through a conductor.

  3. Conventional current: This is the flow of positive charge and is considered to flow from the positive side to the negative side of a power source. Historically, this was defined before the discovery of electrons, so it is opposite to the direction of electron flow.

  4. Photonic current: This is not a standard term in electrical engineering or physics. It might refer to currents related to photons in some contexts, but it is not related to the flow of electrons.

So, if you are referring to the flow of electrons specifically, electronic current is the accurate term.

Practice Test - Question 6

Which of the statements is true for p-type semiconductors?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 6

In a p-type semiconductor, the holes are the majority carriers, while the electrons are the minority carriers. A p-type semiconductor is obtained when trivalent atoms, such as aluminium, are doped in silicon atoms.

Practice Test - Question 7

In the binary number 10010, the MSB is​

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 7

1001=1x23+0x22+0x21+1x20=9
For binary numbers, the digit at the extreme right is referred to as least significant bit (LSB) and the left- most digit is called the most significant bit (MSB). Hence in binary 10010, the most significant bit is 1.
 

Practice Test - Question 8

Aliphatic compound is the other name for

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 8

Open chain compounds or acyclic compounds are otherwise called as aliphatic compounds.

Practice Test - Question 9

Which among the following is not an example of Acyclic compound

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 9

Cyclopropane is a ring (cyclic) compound and hence it does not come with the examples of open chain compounds.

Practice Test - Question 10

Which among the following is not an aromatic compound(in specific)

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 10

Pyridine is heterocyclic aromatic compound. Whereas naphthalene and aniline are benzenoid aromatic compounds and tropolone is a non-benzenoid aromatic compound.

Practice Test - Question 11

Which of the following is not a possible termination step in the free radical chlorination of methane?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 11

Termination is the last step. So there shouldn't be any free radical atom remaining. In first option there is Cl• remaining it can't be termination step.The steps in free radical halogenation are as

Practice Test - Question 12

The major monobromination product which results when ethyl cyclohexane is subjected to free radical bromination, is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 12


Free radical bromination reaction is highly selective, occurs mainly at the carbon where most stable free radical is formed.
We know that the stability of free radical is in the order,
Tertiary radical > Secondary radical > Primary radical
In (a), (b) and (c), the bromination occurs at secondary carbon whereas in (d) the bromination occurs at tertiary carbon. Since, tertiary radicals are more stable than secondary radical the major product of monobromination of ethyl cyclohexane is (d).
The stability of tertiary radical is due to the higher number of α−Hygrogens which give more hyperconjugation effect than secondary.

Practice Test - Question 13

What is relative reactivity of secondary versus primary hydrogens in free radical bromination of n-butane if the ratio of 1-bromo to 2-bromobutane formed is 7 : 39?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 13

Correct Answer :- b

Explanation : The 2o hydrogens are 20 times more reactive than the 1o ones.

Practice Test - Question 14

What is the major monobromination product in the following reaction?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 14

Bromination in the presence of light is done by free radical mechanism. The radical on the carbon chain is formed where the radical is most stable. We can’t put radical on the ring as the aromaticity of the ring will be lost. So, it should be put either on the CH3. However, the CH3 which is attached to NO2 ring will not bear stable radical as NO will decrease the stability of radical.(NO2 is an electron withdrawing group). So the only position is the other CH3 in option d. There also we have stability due to resonance.

Practice Test - Question 15

Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated from the African population because

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 15

Sickle cell anaemia is a blood disorder inherited from parents in which the Red blood cells become rigid and sickle-shaped which may lead to different health issues such as anaemia, swelling in the hands and feet, bacterial infections and stroke.

It is an autosomal disorder linked to the recessive alleles.

It has not been eliminated from the African population because it provides immunity against malaria.

Falciparum malaria is the most prevalent malaria in the African continent which is responsible for deaths in this region.

People with sickle cell anaemia are less vulnerable to falciparum malaria.

So, the correct answer is 'It provides immunity against malaria'

Practice Test - Question 16

Which of the following disease is caused by virus and transmitted by mosquito?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 16

Yellow fever is caused by a RNA virus of genus Flavivirus. This virus is transmitted by mosquito, Aedesaegypti in human beings.

Practice Test - Question 17

Which of the following diseases is due to an allergic reaction?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 17

Hey fever or Allergic rhinitis is inflammation of nasal airways. It occurs when an allergen is inhaled by an individual with sensitive immune system.

Practice Test - Question 18

Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 18

Common cold and AIDS are viral disease caused by rhinovirus and HIV virus respectively.

Practice Test - Question 19

Cancer detection is not based on which of the following tests or studies?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 19
  • Early detection of cancer is essential as it allows the disease to be treated successfully in many cases.
  • Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue and the blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in the case of leukaemias.
Practice Test - Question 20

The primary and secondary immune response are carried out with the help of two special types of lymphocytes present in our blood called?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 20

The primary and secondary immune response are carried out with the help of two special types of lymphocytes present in our blood called B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.

Practice Test - Question 21

An insect bite may result in inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 21

Inflammation at the spot of insect bit is result of chemical released by the body such as histamine and kinins in response to chemical released by insect in the body.

Practice Test - Question 22

Anti-venom is used for the treatment of snake bite. The treatment of snake bite by anti-venom is an example of

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 22

The treatment of snake bite by anit-venom is an example of artificial acquired passive immunity. Anti-venom neutralize the effect of venom in the body.

Practice Test - Question 23

Which of the following is also known as baker’s yeast?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 23

Saccharomyces cerevisiae is also known as baker’s yeast. This yeast is used for fermenting wheat flour after it is kneaded. Similarly, the dough which is used for making bread is also fermented using baker’s yeast.

Practice Test - Question 24

Which of the following gas is responsible for the puffed-up appearance of the dough?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 24

The dough which is used for making foods such as dosa and idli is fermented by using bacteria like Streptococcus. The puffed-up appearance of this dough is due to the production of CO2 gas.

Practice Test - Question 25

Consider the following statements about the lab.

  1. It increases the vitamin B12 amount, thus increasing the nutrient quality of milk.
  2. It checks disease-causing microbes in the stomach.

Choose the correct option.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 25
  • Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. A small amount of curd added to the fresh milk as inoculum or starter contains millions of lab, which at suitable temperatures multiply, thus converting milk to curd.
  • It improves its nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12. In our stomach too, the lab plays a very beneficial role in checking disease-causing microbes.
Practice Test - Question 26

An enzyme used in cheese-making is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 26

Rennet is extracted from the stomach of the calf and is used to prepare cottage cheese.

Practice Test - Question 27

What is the full form of the LAB?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 27

LAB stands for Lactic acid bacteria. Indian curd is prepared from both skimmed and cream milk by inoculating the milk with lactic acid bacteria.

Practice Test - Question 28

Big holes in Swiss cheese are formed as a result of

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 28

Large holes in Swiss cheese are formed by the CO2 produced (causing holes) by a bacterium called Propionibacterium shermanii.

Practice Test - Question 29

What makes Idli soft and puffy?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 29

In the preparation of idli batter, the batter is fermented using bacteria or yeast. During fermentation, CObubbles which are released get trapped in the gluten, thus making idli soft and puffy.

Practice Test - Question 30

Assertion (A): yeasts such as saccharomyces cerevisiae are used in the baking industry.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide produced during fermentation causes bread dough to rise by thermal expansion.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 30
  • Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a the dough used for making bread is fermented by saccharomyces cerevisiae or commonly called baker’s yeast.
  • CO2 released during the process of fermentation gives a puffy appearance to a dough. It is used to make foods like idli, dosa, bread, etc.
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