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Practice Test - NEET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test 4 Months Preparation for NEET - Practice Test

Practice Test for NEET 2025 is part of 4 Months Preparation for NEET preparation. The Practice Test questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The Practice Test MCQs are made for NEET 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Practice Test below.
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Practice Test - Question 1

The position of an object moving in a straight line can be specified with reference to

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 1

To describe motion along a straight line, we can choose an axis, say X-axis, so that it coincides with the path of the object. We then measure the position of the object with reference to a conveniently chosen origin, say O, Positions to the right of O are taken as positive and to the left of O, as negative.

Practice Test - Question 2

If the position- time graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 2

Explanation:Position-time graph of horizontal straight line parallel to time axis represents that the position of the body does not changes with the passage of time. So it represents the rest state of motion.It means velocity of object is zero.

Practice Test - Question 3

A truck is coming towards you from a distance of 1000m on a straight road at time t=0. At time t=10 seconds it is at a distance of 900 m. The average velocity in m/sec is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 3

Practice Test - Question 4

A truck has a velocity of 3 m /s at time t=0. It accelerates at 3 m / s2 on seeing police .What is its velocity in m/s at a time of 2 sec

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 4

Practice Test - Question 5

A truck covers 40.0 m in 8.50 s while smoothly slowing down to a final speed of 2.80 m/s. Find its original speed in m/s

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 5

Practice Test - Question 6

For motion in a straight line

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 6

Explanation:To describe motion along a straight line, we can choose an axis, say X-axis, so that it coincides with the path of the object. We then measure the position of the object with reference to a conveniently chosen origin, say O,  Positions to the right of O are taken as positive and to the left of O, as negative.

Practice Test - Question 7

The average acceleration 'a' over a time interval is defined as

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 7

Explanation:

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with time.It is a vector quantity.

Average acceleration is the change in velocity per unit time over an interval of time.

Let initial velocity at time interval t​​​​​​1 is v​​​​​​1 and final velocity at time interval t​​​​​2 is v​​​​​​2 Then

Practice Test - Question 8

A truck is coming towards you from a distance of 1000m on a straight road, at time t=0. It reaches you in 100sec. The average speed in m/s is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 8

Practice Test - Question 9

A stone thrown from the top of a building is given an initial velocity of 20.0 m/s straight upward. Determine the time in seconds at which the stone reaches its maximum height.

g =9.8 m / sec2

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 9

Practice Test - Question 10

A truck covers 40.0 m in 8.50 s while smoothly slowing down to a final speed of 2.80 m/s. Find its acceleration in m/s2

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 10

Practice Test - Question 11

Which law is also known as Law of constant composition?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 11

The law of definite proportions, also known as the law of constant composition states that all pure samples of the same chemical compound contain the same elements combined in the same proportions by mass.
What this law emphasizes is that, if pure samples of the same chemical substance, wherever they may be found, are analyzed, it will be found that they all consist of the same elements, as well as having these elements combine in the same proportions by mass.
For examples, pure sample of copper(II) oxide is composed of copper and oxygen, in the proportion of 1:1 by mole, or 64 g of copper to 16 g of oxygen or 1 g of copper to 0.25 g of oxygen. 

Practice Test - Question 12

According to Dalton’s atomic theory chemical reactions involve:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 12

Chemical reactions involve merely the combination, separation, or rearrangement of atoms and that during these processes atoms are not subdivided, created, or destroyed.

Practice Test - Question 13

100mL of gaseous hydrogen combines with 50 mL of gaseous oxygen to give 100mL of water vapours. This can be explained on the basis of:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 13

According to Gay Lussac's Law of Gaseous Volume, under same pressure and temperature, whenever gases react, they do so in volumes and volumes of reacting gases bear a simple ratio with each other and with product gases formed. 100 : 50 : 100 : : 2 : 1: 2 Hence, option B is correct.

Practice Test - Question 14

Electronic configuration of the element having atomic number 24.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 14

Atomic no 24 is of Cr. Due to half filled orbital stability it doesnot follow Afbau rule so its configuration is 

Practice Test - Question 15

Correct expression for mass number A is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 15

Mass no. = no. of protons + no. of neutrons.

Practice Test - Question 16

According to quantum mechanics ψ2(r) the wave function squared gives

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 16

ψ has no physical significance while ψ2 represnts the probability density of finding an electron.

Practice Test - Question 17

Among the following, the species having the smallest bond length is:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 17

The bond order of given molecules are:
NO = 2.5, NO+ = 3, O2 = 2, NO = 2
Larger the bond order, the smaller the bond length.
NO+ has the largest bond order 3.
Therefore, it will have the smallest bond length.
Hence option A is the answer.

Practice Test - Question 18

Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by which compound:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 18

The correct option is D.

  • The proportion of covalent character in ionic bond is decided by polarisability of the metal cation as well as the electronegativity of both the elements involved in bonding.
  • Polarisability is also decided by the density of +ve charge on the metal cation. 
  • AlCl3 shows maximum covalent character. This is because Al cation has 3 unit +ve charge and shows strong tendency to distort the electron cloud
Practice Test - Question 19

In the taxonomic hierarchy, which category comprises a group of related species with more common characteristics than species of other genera?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 19
  • The category "Genus" comprises a group of related species with more common characteristics than species of other genera.
  • It is one level above species in the hierarchy.
Practice Test - Question 20

As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common characteristics

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 20

The correct option is A Decrease
In the Linnaean system of hierarchy, as we go from species to kingdom, the number of common characters decreases, while in the descending order, the number of common characteristics increases. For example, any genus (lower grade of classification) has members with more similarities as compared to a family (a higher grade of classification) which has members with fewer similarities among them.

Practice Test - Question 21

The scientific name of mango is written as Mangifera indica L. Pickup the correct statement about the significance of the letter 'L'.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 21
  • Carl Linnaeus was a Swedish botanist, physician and zoologist, who laid the foundations for the modern biological naming scheme of biological nomenclature.
  • He is known as the father of taxonomy and is also considered one of the fathers of modern ecology.
  • In botany, the author abbreviation used to indicate Linnaeus as the authority for the species name. In older publications, sometimes the abbreviation "Linn" is found. Hence, L signifies the taxonomist, Linneaus.

Hence, the Correct Answer is C

Practice Test - Question 22

Why are viruses not included in any of the five kingdoms?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 22
  • Unlike organisms in the other five kingdoms which are living, viruses are non-living organisms.
  • They don’t even have basic unit of life i.e. cell.
  • Hence, they are not categorised in any of the kingdoms.

Hence, the correct answer is B
NCERT Reference: Topic “Viroids” of chapter "Biological Classification" of NCERT.

Practice Test - Question 23

The five kingdom classification was proposed by______.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 23

Five kingdom classification was proposed by R.H. Whittaker in 1969.
The kingdoms identified by him were:

  • Monera
  • Protista
  • Fungi
  • Plantae  
  • Animalia

Hence, the correct option is D
NCERT Reference: Topic- Five kingdom classification  of chapter "Biological Classification" of NCERT.

Practice Test - Question 24

Which one is important in nutrient recycle and act as decomposer and mineralisers of the biosphere?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 24

Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant in nature. The majority are important decomposers.

Commonly known as sac-fungi, the ascomycetes are mostly multicellular, e.g., Penicillium, or rarely unicellular, e.g., yeast (Saccharomyces). They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic, or coprophilous (growing on dung).

Some members of deuteromycetes are saprophytes or parasites while a large number of them are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling. Some examples are Alternaria, Colletotrichum, and Trichoderma.

Practice Test - Question 25

Select the mismatch

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 25

 

  1. Pinus - Dioecious: Pinus species are actually monoecious, meaning that both male and female cones are present on the same tree. Therefore, this statement is a mismatch.

  2. Cycas - Dioecious: Cycas, a type of cycads, is indeed dioecious, meaning male and female reproductive structures are on separate individuals. This statement is correct.

  3. Salvinia - Heterosporous: Salvinia, a genus of aquatic ferns, is indeed heterosporous, meaning it produces two types of spores: microspores and megaspores. This statement is correct.

  4. Equisetum - Homosporous: Equisetum, commonly known as horsetails, is indeed homosporous, producing only one type of spore that develops into a bisexual gametophyte. This statement is correct.

Thus, the mismatch is:

(1) Pinus - Dioecious

 

 

Practice Test - Question 26

In which group of plants does the sporophyte not have a free-living stage?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 26

In Bryophytes, the sporophyte does not have a free-living stage. It is dependent on the gametophyte for nutrition and support. This contrasts with other plant groups like Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms, where the sporophyte is the dominant, free-living stage of the life cycle.

Practice Test - Question 27

In Pinus,

I. The stem is branched

II. Roots have fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza

III. The male and female strobili are borne on different trees

Of the above statements:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 27

I. The stem is branched: This is generally true for many species of Pinus. Pines typically have branched stems, although the branching pattern can vary depending on the species and age of the tree.

II. Roots have fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza: This is also true. Pine trees form a mycorrhizal association with fungi. This symbiotic relationship is crucial for the tree's nutrient uptake, particularly in nutrient-poor soils.

III. The male and female strobili are borne on different trees: This statement is false. In Pinus, the male (pollen cones) and female (seed cones) strobili are typically borne on the same tree. Pines are monoecious, meaning they have both male and female reproductive structures on the same individual.

So, the correct statements about Pinus are I and II.

 

 

Practice Test - Question 28

Asexual reproduction in liverworts a specialised structures are called as

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 28

Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by fragmentation of thalli, or by the formation of specialised structures called gemmae (sing. gemma). Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual buds, which develop in small receptacles called gemma cups located on the thalli. The gemmae become detached from the parent body and germinate to form new individuals.

Practice Test - Question 29

Pteridophytes differ from mosses/ bryophytes in possessing

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 29
  • Pteridophytes are most primitive vascular flowerless, spore-producing cryptogamic land plants, commonly called vascular cryptogams.
  • They are sometimes called as Amphibians/botanical snakes/spore producing seedless tracheophytes.
  • They are the first vascular land plants to have an independent sporophyte diploid plant body with true root, stem and leaves.
  • In contrast bryophytes, the amphibians of the plant kingdom are devoid of true roots, stem, and leaves, with no vascular supply but root-like, non-vascular rhizoids, leaf-like, and stem-like structures are present.

Hence, the correct option is C.
NCERT Reference: Topic “PTERIDOPHYTES” of chapter Plant Kingdom. 

Practice Test - Question 30

The phylum in which adults exhibit radial symmetry and larva exhibit bilateral symmetry is:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 30
  • Symmetry is an attribute of an organism showing regularity in body parts on a plane or around an axis.
  • In Phylum Echinodermata, the adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but the larvae are bilaterally symmetrical. 

Hence, the correct option is B.

NCERT Reference: Topic: Phylum – Echinodermata” of chapter Animal Kingdom

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