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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test RRB NTPC - Previous Year Papers - RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2)

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 is part of RRB NTPC - Previous Year Papers preparation. The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) questions and answers have been prepared according to the RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA exam syllabus.The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) MCQs are made for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) below.
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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 1

Rahul left his school and walked 20 m straight towards the north, turned left and walked straight for another 20 m. He took a final left turn again and walked straight for 20 m to reach home. What is the shortest distance between the school and his home? (All turns are 90° turns only)

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 1

Drawing the diagram according to the given information,

  1. Rahul left his school and walked 20 m straight towards the north.
  2. Then turned left and walked straight for another 20 m.
  3. Then left turn again and walked straight for 20 m to reach home.

The shortest distance between the school and his home = 20 m
Hence, the correct answer is "20 m".

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 2

A, B, C, D, E, and F are six people living in a six-storey building, with each person living on a different floor. The lowermost floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.
F lives on floor number 3. B and E live on the floors below F's floor. D lives on a floor that is below A's floor but above C's floor. Who among them lives on the topmost floor?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 2

Given:
1) F lives on floor number 3.

2) B and E live on the floors below F's floor.

3) D lives on a floor that is below A's floor but above C's floor.
(It means D is lives on Fifth floor)

Hence, “A” is the correct answer.

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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 3

The Cherry Blossom Festival 2021 was inaugurated in which of the following cities?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 3

The correct answer is Shillong.

Key Points

  • Cherry Blossom Festival 2021
    • Ambassador of Japan to India, H.E. Satoshi Suzuki, Chief Minister and Conrad K Sangma inaugurated the Cherry Blossom Festival in 2021.
    • This festival took place in venues Polo Grounds and Ward’s Lake in Meghalaya.
    • Cherry blossoms are also known as Prunus Cerasoides.

Additional Information

  • Meghalaya state observed the 44th edition of ‘Wangala’, the festival of 100 Drums Festival in November 2021.
  • It is a post-harvest festival of the Garos tribe which is being held every year to honour ‘Saljong’, the Sun God of Garos, which also marks the end of the harvest season.
  • Some Popular Festivals of Meghalaya:
    • Nongkrem Dance Festival
    • Wangala Festival
    • Ahaia
    • Behdeinkhlam Festival
    • Shad Sukra
  • The Meghalaya Cabinet has approved the proposal of the creation of a new district called Eastern West Khasi Hills district.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 4
Suresh borrows Rs. 80000 at 24% per annum simple interest and Ramesh borrows Rs. 91000 at 20% per annum simple interest. In how many years will their amounts of debts be equal?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 4

Given:

Suresh borrows Rs. 80000 at 24% per annum simple interest

Ramesh borrows Rs. 91000 at 20% per annum simple interest

Concept used:

S.I = PTR/100

Amount = S.I + P

Here

P = principal or sum

T = time

R = rate of interest

Calculation:

Let after n years their debts will be equal

Now,

80000 + [(80000 × 24 × n)/100] = 91000 + [(91000 × 20 × n)/100]

⇒ 80000 + 19200n = 91000 + 18200n

⇒ 19200n - 18200n = 91000 - 80000

⇒ 1000n = 11000

⇒ n = 11

So, after 11 years the debts of them will be equal

In 11 years will their amounts of debts be equal.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 5

The value of is

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 5

Given:

Concept used:

Calculation:



∴ Required answer is 20.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 6
Which of the following correctly define the term 'Cash Reserve Ratio'?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 6

The correct answer is Percentage of deposits which a bank must keep as cash reserves with the Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

  • The term "Cash Reserves Ratio" (CRR) refers to the percentage of commercial banks' total deposits that they are required to maintain as cash reserves with the central bank in the form of cash.
  • CRR is a rule that is enforced in virtually every country by the Central Bank of that nation and is a crucial tool for monetary policy in order to manage the amount of money in the economy.
  • Every commercial bank is required to maintain the CRR rate in accordance with the requirements of the Central Bank, or RBI, which is the minimum percentage of cash deposits (as stated by RBI).
  • Each bank's net demand and time obligations are used to calculate the cash reserve ratio rate.
  • The sum of the balances in the savings account, current account, and fixed deposit yields the Net Demand and Time Liability.

Important Points

  • The domestic currency holdings and deposits with the monetary authorities to claims on other governments, nonfinancial public businesses, the private sector, and other banking institutions make up the ratio of bank liquid reserves to bank assets.
  • Deposits from consumers in their current and savings accounts make up the bank's obligations.
  • Total fund costs are divided by total fund assets to determine the expense ratio.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 7
Which of the following is a popular dance and music combination of Andhra Pradesh that is similar to the stick dance?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 7

The correct answer is Kolannalu.

Key Points

  • One of the most well-known dance narratives in Andhra Pradesh is the "stick dance," also known as "kolannalu" or "kolkolannalu" (also known as "kolattam").
  • It is a sort of rural art that is frequently displayed at village festivals. It consists of songs, music, and rhythmic movements.
  • The Kolattam ensemble is made up of dancers in pairs, ranging in age from 8 to 40.
  • The predominant beat is provided by the sticks. A leader directs the dancers as they move in two circles.
  • The artists in the outside circle deliver the strikes, which the inner circle receives on their sticks.
  • The dancers essentially move in circles while striking the sticks to the beat of the song.

Important Points

  • The older generation of the Nagaland state is mostly responsible for creating the unique genre of music known as neuleu song.
  • Villu Paatu, also known as Villadichampaatu, is a traditional kind of musical story-telling that is still practiced in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and North-East Sri Lanka. Narration and music are intermingled throughout the performance.
  • The socio-religious folk dance known as Raas or Dandiya Raas has its roots in Gujarat, India, and is frequently performed during the Navaratri festival.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 8

A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.
Question: How many soldiers are there between William and David in a row of soldiers, all facing north?
Statements:
(I) William is 15th from the extreme left end of the row.
(II) David is exactly in the middle of the row and there are ten soldiers to his right.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 8

Statements:

(I) William is 15th from the extreme left end of the row.

(II) David is exactly in the middle of the row and there are ten soldiers to his right.

So David rank 11th from the left.
When combining Statement I and II:

soldiers are there between William and David = William rank from right - David rank from right - 1
soldiers are there between William and David = 15 - 11 - 1 = 15 - 12 = 3
So, "3" soldiers are there between William and David
Hence, "Both I and II together are sufficient"

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 9
Julie can cover a distance of 140 m 18 seconds. At that given speed how much distance can Julie cover in 1 hour?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 9

Given:

Julie can cover a distance of 140 m 18 seconds

Concept used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Speed in m/sec = Speed in km/h × 5/18

Calculation:

Julie's speed in m/sec = 140/18

⇒ 70/9 m/sec

Now, according to the concept,

Julie's speed in km/h = (70/9) × (18/5)

⇒ 28 km/h

Julie can cover 28 km in 1 hour.

Shortcut Trick Use unitary method to solve the Question.

⇒ In 18 sec Julie covers = 140m

⇒ In 1 sec Julie covers = 140/18

⇒ In 1 hour (3600 sec) Julie covers = (140/18) × 3600

∴ Distance covered in 1 hr = 28000m = 28km

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 10

It was Friday on 2nd February 2007. What was the day of the week on 2nd February 2008?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 10

Given that,
2nd February 2007 is a Friday.
2nd February 2007 + 365 days = 2nd February 2008 (since 2008 is a leap year but we are counting only up to 2nd February)
365 days = 1 odd day
Therefore, 2nd February 2008 is Saturday.
Hence, the correct answer is "Saturday".
Additional Information
Year
- One year has 365 days or 366 days on this basis the year is divided into two parts:

  • Normal year - It has 365 days.
  • Leap year - It has 366 days and is completely divisible by 4.

Century leap year - The year which is exactly divisible by 400. Example - 1200, 1600, 2000 etc.
Counting Odd days
Ordinary Year:
365 days (52 weeks + 1 day)
= 1 Odd days
Leap Year: 366 days (52 weeks + 2 days)
= 2 Odd days

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 11
Who among the following Governor Generals introduced the Doctrine of Lapse?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 11

The correct answer is Lord Dalhousie.

Key Points

  • The chief instrument through which Lord Dalhousie implemented his policy of annexation was the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’.
    • Under the Doctrine of Lapse, when the ruler of a protected state died without a natural heir, his/her state was not to pass to an adopted heir as sanctioned by the age-old tradition of the country.
  • Lord Dalhousie came to India as the Governor-General in 1848.
  • Lord Dalhousie was keen on annexing the kingdom of Avadh.

Additional Information

  • Lord Auckland
    • Auckland was appointed Governor-General in the year 1836.
    • George Eden, earl of Auckland served from 1836 to 1842.
    • The first Anglo-Afghan war was fought during his tenure.
    • He is known for expansion of the commercial industry in India.
  • Lord William Bentinck (1828-1835):
    • During his tenure as Governor- General following were the various events that took place:
      • Abolition of sati and other cruel rites (1829).
      • Suppression of thugi (1830).
      • Charter Act of 1833.
      • Resolution of 1835, and educational reforms and introduction of English as the official language.
      • Annexation of Mysore (1831), Coorg (1834) and Central Cachar (1834).
      • Treaty of 'perpetual friendship with Ranjeet Singh.
      • Abolished the provincial court of appeal and circuit.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 12
If 11 -digit number 88p554085k6, k ≠ p, is divisible by 72, then what is the value of (3k + 2p)?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 12

Given:

11 -digit number 88p554085k6 is divisible by 72

k ≠ p

Concept used:

Divisibility Rule of 8 = If the last three digits of a number are divisible by 8, then the number is completely divisible by 8

Divisibility Rule of 9 = If the sum of digits of the number is divisible by 9, then the number itself is divisible by 9

Calculation:

⇒ 72 = 8 × 9

So, the number must be divisible by both 8 and 9

Now,

5k6 is divisible 8

Here possible values of k can be 3, 7

Now,

8 + 8 + p + 5 + 5 + 4 + 0 + 8 + 5 + 3 + 6 = 52 + p is divisble by 9

So, p = 2

8 + 8 + p + 5 + 5 + 4 + 0 + 8 + 5 + 7 + 6 = 56 + p is divisble by 9

So, p = 7

Now, 7 cannot be a possible value of p [∵ k ≠ p]

So, p = 2

Now,

(3k + 2p) = 3 × 3 + 2 × 2

⇒ 9 + 4

⇒ 13

∴ The required answer is 13.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 13

If Q means '+, J means 'x', T means '–', and K means '÷', then 52 K 4 Q 6 J 12 T 8 = ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 13

Decoding the information,

Given:

52 K 4 Q 6 J 12 T 8

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

= 52 ÷ 4 + 6 × 12 - 8

= 13 + 6 × 12 - 8

= 13 + 72 - 8

= 85 - 8

= 77

Hence, “77” is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 14
Who assumed additional charge of Secretary, Department of Defence Production on 30th November 2021?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 14

The correct answer is Ajay Kumar.

Key Points

  • The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has given the additional charge of Secretary of Department of Defence Production to the Defence Secretary Dr Ajay Kumar (IAS).
  • Defence Ministry has formulated a draft Defence Production and Export Promotion Policy 2020 (DPEPP-2020).
  • The policy aims to provide impetus to self-reliance in defence manufacturing under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme.
  • Its 1st goal is to achieve a turnover of Rs. 1,75,000 core including export of Rs. 35,000 Crore in the Aerospace and Defence goods and services by the year 2025.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 15
The time taken by a boat to go 7 km downstream is the same as the time taken by it to go 3 km upstream. It can go 14 km upstream and the same distance downstream in a total time of 6 hours. How much time (in hours) will it take to go 16.8 km upstream?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 15

Given:

The time taken by a boat to go 7 km downstream is the same as the time taken by it to go 3 km upstream

It can go 14 km upstream and the same distance downstream in a total time of 6 hours

Concept used:

Speed = Distance/time

Downstream speed = u + v

Upstream speed = u - v

Calculation:

Let the speed of the boat be u and the speed of the stream be v

According to the question,

So, speed in downstream = 7 km/h, and upstream = 3 km/h

So,

To go 16.8 km upstream will take = 16.8/3

⇒ 5.6 hours

It will take 5.6 hours to go 16.8 km upstream.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 16

In each of the given number-clusters, the number on the right side of = (the equal to sign) is calculated by performing certain mathematical operations on the three numbers on the left of = (the equal to sign). All three number-clusters follow the same pattern. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the third number-cluster.

36, 58, 21 = 23

41, 39, 20 = 20

39, 52, 34 = ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 16

The logic followed here is:

(1st number + 2nd number + 3rd number) ÷ 5 = RHS

Now follow the steps:

36, 58, 21 = 23

= (36 + 58 + 21) ÷ 5

= 115 ÷ 5

= 23 = RHS

And,

41, 39, 20 = 20

= (41 + 39 + 20) ÷ 5

= 100 ÷ 5

= 20 = RHS

Similarly,

39, 52, 34 = ?

= (39 + 52 + 34) ÷ 5

= 125 ÷ 5

= 25 = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "25".

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 17
Which of the following is NOT written by Kalidasa?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 17

The correct answer is Nitisara.

Key Points

  • Nitisara is NOT written by Kalidasa.
  • An old Indian treatise on politics and statecraft is called Nitisara or the Nitisara of Kamandaki.
  • It was written by Chanakya's student Kamandaka, also known as Kamandaki or Kamandakiya.
  • Despite the fact that it is actually a recension based on Sukra Nitisara of the fourth century BCE, current scholarship places its dating between the third and seventh centuries CE, between the Gupta and Harsha periods.
  • It is traditionally dated to the fourth and third centuries BCE. There are 19 sections in it.

Important Points

  • Mahakavi Kalidas, who is arguably the greatest Sanskrit virtuoso, wrote Abhigyan Shakuntalam about 2,500 years ago.
  • The most renowned Sanskrit poet, Kalidasa, is the author of the epic poem Raghuvaa in Sanskrit.
  • The four- or five-act Sanskrit play Vikramrvayam, written by the ancient Indian poet Kalidasa, is based on the Vedic love narrative between King Pururavas and the beautiful Apsar (celestial nymph) rva.

Additional Information

  • The finest poet and playwright of classical Sanskrit literature in ancient India is frequently regarded as Klidasa (c. 4th–5th century CE).
  • The Vedas, the Ramayana, the Mahabarata, and the Puranas are the main sources for his plays and poems.
  • Three plays, two epic poems, and two shorter poems are all that are left of his writings.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 18
The diameter of base of a right circular cone is 20 cm and its slant height is 10.5 cm. What is the curved surface area (in cm2) of the right circular cone? [Use π = ]
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 18

Given:

The diameter of the base of a right circular cone is 20 cm and its slant height is 10.5 cm

Concept used:

Diameter = Radius × 2

Curved surface area = πrl

where r = radius of the base and l = slant height

Calculation:

The radius of the base of a right circular cone = 20 ÷ 2 = 10 cm

Hence, the curved surface area of the right circular cone

⇒ π × 10 × 10.5

⇒ 330 cm2

∴ The curved surface area of the right circular cone is 330 cm2.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 19
Which of the following is the factor that causes the winter rain in the north-western part of India?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 19

The correct answer is Western disturbances.

Key Points

  • Rainfall throughout the winter in northwest India is brought on by western disturbances.
  • Westerlies are what cause this pattern.
  • The growth of the Rabi crop, which contains the crucial local grain wheat, is dependent on Western Disturbances in the northern subcontinent.
  • Over India in the winter, the north-east trade winds are dominant.
  • It is a dry season for most of the country since they blow from land to sea.
  • Winter precipitation across the plains and snowfall in the mountains are caused by them.
  • It is because the winds that blow through this area take moisture with them as they go from the sea to the land.

Important Points

  • India receives 125 cm of rain annually, with the monsoon season (June to September) accounting for 75% of the total.
  • Tamil Nadu and Kerala are the states in India that experience winter rains.
  • The North-East Monsoon is to blame for this. Only the southern region of India is affected by the northeast monsoon, which occurs between October and December.

Additional Information

  • The southwest monsoon enters the Indian subcontinent when the Indian subcontinent experiences high temperatures and low pressure throughout the summer, which draws air from the Indian Ocean.
  • Winter monsoons in the Indian Oceans, which last from October to April, are less well-known than their rainy summer counterparts.
  • An upper-level easterly wind that begins in late June and lasts until early September is referred to meteorologically as the "Tropical Easterly Jet".
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 20

According to the Constitution of India, free and compulsory education for children is mandatory up to the age of:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 20

The correct answer is 14 years.
Key Points
According to the Constitution of India, free and compulsory education for children is mandatory up to the age of 14 years.

  • Article 21A:
    • The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Rights
    • The Fundamental Rights have been described in Articles 12-35, Part III of the Indian Constitution.
    • The Right to Property, Article 31 was deleted from the list of Fundamental Act, 1978.
    • By the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, it is made a normal constitutional right under Act 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.
    • Article 21 of the Constitution provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
      • By the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, Article 21 (A) makes the right of education for children of the age of 6 to 14 years a fundamental right.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 21

Premier India off-spinner ___________ finished the 2019-21 World Test Championship cycle as the leading wicket-taker with 71 scalps to his credit.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 21

The correct answer is Ravichandran Ashwin.
Key Points

  • With 71 scalps under his belt, top Indian off-spinner Ravichandran Ashwin finished the 2019–21 World Test Championship cycle as the top wicket-taker.
  • The accomplishment was accomplished by the 34-year-old Tamil Nadu off-spinner against New Zealand in the World Test Championship final, which was his 14th Test within this WTC cycle.
  • Devon Conway of New Zealand was his 71st victim.
  • New Zealand won the first World T20 after defeating India by eight wickets under the leadership of Kane Williamson.
  • Pat Cummins of Australia, who has taken 70 wickets in 14 Test matches, came in second on the list, and Stuart Broad of England, who has taken 69 wickets in 17 matches, came in third.​

Important Points

  • The International Cricket Council (ICC) launched the ICC World Test Championship, a league tournament for Test cricket, on August 1, 2019.
  • It is meant to be the top competition for Test cricket. It supports the ICC's objective of having a championship match for each of the three international cricket formats.
  • The competition was originally supposed to replace the 2013 ICC Champions Trophy, however, those plans were scrapped. It was moved to June 2017, and a second Test championship was slated for February–March 2021 in India.

Additional Information
International Cricket Council (ICC)

  • Founded: 15 June 1909
  • Chairman: Greg Barclay
  • CEO: Geoff Allardice
  • Headquarters: Dubai, United Arab Emirates
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 22

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
MNL _ MNLL _ _ LLM _ LL _ NLL _ N

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 22

Given: M N L _ M N L L _ _ L L M _ L L _ N L L _ N
By checking options and substituting accordingly.
A) N M N M M LM N L N - M N L L - M N L L - M M L L - M N L L - L N

  • Here MNLL is repeated.

B) L N M N M MM N L L - M N L L - M N L L - M N L L - M N L L - M N
C) L M N N M M M N L L - M N L L - M N L L - M N L L - M N L L - M
D) L N N M M M → M N L L - M N L L - N N L L - M M L L - M N L L - M N
Hence, L M N N M M’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 23
As of January 2022, the Ministry of Textiles has approved how many projects in the field of Specialty Fibres and Geotextiles under the flagship programme National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM)?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 23

The correct answer is 20.

Key Points

  • The Ministry of Textiles has cleared 20 strategic research projects worth ₹30 crores in the areas of specialty fibers and geotextiles.
  • These strategic research projects fall under the government's flagship program ‘National Technical Textiles Mission.’
  • Previously, 11 research projects worth ₹78.60 crores were cleared by the ministry of textiles.

Additional Information

  • ​The Union Ministry of Textileshas launcheda campaign for Diwali- “Local4Diwali”.
  • Union Minister, Piyush Goyal virtually launched India’s first Digital Food Museum in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu.
  • The Union Minister for Commerce and Industry, Piyush Goyal has launched the ‘National Single Window System (NSWS)’, for investors and businesses.
  • Minister of Textiles: Shri Piyush Goyal (As of July 2022).
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 24

Seven friends K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting on a straight bench facing north. M and Q are not sitting at any of the extreme ends. K is sitting exactly at the middle position. Only P is sitting between Q and N. L is sitting third to the right of K. K is sitting to the immediate left of O.

Who is sitting at the extreme left end?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 24

Seven friends K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting on a straight bench facing north.
1) K is sitting exactly at the middle position.
2) L is sitting third to the right of K.
3) K is sitting to the immediate left of O.

4) Only P is sitting between Q and N.
5) M and Q are not sitting at any of the extreme ends.

  • Thus, we can see that Q cannot be sitting at the left end. Therefore, N sits at the left end.

6) Final sitting arrengment is:

So, "N" is sitting at the extreme left end.
Hence, the correct answer is "N".

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 25

Which of the following is NOT a SI unit?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 25

The correct answer is Calorie.
Key Point
The concept of Calory:

  • Calorie, a unit of heat energy in the metric system.
  • The measurement of heat is called calorimetry.
  • The calorie, or gram calorie, is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of pure water 1°C.
  • The kilocalorie is used in dietetics for stating the heat content of a food, i.e., the amount of heat energy that the food can yield as it passes through the body; in this context, the kilocalorie is usually called simply the calorie.
  • The amount of heat energy needed to effect a 1°C temperature increase in 1 gram of water varies with temperature (see heat capacity); thus the temperature range over which the heating takes place must be stated to define the calorie precisely.
  • The 15° calorie, or normal calorie, is widely used in chemistry and physics; it is measured by heating a 1-gram water sample from 14.5°C to 15.5°C at 1-atmosphere pressure.
  • The 4° calorie, also called the small calorie or therm, is measured from 3.5°C to 4.5°C (water is most dense at 3.98°C); the large calorie, or Calorie, is equivalent to 1,000 small calories.
  • The average value of the calorie in the range 0°C to 100°C is called the mean calorie; it is 1⁄100 of the energy needed to heat 1 gram of water from its melting point to its boiling point.
  • The calorie may also be defined by expressing its value in some other energy units.

Additional Information

  • Ohm
    • Ohm is denoted by symbol Ω. It is the Greek letter omega.
    • This is named after Georg Simon Ohm, a German physicist who studied the relationship between voltage, current, and resistance.
    • Resistance is the measurement of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit.
    • It is also defined as the ratio of the voltage applied to the electric current which flows through it.
    • The resistance of a material is directly proportional to the length and inversely proportional to the area of cross-section. It is also directly proportional to the resistivity of the material.
    • Conductors have less resistance and that is why current can flow easily through it. Insulators have high resistance and that is why current can not flow easily through it.
    • Ohm's law states that the electric current is proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to resistance. It is represented by V=IR.
  • Newton
    • Newton is the SI unit of force. And force equals the product of mass and acceleration.
    • SI unit of force = Newton
    • SI unit of mass = kg
    • SI unit of acceleration = m.sec-2.
    • Hence, 1 Newton is equals to, kg m.sec-2 . the other units do not satisfy the unit of Newton.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 26

Anthurium, named after a famous flower, is a major festival of which of the following states?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 26

The correct answer is Mizoram.
Key Points

  • Named after a famous flower, Anthurium is a major festival in Mizoram.
  • Anthurium is celebrated with an objective of promoting tourism and it is held in the month of September each year.
  • A small village called Reiek (about 70kms from capital city Aizawl) is the venue for this fest.
  • Folk dance, music and cuisine are the highlight of this festival.

Additional Information
Some important festivals of Mizoram

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 27

A is the sister of B and C. D is the father of C. E is the mother of A. Considering these facts, which of the following statements CANNOT be verified?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 27

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

We can dram following Family Tree from the information given above:

1) A is the sister of B and C.

2) D is the father of C.

3) E is the mother of A.

Now check all the options:

Option (A): E is the mother of B → True

Option (B): D is the father of A → True

Option (C): B is E's son → False (the gender of B is not known.)

Option (D): D is E's husband → True

Hence, "Option (C)" is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 28

The Sun temple at Konark, is popularly known as the __________.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 28

The correct answer is Black Pagoda.
Key Points
Konark:

  • The famous Konark Sun temple is situated in the town of Konark in Odisha.
  • This is one of the very few and famous Sun temples in India.
  • It is also known as the ‘Black Pagoda’ because it is built out of black granite.
  • It was made on the orders of King Narasimhadeva.
  • It reached the pinnacle of fame when UNESCO made it a world heritage site in 1984.
  • One of the highlights at the Konark Sun temple is the annual Konark Dance festival that is held every year in December and is devoted to Odissi, the classical dance of Odisha.
  • The temple is the centre of all celebrations and the gigantic chariot of Surya (Sun God) forms the backdrop to all the festivities.
  • This chariot has 12 pairs of ornamental wheels, which were supposed to be pulled by seven horses.​

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 29
A sum of money was invested at simple interest at r % per annum for 3 years. Had the rate of interest been (r + 2) %, it would have fetched Rs. 84 more. Find the sum invested.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 29

Given:

A sum of money was invested at simple interest at r % per annum for 3 years.

Had the rate of interest been (r + 2) %, it would have fetched Rs. 84 more.

Concept used:

Simple Interest, SI = (P × R × T)/100

where

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest per year

T = Time in years

Calculation:

Let the sum invested be Rs. P.

According to the question,

- = 84

⇒ P × = 84

⇒ P = (84 ÷ 6) × 100

⇒ P = 1400

∴ The sum invested is Rs. 1400.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 30

The following graph represents the number distribution of all the directors in the film industry of country X by their birth origin.

What is the ratio of the number of directors from the continent of America to the total number of directors?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-2) Question Paper (Held On: 13 June 2022 Shift 2) - Question 30

Calculation:
Total number of directors = 27 + 57 + 51 + 54 + 81 = 270
Total number of directors from the continent of America = 54
Hence, the ratio of the number of directors from the continent of America to the total number of directors = 54 : 270 = 1 : 5
∴ 1 : 5 is the ratio of the number of directors from the continent of America to the total number of directors.

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