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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test RRB NTPC - Previous Year Papers - RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1)

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2025 is part of RRB NTPC - Previous Year Papers preparation. The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) questions and answers have been prepared according to the RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA exam syllabus.The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) MCQs are made for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) below.
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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 1

If the difference between the mode and median is 2, then find the difference between the median and mean (in the given order) using empirical relation.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 1

Given:
Mode - Median = 2
Concept used
Mode = 3(Median) - 2(Mean)
Calculation:
Mode - Median = 2
⇒ Mode = 2 + Median ---(1)
We know that,
Mode = 3(Median) - 2(Mean)
From equation (1)
⇒ 2 + Median = 3(Median) - 2(Mean)
⇒ 2 + 2(Mean) = 3(Median) - Median
⇒ 2 + 2(Mean) = 2(Median)
1 + Mean = Median
So, Median - Mean = 1
The difference between the median and mean (in the given order) using empirical relation is 1.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 2

What is the sum of roots of the equation 2y2 - 6y - 7 = 0?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 2

Given:

The equation is 2y2 - 6y - 7 = 0

Concept used:

In a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 the Sum of roots

α + β = -b/a

Calculation:

According to the concept,

b = - 6

a = 2

So, The Sum of roots of the equation

⇒ α + β = - (-6)/2 

⇒ 6/2  = 3

∴ The required Sum of roots is 3.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 3

Vasco Da Gama landed at _______ in 1498.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 3

The correct answer is Calicut.

Key Points

  • Portuguese explorer Vasco Da Gama discovered the sea route from Portugal to India and came to India in 1498 at Calicut.
  • He belonged to Portugal and the discovery of the sea route became essential as the Ottomans occupied Constantinople (present-day Istanbul) and stopped the trade through the land route.
  • Vasco da Gama’s fleet arrived in Kappadu near Kozhikode (Calicut), on the Malabar Coast (present-day the Kerala state of India).
  • The King of Calicut at that time was Samudiri (Zamorin).
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 4

Five colleagues, Chand, Chandini, Nidhi, Vikram and Ajay, are sitting in a row facing north. Nidhi and Chandini occupy the extreme ends of the row. Vikram is sitting exactly in the centre. No two people with the name starting with the same letter are immediate neighbours of each other. Ajay is sitting to the immediate left of Vikram. Who sits in the right extreme?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 4

Five colleagues - Chand, Chandini, Nidhi, Vikram and Ajay, are sitting in a row facing north.

1. Nidhi and Chandini occupy the extreme ends of the row.

2. Vikram is sitting exactly in the centre.

3. Ajay is sitting to the immediate left of Vikram.

4. No two people with the name starting with the same letter are immediate neighbours of each other.

Clearly, Chand and Chandini are not immediate neighbours of each other from the above statement.

Case II is eliminated following the above statement.

So, the final arrangement will be as shown below:

Clearly, Nidhi sits in the right extreme.

Hence, 'Nidhi' is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 5
Which of the following is a noble gas?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 5

The correct answer is Helium.

Key Points

  • Inert gas or noble gas is gas that does not generally participate in chemical reactions and is always available in a free state.
  • All inert gases are colourless, odourless, and tasteless.
  • There are 7 elements in class 18(inert gases) of the periodic table- Helium (He), Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar), Krypton (Kr), Xenon (Xe), Radon (Rn), and Oganesson (Og).
  • Helium is used in the treatment of Asthma, Balloons, welding, etc.
  • Xenon is used in Photographic flashes, high-pressure lamps, NMR Spectroscopy.
  • Neon is used in TV Tubes, Signboards, Laser, etc.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 6
In December 2021, with whose support did the Indian Army establish the Quantum Lab in Madhya Pradesh?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 6

The correct answer is National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS).

Key Points

  • The Indian army, along with the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS), established a Quantum Lab to spearhead research and training at the Military College of Telecommunication and Engineering (MCTE) in Mhow, Madhya Pradesh.
  • Indian Army has also established an Artificial Intelligence (AI) Centre at the same institution.
  • Based in Mhow, MCTE provides an array of academic courses.
  • The Army War College, a defence service training and research institution of the Indian Army, is located in Mhow, Madhya Pradesh.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 7

If '÷' is replaced with '+','×' is replaced with '-','+' is replaced with '×' and '-' is replaced with '÷', then what will be the value of the given expression?

8 + 5 × 54 - 9 ÷ 3 = ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 7

BODMAS RULE:-

Given equation: 8 + 5 × 54 - 9 ÷ 3 = ?

After replacing the symbols by their meaning, we get:

L.H.S = 8 × 5 - 54 ÷ 9 + 3

= 8 × 5 - 6 + 3

= 40 – 6 + 3

= 43 – 6

= 37

Hence, ‘37’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 8

The ratio of incomes of A and B is 5 : 7 and the ratio of their savings is 2 : 3. If A and B spend ₹35,400 and ₹48,600, respectively, then what is the difference (in₹) between the incomes of B and A?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 8

Given:

The ratio of incomes of A and B is 5 : 7

The ratio of their savings is 2 : 3

A and B spend ₹35,400 and ₹48,600

Concept used:

Savings = Income - Expense

Caclulation:

Let the income of A and B be 5x and 7x and savings 2y and 3y

According to the question,

5x - 2y = 35400 ----(i)

7x - 3y = 48600 ----(ii)

By multiplying 3 with eq (i) and 2 with eq (ii) we get,

15x - 6y = 106200 ----(iii)

14x - 6y = 97200 ----(iv)

By subtracting eq (iv) from eq (iii) we get

x = 9000

So, incomes of A = 9000 × 5 = Rs. 45000

Income of B = 9000 × 7 = Rs. 63000

Difference = 63000 - 45000

⇒ Rs. 18000

The difference (in₹) between the incomes of B and A is 18000.

Alternate Method 

Now, according to the question,

(5x - 35400)/(7x - 48600) = 2/3

⇒ 15x - 106200 = 14x - 97200

⇒ x = 9000

Difference (in₹) between the incomes of B and A

7x - 5x = 2x = 2 × (9000) = 18000

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 9

In ΔABC, the bisectors of B and C intersect at P inside the triangle. If BPC = 128°, then what is the measure of A?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 9

Give:

∠BPC = 128°

Concept used:

In a ΔABC angle at the meeting points of internal angle bisectors of ∠B and ∠C = 90° + ∠A/2

Calculation:

According to the concept,

∠A/2 + 90° = ∠BPC

⇒ ∠A/2 + 90° = 128°

⇒ ∠A/2 = 128° - 90°

⇒ ∠A/2 = 38°

⇒ ∠A = 38° × 2 = 76°

∴ The measure of ∠A is 76°.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 10

In a certain code language, the letters of the English alphabet are coded as per their alphabetical order (A as 1 and Z as 26). However, if a consonant is immediately followed as well as preceded by a vowel, its code would be '77'.

What will be the code for 'WHITEN' in this language?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 10

The pattern/logic followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

The code for T will be 77 as it is immediately followed as well as preceded by a vowel.

Hence, ‘238977514’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 11
The difference between 12% gain and 4% loss on sale of the item was ₹28. What was the cost price of the item?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 11

Given:

The difference between 12% gain and 4% loss on sale of the item was ₹28

Concept used:

SP = CP + CP × gain%

SP = CP - CP × loss%

Here

SP = selling price

CP = cost price

Calculation:

Let the CP of the item be 100a

SP at 12% gain on CP = 100a + 100a × 12%

⇒ 112a

SP at 4% of loss on CP = 100a - 100a × 4%

⇒ 96a

According to the question,

112a - 96a = 28

⇒ 16a = 28

⇒ a = 28/16

Now, CP = 100 × (28/16)

⇒ Rs. 175

The cost price of the item is Rs. 175.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 12
If 75% of a number is added to 75, then the result is the number itself. The number is:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 12

Given:

If 75% of a number is added to 75, then the result is the number itself.

Calculation:

Let the number be 100a

According to the question,

100a × 75% + 75 = 100a

⇒ 75a + 75 = 100a

⇒ 75 = 100a - 75a

⇒ 75 = 25a

⇒ a = 75/25 = 3

So, the number = 100 × 3

⇒ 300

∴ The number is 300.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 13

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used in a Windows 10 system to switch between open applications?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 13

The correct answer is Alt + Tab.

Key Points

  • Alt+Tab
    • The keyboard shortcut is most often used to switch between open programs in Microsoft Windows 10.
  • Alt + S
    • ​Alt+S is a keyboard shortcut most often used to open the slide show settings in PowerPoint.
  • Ctrl + S​
    • ​In Microsoft Word and other word processors, pressing Ctrl + S saves the current document.
  • Ctrl + Tab​
    • Ctrl+Tab is a keyboard shortcut most often used to switch between open tabs in a browser.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 14

If x = 23 ​× 32 ​× 5 ​× 73 ,y = 22 ​× 33 ​× 52 ​× 72 , and z = 24 ​× 3 ​× 53× 7 ,

then the HCF of x, y and z is:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 14

Given:

x = 23 ​× 32 ​× 5 ​× 73

y = 22 ​× 33 ​× 52 ​× 72

z = 24 ​× 3 ​× 53× 7

Concept used:

HCF = the greatest number which divides each of the two or more numbers

Calculation:

x = 22 ​× 2 × 3 × 3 ​× 5 ​× 7 × 72

y = 22 ​× 3 × 32 ​× 5 × 5 ​× 7 × 7

z = 22 × 22 ​× 3 ​× 5 × 52 ​× 7

So,

HCF = 22 ​× 3 ​× 5 × 7

⇒ 420

∴ Required HCF is 420.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 15
A can complete a piece of work in 10 days. B is 25% more efficient than A. How many days will B alone take to complete the same work?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 15

Given:

A can complete a piece of work in 10 days

B is 25% more efficient than A.

Concept used:

Total work = efficiency of the worker × time taken by him

Calculation:

Let A's efficiency is 4a

So, B's efficiency = 4a + 4a × 25%

⇒ 5a

Now,

total work = 4a × 10

⇒ 40a

So, B will take to complete the task = 40a/5a

⇒ 8 days

B alone will take 8 days to complete the same work.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 16
By which other name is the festival Gudi Padwa known in Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 16

The correct answer is Ugadi.

Key Points

  • The festival Gudi Padwa is known in Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh by the name of Ugadi.
  • Ugadi is celebrated as the New Year of the Telugu and Kannada people.
  • The festival is known by different names in different states.
  • It is known by the name of ‘Ugadi’ by the people of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
  • The name ‘Gudi Padwa’ is used by the people of Maharashtra and Cheti Chand by Sindhis.
  • The festival of Ugadi is celebrated in April every year.
  • The festival falls according to the lunisolar calendar.

Additional Information

  • Baisakhi
    • ​Baisakhi has been a harvest festival in Punjab and also in northern India for a long time.
    • In 1699, Guru Gobind Singh chose the festival as the moment to establish the Khalsa.
    • Celebrated annually on 13 April and sometimes 14 April as a celebration of spring harvest primarily in Northern India.
  • Akshay Tritiya
    • The festival of Akshaya Tritiya is celebrated by Hindus and Jains around the world.
    • Also known as Akti or Akha Teej, this day is believed to be one of the most auspicious occasions.
    • ​According to the Hindu calendar, Akshaya Tritiya falls on the third tithi (lunar day) of Shukla Paksha of the Vaishakha month.
    • Going by the Gregorian calendar, it falls somewhere around April and May.
    • One of the most important rituals includes worshipping Lord Vishnu on this day.
    • As per common belief, buying gold and properties on this day brings prosperity and wealth in the future.
  • Pongal
    • ​Pongal is a harvest festival celebrated by the Tamil community.
    • It is a celebration to thank the Sun, Mother Nature, and the various farm animals that help to contribute to a bountiful harvest.
    • Celebrated over four days, Pongal also marks the beginning of the Tamil month called Thai, which is considered an auspicious month.
    • It usually falls on the 14th or 15th of January each year.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 17

Who among the following is considered as the father of Plate Tectonics?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 17

The correct answer is Alfred Wegener.

Key Points

  • Continental Drift Theory (Alfred Wegener).
    • Continental drift theory was proposed by Alfred Wegener in 1912.
    • It was first put forward by Abraham Ortelius in 1596 before fully being developed by Albert Wegener.
    • The theory deals with the distribution of the oceans and the continents.
    • According to Wegener’s Continental Drift theory, all the continents were one single continental mass (called a Supercontinent) – Pangaea and a Mega Ocean surrounded this supercontinent. The Mega Ocean is known by the name Panthalassa.
    • Although Wegener's initial theory did not cover mantle convection until Arthur Holmes later proposed the theory.
    • According to this theory, the supercontinent, Pangaea, began to split some two hundred million years back.
    • Pangaea first split into 2 big continental masses known as Gondwanaland and Laurasia forming the southern and northern modules respectively.
    • Later, Gondwanaland and Laurasia continued to break into several smaller continents that exist today.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 18

The area of a rectangular field, whose sides are in the ratio 13 : 5, is 260 m². What is the perimeter of the rectangular field?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 18

Given:

Side ratio of the rectangle = 13 : 5

Area of the rectangle = 260 m2

Formula used:

Area of the rectangle = (l × b)

Perimeter of the rectange = 2(l + b)

l = length

b = breadth

Calculation:

Let the sides of the rectangle be 13a and 5a

According to the question,

13a × 5a = 260

⇒ 65a2 = 260

⇒ a2 = 4

⇒ a = 2

So, sides are 13 × 2 = 26, and 5 × 2 = 10

Now,

Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(26 + 10)

⇒ 2 × 36 = 72

So, perimeter of the rectangle = 72 m

∴ The perimeter of the rectangular field is 72 m

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 19

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the equation correct?

12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 19

BODMAS Rule:-

A. × and +

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 + 3 ÷ 4 × 6 - 2

= 12 + 4.5 – 2

= 16.5 – 2

= 14.5 ≠ R.H.S

B. ÷ and +

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 × 3 + 4 ÷ 6 - 2

= 36 + 0.67 – 2

= 36.67 – 2

= 34.67 ≠ R.H.S

C. + and –

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 × 3 ÷ 4 - 6 + 2

= 9 – 6 + 2

= 11 – 6

= 5 ≠ R.H.S

D. × and ÷

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 ÷ 3 × 4 + 6 - 2

= 16 + 6 – 2

= 22 – 2

= 20 = R.H.S

Hence, ‘× and ÷’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 20

What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹19,500 invested for 1 2/5  years at 10% p.a., interest compounded annually?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 20

Given:

Sum = Rs. 19500

Rate = 10%

Time =  1 2/5 years

Concept used:

A = P(1 + r/100)n

Interest = A - P

A = amount

P = principal or sum

r = rate

n = time

Calculation:

Interest rate for 2/5 years = 10 × (2/5) = 4%

Now,

A = 19500(1 + 10/100)1 × (1 + 10/100)2/5

⇒ A = 19500(1 + 10/100) × (1 + 4/100)

⇒ A = 19500(1 + 1/10) × (1 + 1/25)

⇒ A = 19500(11/10) × (26/25)

⇒ A = 22308

So, interest of the given years = 22308 - 19500

⇒ Rs. 2808

∴ Required compound interest is Rs. 2808.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 21

Avinash is ranked 11th from the top in the class and Ira is ranked 7th from the bottom. If their positions get interchanged, Avinash will rank 15th from the top and Ira is ranked 11th from the bottom. How many total students appeared for the exam?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 21

Given:

  1. Avinash is ranked 11th from the top in the class.
  2. Ira is ranked 7th from the bottom.

If their positions get interchanged, Avinash will rank 15th from the top and Ira is ranked 11th from the bottom.

Total students appeared for the exams :

Ira's rank from the bottom + After interchanged position Avinash's rank from the top (Ira's rank from the top) - 1

= 7 + 15 - 1 = 22 -1 = 21

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (C): 21".

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 22

The value of ( × ÷ ) × - is:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 22

Given:

( × ÷ ) × -

Concept used:

Calculation:

( × ÷ ) × -

⇒ ( × × ) × -

⇒ 4 × 3/8 - 2/3

⇒ 3/2 - 2/3

⇒ 9 - 4/6

⇒ 5/6

∴ Required answer is 5/6 .

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 23
According to the Industrial Policy Statement of 1973, the private sector was allowed to apply for the license of their industry only after having a total assets of ₹ ______ or more.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 23

The correct answer is 20 crores.

Key Points

  • According to the Industrial Policy Statement of 1973:
    • the private sector was allowed to apply for the license of their industry only after having total assets of Rs. 20 crores or more.

Important Points

  • Industrial Policy Statement, 1973
  • Core Industries
    • The policy introduced a new classification of ‘Core Industries’.
    • It included six industries that were of fundamental importance for developing other industries – Iron & Steel, Cement, Coal, Crude Oil, Oil Refining & electricity.
    • Note: At that time, there were 6 Core Industries. Now there are 8:
      • Coal
      • Crude Oil
      • Cement
      • Fertilizer
      • Electricity
      • Refinery Products
      • Natural Gas
      • Steel

Additional Information

  • Private Companies
    • Private Companies may apply for licenses under Core industries if they aren’t covered under Schedule A.
    • They were eligible only if their total assets were above Rs. 20 crores.
  • Reserved List
    • Some industries were put under a reserved list in which only MSME could set up industry.
  • Joint Sector
    • It allowed partnership between the centre, states & private sector for setting up some industries.
    • The government had discretionary power to exit such ventures in the future.
    • The intention was to promote the private sector with government support.
  • FERA
    • Foreign Exchange Regulation Act was introduced to regulate foreign exchange in India.
    • According to experts, it was draconian law that hampered the country’s growth.
  • Foreign Investment
    • Limited permission for foreign investment was given, with MNCs being allowed to set up subsidiaries in India.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 24
If , where y > 0, then the value of y is:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 24

Calculation:

⇒ y = 44 = 256

∴ Required answer is 256.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 25

Which of the following river basins is the most populated in the world?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 25

The correct answer is Ganga.

Key Points

  • The Ganga System
    • The Ganga is the most important river of India both from the point of view of its basin and cultural significance.
    • It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi.
    • It cuts through the Central and the Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges.
    • At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; hereafter, it is known as the Ganga.
    • The Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier above Badrinath.
      • The Alaknanda consists of the Dhauli and the Vishnu Ganga which meet at Joshimath or Vishnu Prayag.
      • The other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar joins it at Karna Prayag while Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets it at Rudra Prayag.
    • The Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar. From here, it flows first to the south, then to the south-east and east before splitting into two distributaries, namely the Bhagirathi and the Padma.
    • The river has a length of 2,525 km.
    • It is shared by Uttarakhand (110 km) and Uttar Pradesh (1,450 km), Bihar (445 km) and West Bengal (520 km).

Additional Information

  • Nile
    • ​The Nile is the longest river in the world and is called the father of African rivers.
    • It rises south of the Equator and flows northward through northeastern Africa to drain into the Mediterranean Sea.
    • Drainage countries - Parts of Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Kenya, Uganda, South Sudan, Ethiopia, Sudan, and the cultivated part of Egypt.
    • Lake Victoria, also called Victoria Nyanza, the largest lake in Africa and the chief reservoir of the Nile, lying mainly in Tanzania and Uganda but bordering on Kenya.
  • Mississippi
    • The Mississippi River is the 2nd longest river in North America.
    • Its source at Lake Itasca through the centre of the continental United States to the Gulf of Mexico.
    • The Missouri River is a tributary of the Mississippi River.
    • The Mississippi-Missouri River (5,970km), combination ranks 4th compared to other rivers of the World.
  • Amazon
    • It is the largest river by discharge volume of water in the world.
    • The Amazon river originates in the Andes Mountains of Peru.
    • It flows through the countries of Peru, Bolivia, Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, and Brazil.
    • Amazon river discharges its water into the Atlantic Ocean.
    • There are no bridges across the entire width of the Amazon river.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 26
Determine the number of months required to get ₹25.5 as simple interest on ₹850 at 3.6% per annum.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 26

Given:

Sum = Rs. 850

Rate = 3.6%

Interest = 25.5

Concept used:

S.I = PTR/100

P = Principal or sum

R = rate

T = time

Calculation:

Let the time be a months

According to the question,

25.5 = [(850 × 3.6 × a)/(100 × 12)]

⇒ 25.5 = 2.55a

⇒ a = 25.5/2.55

⇒ a = 10

So, the actual time needs to get the interest = 10 months

∴ Required time to get the required interest is 10 months.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 27

Assuming 8th March 2013 was a Wednesday, what day of the week was 8th March 2014?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 27

The total number of odd days from 8th March 2013 to 8th March 2014 are

Total Odd days = 1

Given:

8th March 2013 → Wednesday

2014 is an ordinary year, so 8th March 2014 will be one day ahead of 8th March 2013.

Therefore, it will be Thursday on 8th March 2014.

Hence, ‘Thursday’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 28
The Parliament of India comprises of:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 28

The correct answer is President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha.

Key Points

  • Article- 79: There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.

Additional Information

  • Indian Parliament:
    • Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India.
    • The Indian Parliament comprises the President and the two Houses - Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and Lok Sabha (House of the People).
    • The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha.
    • The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950.
    • The first general elections under the new Constitution were held during the year 1951-52 and the first elected Parliament came into existence in April 1952.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 29

Which of the following was the leading oil producing country in the world for the year 2020, according to US Energy Information Administration?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 29

The correct answer is USA.

Key Points

  • According to US Energy Information Administration, the USA is the leading oil-producing country in the world for the year 2020.
  • The 10 largest oil producers and share of total world oil production in 2020-21.

Additional Information
The 10 largest oil consumers and share of total world oil consumption in 2020-21.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 30

Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related with the Executive powers of the Union?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 30

The correct answer is 53.

Key Points Article 53: Executive Power of the Union

  • The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.
  • Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union Shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.
  • Nothing in this article shall
    • be deemed to transfer to the President any functions conferred by any existing law on the Government of any State or other authority; or
    • prevent Parliament from conferring by law functions on authorities other than the President.

Thus, we can conclude that under Article 53 of the Constitution of India, the executive power of the union is vested in the President.

Additional Information

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