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SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Bank Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 for Bank Exams 2025 is part of Bank Exams preparation. The SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Bank Exams exam syllabus.The SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 MCQs are made for Bank Exams 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 below.
Solutions of SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 questions in English are available as part of our course for Bank Exams & SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 solutions in Hindi for Bank Exams course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for Bank Exams Exam by signing up for free. Attempt SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 | 165 questions in 180 minutes | Mock test for Bank Exams preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for Bank Exams Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 1
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Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following statements from given columns are sufficient to answer the given question.

Eight boxes – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are kept one above the other in a form of a stack. Which of the following box is kept immediately above D?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 1
From II, IV, and VIII we have

Clearly, box A is kept immediate above D.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 2
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Direction: Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follow.

Two persons X and Y starts from a point G. X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G. He then turns left from point F and walks 6 m. He then moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A. X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m. He then turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A. Point C is in north of point K. Y moves 12 m in west from point G. He then turns left from point H and walks for 4 m. He then turns right from point I and walks for 5 m. He then turns right from point J and walks for 4 m. He then turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.

What is the shortest distance between point (A) and point E?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 2
Given,

Two persons X and Y starts from a point G.

X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G.

Then he turns left from point F and walks 6 m.

Then he moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A.

X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m.

Then he turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A.

Point C is in north of point K.

Y moves 12 m in west from point G.

Then he turns left from point H and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns right from point I and walks for 5 m.

Then he turns right from point J and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

Shortest distance between A and E

Hence, the correct option is (D).

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SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 3
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Direction: Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follow.

Two persons X and Y starts from a point G. X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G. He then turns left from point F and walks 6 m. He then moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A. X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m. He then turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A. Point C is in north of point K. Y moves 12 m in west from point G. He then turns left from point H and walks for 4 m. He then turns right from point I and walks for 5 m. He then turns right from point J and walks for 4 m. He then turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.

What is the shortest distance between D and H?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 3
Given,

Two persons X and Y starts from a point G.

X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G.

Then he turns left from point F and walks 6 m.

Then he moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A.

X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m.

Then he turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A.

Point C is in north of point K.

Y moves 12 m in west from point G.

Then he turns left from point H and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns right from point I and walks for 5 m.

Then he turns right from point J and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

Shortest distance between D and H = FG – BC = 12 – 8 = 4

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 4
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Direction: Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follow.

Two persons X and Y starts from a point G. X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G. He then turns left from point F and walks 6 m. He then moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A. X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m. He then turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A. Point C is in north of point K. Y moves 12 m in west from point G. He then turns left from point H and walks for 4 m. He then turns right from point I and walks for 5 m. He then turns right from point J and walks for 4 m. He then turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.

In which direction is point D with respect to point H?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 4
Given,

Two persons X and Y starts from a point G.

X moves 12 m in the north direction from point G.

Then he turns left from point F and walks 6 m.

Then he moves south-west from point E and walks 10 m till point D, which is in south of point A.

X then moves 5 m west from point D and then turns right from point C and walks for 8 m.

Then he turns right from point B and walks for 5 m till point A.

Point C is in north of point K.

Y moves 12 m in west from point G.

Then he turns left from point H and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns right from point I and walks for 5 m.

Then he turns right from point J and walks for 4 m.

Then he turns left from point K and walks for 5 m till point L.

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 5
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Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting around the two square tables facing the centre of the table. One square table is inscribed inside another table. The area of inner table is 576cm2. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. Maximum three persons sit around each side. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around outer table is either 11cm or 22cm. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around inner table is either 6cm or 12cm. Persons can sit on each side or corner. Only two persons sit at the corners of inner table. Three persons sit on the corners of outer table. Distance between any two persons are calculated only around the perimeter of the square. No seat is vacant. Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square.

Immediate neighbours of B are 6cm away from him. W is adjacent to both the persons who sits at the corners. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. T sits opposite to Y around the same table. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square.

K is second person to the left of S in outer square. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides. V and P sit opposite to each other. R and X sit on the same side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table. P is 55 cm to the right of Q. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W.

Who sits fourth to the right of G?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 5
Given that the area of inner table is 576cm2. So, each side must be 24cm. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. So each side must be 44cm. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table.

No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W. Immediate neighbours of B are 6 cm away from him. W is adjacent to the both the persons who sits at the corners.

Inner table:

Given that V and P sit opposite to each other. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. It means V and P must be in outer square.

Further P is 55cm to the right of Q. Also, Q must be 11cm away from one of the corners. Also, three persons sit on the side of Q. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides.

Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square. K is second person to the left of S in outer square. R and X sit on the same side. As number of persons in outer square are 9. So, there must be 11 persons in inner square. Therefore, case 2 will be eliminated. Hence case 1 is the final arrangement.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 6
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Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting around the two square tables facing the centre of the table. One square table is inscribed inside another table. The area of inner table is 576cm2. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. Maximum three persons sit around each side. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around outer table is either 11cm or 22cm. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around inner table is either 6cm or 12cm. Persons can sit on each side or corner. Only two persons sit at the corners of inner table. Three persons sit on the corners of outer table. Distance between any two persons are calculated only around the perimeter of the square. No seat is vacant. Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square.

Immediate neighbours of B are 6cm away from him. W is adjacent to both the persons who sits at the corners. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. T sits opposite to Y around the same table. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square.

K is second person to the left of S in outer square. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides. V and P sit opposite to each other. R and X sit on the same side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table. P is 55 cm to the right of Q. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W.

Who sits fifth to the right of Z?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 6
Given that the area of inner table is 576cm2. So, each side must be 24cm. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. So each side must be 44cm. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table.

No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W. Immediate neighbours of B are 6 cm away from him. W is adjacent to the both the persons who sits at the corners.

Inner table:

Given that V and P sit opposite to each other. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. It means V and P must be in outer square.

Further P is 55cm to the right of Q. Also, Q must be 11cm away from one of the corners. Also, three persons sit on the side of Q. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides.

Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square. K is second person to the left of S in outer square. R and X sit on the same side. As number of persons in outer square are 9. So, there must be 11 persons in inner square. Therefore, case 2 will be eliminated. Hence case 1 is the final arrangement.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 7
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Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting around the two square tables facing the centre of the table. One square table is inscribed inside another table. The area of inner table is 576cm2. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. Maximum three persons sit around each side. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around outer table is either 11cm or 22cm. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around inner table is either 6cm or 12cm. Persons can sit on each side or corner. Only two persons sit at the corners of inner table. Three persons sit on the corners of outer table. Distance between any two persons are calculated only around the perimeter of the square. No seat is vacant. Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square.

Immediate neighbours of B are 6cm away from him. W is adjacent to both the persons who sits at the corners. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. T sits opposite to Y around the same table. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square.

K is second person to the left of S in outer square. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides. V and P sit opposite to each other. R and X sit on the same side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table. P is 55 cm to the right of Q. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W.

How many persons sit between R and B when counted from the left of R?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 7
Given that the area of inner table is 576cm2. So, each side must be 24cm. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. So each side must be 44cm. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table.

No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W. Immediate neighbours of B are 6 cm away from him. W is adjacent to the both the persons who sits at the corners.

Inner table:

Given that V and P sit opposite to each other. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. It means V and P must be in outer square.

Further P is 55cm to the right of Q. Also, Q must be 11cm away from one of the corners. Also, three persons sit on the side of Q. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides.

Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square. K is second person to the left of S in outer square. R and X sit on the same side. As number of persons in outer square are 9. So, there must be 11 persons in inner square. Therefore, case 2 will be eliminated. Hence case 1 is the final arrangement.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 8
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Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting around the two square tables facing the centre of the table. One square table is inscribed inside another table. The area of inner table is 576cm2. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. Maximum three persons sit around each side. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around outer table is either 11cm or 22cm. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around inner table is either 6cm or 12cm. Persons can sit on each side or corner. Only two persons sit at the corners of inner table. Three persons sit on the corners of outer table. Distance between any two persons are calculated only around the perimeter of the square. No seat is vacant. Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square.

Immediate neighbours of B are 6cm away from him. W is adjacent to both the persons who sits at the corners. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. T sits opposite to Y around the same table. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square.

K is second person to the left of S in outer square. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides. V and P sit opposite to each other. R and X sit on the same side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table. P is 55 cm to the right of Q. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W.

What is the shortest distance between Q and U?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 8
Given that the area of inner table is 576cm2. So, each side must be 24cm. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. So each side must be 44cm. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table.

No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W. Immediate neighbours of B are 6 cm away from him. W is adjacent to the both the persons who sits at the corners.

Inner table:

Given that V and P sit opposite to each other. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. It means V and P must be in outer square.

Further P is 55cm to the right of Q. Also, Q must be 11cm away from one of the corners. Also, three persons sit on the side of Q. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides.

Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square. K is second person to the left of S in outer square. R and X sit on the same side. As number of persons in outer square are 9. So, there must be 11 persons in inner square. Therefore, case 2 will be eliminated. Hence case 1 is the final arrangement.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 9
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Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting around the two square tables facing the centre of the table. One square table is inscribed inside another table. The area of inner table is 576cm2. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. Maximum three persons sit around each side. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around outer table is either 11cm or 22cm. The distance between any two adjacent persons on any side around inner table is either 6cm or 12cm. Persons can sit on each side or corner. Only two persons sit at the corners of inner table. Three persons sit on the corners of outer table. Distance between any two persons are calculated only around the perimeter of the square. No seat is vacant. Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square.

Immediate neighbours of B are 6cm away from him. W is adjacent to both the persons who sits at the corners. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. T sits opposite to Y around the same table. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square.

K is second person to the left of S in outer square. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides. V and P sit opposite to each other. R and X sit on the same side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table. P is 55 cm to the right of Q. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W.

How many persons sit in the inner arrangement?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 9
Given that the area of inner table is 576cm2. So, each side must be 24cm. The perimeter of outer table is 176cm. So each side must be 44cm. Y is 18cm to the right of B who sits in the middle of the side. Y is second person to the left of G, who sits at one of the corners. W and B are opposite to each other around the same table.

No one sits between W and G when counted from the left of W. Immediate neighbours of B are 6 cm away from him. W is adjacent to the both the persons who sits at the corners.

Inner table:

Given that V and P sit opposite to each other. One person sits in the middle of each side of outer square. V sits nearest and opposite to G’s seat. V is third person to the left of Q. Z and V are not adjacent to each other. It means V and P must be in outer square.

Further P is 55cm to the right of Q. Also, Q must be 11cm away from one of the corners. Also, three persons sit on the side of Q. Z is second person to the left of U, who is not adjacent to P. Z and U sit in the middle of one of the sides.

Number of persons around inner square is 2 more than number of persons around outer square. R is immediate left of X, who is not opposite to anyone around inner square. K is second person to the left of S in outer square. R and X sit on the same side. As number of persons in outer square are 9. So, there must be 11 persons in inner square. Therefore, case 2 will be eliminated. Hence case 1 is the final arrangement.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 10
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Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following statements from given columns are sufficient to answer the given question.

Seven persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V visited a place during a week starting from Monday to Sunday but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the following person visited immediately before T?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 10

Clearly, V visited immediately before T.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 11
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Direction: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) forecasted an increase in growth rate for India in the following years. If the projections are taken into the account, then by the upcoming year India would surpass China as the world’s fastest-growing major economy.

China is currently the world’s fastest-growing major economy.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 11
It can be inferred that by the upcoming year, India would surpass China as the world’s fastest-growing major economy. So, China is currently the world’s fastest-growing major economy.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 12
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In the question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.’

Strong’ arguments are one which are both important and directly related to the question.

‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to trivial aspect of the question.

Statement: Many schools are having to do away with their music education programs. This is a mistake, with schools losing not only an enjoyable subject, but a subject that can enrich students’ lives and education.

Which of the following steps weakens the above thoughts?

(I) Students who have early musical training will develop the areas of the brain related to language and reasoning. The left side of the brain is better developed with music, and songs can help imprint information on young minds.

(II) The programs for foreign language learning or legitimate computer programming classes at a young age would help provide our children with more value in the future since they shall always be in demand.

(III) There aren't many musicians that make more than 100k a year, while there are many engineers who do.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 12
Statement (I) supports the fact that music classes should be continued

Statement (II) weakens the thought since it says other courses yield better results than the music class

Statement (III) weakens the thought since it says music as a career option is not good.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 13
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Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

In a family of eight members – B, F, G, H, L, M, R, and S. Two married couples are there in the family. Each person has different number of toffees. M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R. R’s father-in-law is married to L. S is the only daughter of L. R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law. S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member. F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G. G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B. F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.

How the one who has 14 toffees is related to M?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 13
We have:
  • M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R.
  • R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law.
  • R’s father-in-law is married to L.
  • S is the only daughter of L.
  • S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member.
  • F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G.
  • G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B.
  • F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.
  • Each person has different number of toffees.

Since, two married couples are there in the family, thus G must be married to R.

Based on the above given information we have:

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 14
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Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

In a family of eight members – B, F, G, H, L, M, R, and S. Two married couples are there in the family. Each person has different number of toffees. M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R. R’s father-in-law is married to L. S is the only daughter of L. R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law. S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member. F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G. G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B. F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.

How the one who has 147 toffees is related to H?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 14
We have:
  • M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R.
  • R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law.
  • R’s father-in-law is married to L.
  • S is the only daughter of L.
  • S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member.
  • F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G.
  • G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B.
  • F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.
  • Each person has different number of toffees.
  • Since, two married couples are there in the family, thus G must be married to R.

Based on the above given information we have:

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 15
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Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

In a family of eight members – B, F, G, H, L, M, R, and S. Two married couples are there in the family. Each person has different number of toffees. M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R. R’s father-in-law is married to L. S is the only daughter of L. R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law. S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member. F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G. G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B. F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.

What is the sum of the number of toffees does M’s father and H’s wife have?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 15
We have:
  • M has 504 toffees initially. M takes 27 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his mother R.
  • R takes 1/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to her father-in-law.
  • R’s father-in-law is married to L.
  • S is the only daughter of L.
  • S’s father takes 24 toffees and gives the remaining toffees to F, who is an unmarried member.
  • F takes 2/3rd of the toffees and gives the remaining toffees to his brother G.
  • G gives 64 toffees to his father-in-law B.
  • F gives 1/4th of his toffees to his sister, who gives 35 toffees to his mother.

Each person has different number of toffees.

Since, two married couples are there in the family, thus G must be married to R.

Based on the above given information we have:

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 16
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Direction: In the following questions, the symbols /\, \/, <>, >< and () are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘P /\ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘P \/ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P () Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’

‘P >< Q’ means P is greater than Q’.

‘P <> Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements:

R <> S, S >< Q, R <> T, P \/ Q

Conclusions:

I. R >< P

II. S () T

III. R >< Q
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 16
According to the given information,

Statements: R < /> S, S >< q,="" r="" />< /> T, P \/ Q

On converting: R ≥ S, S > Q, R ≥ T, P ≤ Q

On combining: P ≤ Q < s="" ≤="" r;="" t="" ≤="" />

Conclusions:

I. R >< p="" →="" r="" /> P → True (as P ≤ Q < s="" ≤="" />

II. S () T → S = T → False (as S ≤ R; T ≤ R → T ≤ R ≥ S)

III. R >< q="" →="" r="" /> Q → True (as Q < s="" ≤="" />

So, only the conclusions I and III are True.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 17
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Direction: In the following questions, the symbols /\, \/, <>, >< and () are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘P /\ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘P \/ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P () Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’

‘P >< Q’ means P is greater than Q’.

‘P <> Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements:

C () B, C \/ D, A /\ C, E \/ F, B >< E

Conclusions:

I. B \/ D

II. F /\ B

III. C /\ D
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 17
According to the given information,

Given Statement: C () B, C \/ D, A /\ C, E \/ F, B >< />

On converting: C = B, C ≤ D, A < c,="" e="" ≤="" f,="" b="" /> E

On combining: A < c="B" ≤="" d;="" e="" />< b="C" ≤="" d;="" e="" />< />

Conclusions:I. B \/ D → B ≤ D → True (as B ≤ D)

II. F /\ B → F < b="" →="" false="" (as="" f="" /> E < b="C" ≤="" d="" relation="" between="" f="" and="" b="" can’t="" be="" />

III. C /\ D → C < d="" →="" false="" (as="" e="" />< b="C" ≤="" />

So, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 18
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Direction: In the following questions, the symbols /\, \/, <>, >< and () are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘P /\ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘P \/ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P () Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’

‘P >< Q’ means P is greater than Q’.

‘P <> Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements:

F <> I, E >< G, H /\ I, F ( ) G

Conclusions:

I. G ( ) I

II. F <> E

III. G >< I
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 18
According to the given information,

Statements: F < /> I, E >< g,="" h="" i,="" f="" ()="" />

On converting: F ≥ I, E > G, H < i,="" f="" />

On combining: H < i="" ≤="" f="G" />< />

Conclusions:

I. G () I → G = I → False (as I ≤ F = G → I ≤ G)

II. F < /> E → F ≥ E → False (as F = G < e="" →="" f="" />< />

III. G >< i="" →="" g="" /> I → False (as I ≤ F = G → G ≥ I)

Conclusion I and III are complementary pair.

So, either conclusion I or III is True.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 19
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Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

A certain number of persons are living in a building having four floors. Also each of the floor having three flats such as flat-2 is in east of flat-1 but west of flat-3. Ground floor is numbered floor 1 and top most floor is floor 4. Each flat is built in such a way that Flat 1 of floor 2 is just above Flat 1 of floor 1 and just below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. Only the given persons are considered to be living in the building. No flat is vacant. No two floors having same number of persons living in it. J is not living on even numbered floor. E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. Y~ is living on an even numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. No one lives to the east to O. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. H is living on a floor having least number of persons. J? is living to the west of L. Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in same flat number as H. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. No one is living with J?. O is living on even numbered floor. No one is living with H in the same flat. L is not living in the same flat with T!.

Who among the following is living on floor 4 of flat 1?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 19
Y~ is living on an even-numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I.

H is living on a floor having least number of persons. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. So, it is clear that least no of persons are living on floor-3. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H.

Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in the same flat number as H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. J is not living on an even-numbered floor.

E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. J? is living to the west of L. No one is living with J?. O is living on even-numbered floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. No one lives to the east to O. L is not living in the same flat with T!. As we know that no two floors having the same number of persons living in it. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. No flat is vacant. From this case-1 gets eliminated. So, the final arrangement is—

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 20
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Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

A certain number of persons are living in a building having four floors. Also each of the floor having three flats such as flat-2 is in east of flat-1 but west of flat-3. Ground floor is numbered floor 1 and top most floor is floor 4. Each flat is built in such a way that Flat 1 of floor 2 is just above Flat 1 of floor 1 and just below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. Only the given persons are considered to be living in the building. No flat is vacant. No two floors having same number of persons living in it. J is not living on even numbered floor. E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. Y~ is living on an even numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. No one lives to the east to O. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. H is living on a floor having least number of persons. J? is living to the west of L. Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in same flat number as H. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. No one is living with J?. O is living on even numbered floor. No one is living with H in the same flat. L is not living in the same flat with T!.

How many persons are living to the west of ‘I’?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 20
Y~ is living on an even-numbered floor and he is living immediate west of N. I is living immediately below Y~ in the same flat number. V is living immediate west of I.

H is living on a floor having least number of persons. Number of persons living on floor-2 is more than the number of persons living on floor-3 but less than number of persons living on floor-1. The total number of persons living on topmost floor is one more than the number of persons living on the bottom most floor. So, it is clear that least no of persons are living on floor-3. M is living with only S& in same flat which is immediately below the flat of H.

Only one floor is there between H and B# who is living in the same flat number as H. Two floors are there between the floors on which D@ and V$ lives and both are living in the same flat number. No one is living to the east of D@ who lives below V$. P% is living in a flat which is just below the flat of T!. No one is living with P% and is living immediate west of J. J is not living on an even-numbered floor.

E* is living in a flat just below the flat of N. J? is living to the west of L. No one is living with J?. O is living on even-numbered floor. G^ is living immediate west of O. No one lives to the east to O. L is not living in the same flat with T!. As we know that no two floors having the same number of persons living in it. G^ is not living alone in any of the flat. No flat is vacant. From this case-1 gets eliminated. So, the final arrangement is—

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 21
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In May 2025, a French football club made history by winning their first UEFA Men’s Champions League title after defeating Italian club Inter Milan in the final held in Munich, Germany. Which club lifted the 2025 UEFA Champions League trophy?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 21

The correct answer is Paris Saint-Germain (PSG).
In News

  • French football club Paris Saint-Germain (PSG) defeated Inter Milan to win their first UEFA Men’s Champions League title.

Explanation

  • The final was played in Munich, Germany during the 2024–25 season. 
  • Paris Saint-Germain (PSG) clinched their first-ever UEFA Champions League title.
  • The victory marked a significant milestone in the club's European football history.
  • Inter Milan, the Italian giants, were the runners-up.
  • The win highlights PSG’s investment in top talent and international strategy.

Additional Information

  • The UEFA Champions League is Europe’s most prestigious club football tournament.
    • Started in 1955 as the European Champion Clubs’ Cup and was initially a straight knockout tournament.
    • It is the most prestigious club football competition in Europe and one of the most-watched tournaments globally.
    • 24 clubs have won the title, with Real Madrid holding the record with 15 championships.
  • PSG has dominated French Ligue 1 but had struggled in European finals previously.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 22
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In April 2025, Bihar set two Guinness World Records (GWR). One of the records was for the largest Madhubani painting on canvas. What was the size of this record-breaking Madhubani painting?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 22

The correct answer is 18.69 square meters.
In News

  • Bihar set two Guinness World Records for the largest Madhubani painting and the largest singing bowl ensemble.

Explanation

  • In Bihar, two Guinness World Records were set in distinct categories: one for Madhubani painting and the other for a singing bowl ensemble performance by Buddhist monks.
  • The Madhubani painting created in Bihar covered an area of 18.69 square meters (201.17 square feet).
  • This record was set at the Madhubani Painting Institution in Bihar.
  • The second record was for the largest singing bowl ensemble performance, which involved 375 Buddhist monks.
  • Bihar is known for its rich cultural heritage, including the traditional Madhubani art form.
  • The two records were recognised by the Guinness World Records in April 2025.

Additional Information

  • Guinness World Records (GWR)
    • Founded: In 1955 by Sir Hugh Beaver.
    • Purpose: Recognises and certifies world records across various categories.
    • Categories: Includes achievements in sports, human feats, nature, entertainment, and more.
  • Madhubani paintings are famous for their intricate patterns, vibrant colors, and mythological themes.
  • The singing bowl ensemble was performed in Bodh Gaya, a major Buddhist pilgrimage site in Bihar.
  • The Madhubani painting tradition dates back over 2,500 years and is primarily practiced by women in the Mithila region of Bihar.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 23
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In May 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recognized the Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association (FIMMDA) as a Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO). This recognition came with specific requirements. Three important statements related to this recognition are given below:
1. FIMMDA must be a not-for-profit company with diversified shareholding.
2. The organization must be based in Mumbai, the financial capital of India.
3. It must have a minimum net worth of ₹5 crore to qualify for the recognition.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the criteria for FIMMDA to be recognized as an SRO by the RBI?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 23

The correct answer is Only statement 1 is true.
In News

  • FIMMDA was recognized by RBI as a Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO) for financial markets with certain key criteria.

Explanation

  • The Reserve Bank recognised the Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India (FIMMDA) as a Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO) in financial markets.
  • FIMMDA must be a not-for-profit company with diversified shareholding to ensure independence and compliance.
  • FIMMDA’s role will involve regulating fixed income, money market, and derivatives markets.
  • FIMMDA will now have the power to enforce its own regulations, helping maintain high standards in financial markets.
  • The net worth requirement for FIMMDA to be recognized as an SRO is ₹10 crore, not ₹5 crore.
  • FIMMDA’s recognition by RBI strengthens the integrity and transparency of India’s financial system.

Additional Information

  • Self-Regulatory Organisations (SROs)
    • SROs are entities authorized by a regulatory authority to oversee the conduct of their members in a specific industry.
    • SROs help maintain ethical standards and protect the interests of investors and stakeholders.
  • FIMMDA
    • Founded in  1998
    • HQ  Mumbai
    • FIMMDA regulates financial markets, focusing on the bond, derivatives, and money markets in India.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 24
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In April 2025, A prominent financial services company, known for its research and advisory services, has recently received final approval from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to launch its own mutual fund. Which of the following companies has secured this approval to launch a mutual fund in India?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 24

The correct answer is Capitalmind Financial Services.
In News

  • Capitalmind Financial Services received SEBI’s final approval to launch Capitalmind Mutual Fund under its subsidiary Capitalmind Asset Management Private Limited (Capitalmind AMC).

Explanation

  • Capitalmind has been granted SEBI's final approval to launch a mutual fund, operating under Capitalmind Asset Management Private Limited (Capitalmind AMC).
  • The approval comes after an extensive review of the company's compliance and financial strategies.
  • Deepak Shenoy, the founder of Capitalmind, is a key figure behind this strategic move into mutual fund management.
  • The mutual fund is expected to offer investors a range of investment opportunities, including equity and debt funds.
  • This move expands Capitalmind’s financial offerings, which already include financial research and advisory services.

Additional Information

  • SEBI
    • SEBI regulates mutual funds and ensures that they comply with financial market standards to protect investors.
    • Established in 1992
    • HQ Mumbai
    • Chairman  Tuhin Kanta Pandey
  • Capitalmind Financial Services
    • Founded in  2014
    • Founded by Deepak Shenoy, Capitalmind provides financial advisory services and aims to make investments more accessible to the masses.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 25
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In July 2025, Which of the following statements regarding SBI’s Solar Rooftop Program are correct?
1. The State Bank of India (SBI) aims to solarize 4 million homes by FY2027 as part of its initiative to support India’s Net Zero 2070 targets.
2. The bank has already invested over ₹610.8 crore in its Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives across India’s aspirational districts.
3. SBI’s agricultural lending exceeded ₹3.5 lakh crore in FY2025, focusing on farm infrastructure and agrienterprises.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 25

The correct answer is All 1, 2 and 3.
In News

  • SBI has launched a Solar Rooftop Programme aiming to solarize 4 million homes by FY2027.

Explanation

  • To contribute to India’s Net Zero 2070 targets, SBI has launched a Solar Rooftop Programme that aims to solarise 4 million homes by FY2027
  • The announcement came as SBI celebrated its 70th anniversary.
  • As part of the initiative, SBI has reported its agricultural lending crossing ₹3.5 lakh crore in FY2025.
  • The bank also contributed ₹610.8 crore through CSR initiatives in aspirational districts.
  • The launch of the Solar Rooftop Programme aligns with SBI’s sustainability goals.
  • India’s solar rooftop capacity is targeted to increase significantly as part of its renewable energy expansion plan.
  • Additionally, SBI inaugurated specialised Global Trade Finance Centres in Kolkata and Hyderabad on 1 July 2025.

Additional Information

  • India’s push for renewable energy sources aligns with global environmental goals like Net Zero 2070.
  • In addition to solar energy, SBI is exploring other green energy options as part of its comprehensive sustainability strategy.
  • The introduction of Global Trade Finance Centres is a move towards strengthening India’s position in international trade finance.
  • SBI 
    • Established in  1955
    • HQ  Mumbai
    • Chairman C.S Setty
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 26
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In April 2025, Sa-Dhan, a Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO) recognised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for microfinance and impact finance institutions, signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with a prominent public sector bank to enhance financial access for small, micro, and women-led enterprises in rural and semi-urban areas. Which bank signed this MoU with Sa-Dhan?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 26

The correct answer is Bank of India.
In News

  • Sa-Dhan signed an MoU with Bank of India to boost credit access for micro and women-led enterprises.

Explanation

  • In April 2025, Bank of India entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Sa-Dhan to improve financial access for small businesses, micro enterprises, and women-led ventures in rural and semi-urban regions.
  • Aim:  targeting improved credit access for rural MSMEs.
  • Focuses on financial inclusion of women entrepreneurs and micro units.
  • Facilitates access to formal credit channels for underserved communities.
  • Sa-Dhan acts as the SRO for microfinance institutions under RBI regulations.
  • Strengthens rural entrepreneurship and income generation activities.

Additional Information

  • Sa-Dhan
    • HQ: New Delhi
    • Role: Promotes responsible microfinance practices.
    • Recognized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as a Self‑Regulatory Organization (SRO), it oversees and supports microfinance institutions (MFIs).
  • Bank of India
    • HQ: Mumbai
    • MD & CEO: Rajneesh Karnatak
    • Founded: 1906
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 27
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In May 2025, Punjab National Bank (PNB) entered into an agreement to sell its 20.90% stake in the Indian Small Medium Enterprise Asset Reconstruction Company (ISARC) for Rs. 34.04 crores. This transaction is part of PNB’s strategy to streamline its non-core investments and focus on its core banking operations. Who purchased the stake in ISARC?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 27

The correct answer is Authum Infrastructure and Investment Limited
In News

  • PNB sold its 20.90% stake in ISARC to Authum Infrastructure and Investment Limited for Rs. 34 crores as part of its non-core business divestment strategy.

Explanation

  • PNB sold its stake in ISARC to focus on its core banking operations.
  • Authum Infrastructure and Investment Limited acquired the 20.90% stake for Rs. 34 crores.
  • ISARC is a financial services company that specializes in asset reconstruction for small and medium enterprises (SMEs).
  • This sale is part of PNB's ongoing efforts to streamline its operations and reduce its non-core assets.
  • Authum Infrastructure is now the majority shareholder in ISARC, strengthening its position in the asset reconstruction sector.

Additional Information

  • PNB (Punjab National Bank)
    • Established in 1894
    • PNB is one of India's largest public sector banks.
    • It is headquartered in New Delhi and provides a wide range of banking services.
  • ISARC (Indian Small Medium Enterprise Asset Reconstruction Company)
    • Founded in 2018
    • Founded to address the problem of non-performing assets (NPAs) in SMEs.
    • Works to reconstruct the assets of distressed small and medium enterprises in India.
  • Authum Infrastructure and Investment Limited
    • Founded in 1982
    • A private company focused on investment and infrastructure projects, including asset management.
  • Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs)
    • ARCs play a crucial role in resolving non-performing assets by acquiring distressed assets from banks and financial institutions.
    • They help restore the financial health of SMEs and other businesses facing financial distress.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 28
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In March 2025, which of the following statements regarding the 2nd edition of the Khelo India Para Games (KIPG 2025) are correct?
1. The mascot of KIPG 2025 is named ‘Ujjwala’, inspired by the house sparrow.
2. The event's anthem is “Khelega Jeetega Mera India”.
3. The logo features the tri-colour athlete symbolizing inclusivity and movement.
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 28

The correct answer is All 1, 2 and 3
In News

  • Union Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya unveiled the mascot, logo, and anthem for the 2nd Khelo India Para Games 2025.

Explanation

  • The mascot is named ‘Ujjwala’ and is inspired by Delhi’s state bird – the house sparrow.
  • The anthem is titled “Khelega Khelega Mera India, Jeetega Jeetega Mera India”.
  • The logo features an athlete in tri-colour hues representing inclusivity and progress.
  • The tagline is bilingual: “Champions Beyond Limits” and “Hauslon ki Udaan”.
  • It was released by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports in collaboration with the Paralympic Committee of India.

Additional Information

  • Khelo India Para Games
    • The 1st Khelo India Para Games was held in 2023.
    • KIPG promotes grassroots-level para sports talent across India.
    • Svayam Foundation and Paralympic Committee of India are key partners in the initiative.
    • Event held at Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 29
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In June 2025, In a report titled “India’s AI Revolution: A Roadmap to Viksit Bharat,” the Ministry of Electronics and IT projected a massive demand for artificial intelligence professionals in the near future. According to the report, how many AI professionals will India require by 2026?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 29

The correct answer is 1 million.
In News

  • MEIT projects India will require 1 million AI professionals by 2026 in latest report on AI roadmap.

Explanation

  • MEIT released a report titled “India’s AI Revolution: A Roadmap to Viksit Bharat.”
  • The report estimates that India will need 1 million AI professionals by 2026.
  • It underlines the importance of workforce skilling to meet the rising demand in AI sector.
  • India is emerging as a major AI hub, with global tech investment focus shifting here.
  • The number of B.Tech AI-related seats for 2024–25 is now 14.9 lakh (AICTE-approved).
  • The roadmap aligns with India’s vision for a digitally driven economy under ‘Digital India’.

Additional Information

  • MEIT: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
    • Union Minister  Ashwini Vaishnaw
  • AI is critical for sectors like healthcare, education, defence, and manufacturing.
  • The roadmap is part of the broader Viksit Bharat strategy for 2047.
  • India is focusing on responsible and inclusive AI development principles.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 30
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In April 2025, SpaceX successfully launched its 'Fram 2' mission, marking the first human spaceflight over Earth’s polar regions. The mission was named after a Norwegian ship that explored both poles in the early 20th century. Which of the following astronauts was NOT part of the Fram2 mission?
Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 6 - Question 30

The correct answer is Alexei Novikov, the Russian cosmonaut.

In News

  • SpaceX successfully launched the ‘Fram2 mission’ in April 2025, which was the first human spaceflight over Earth's polar regions.

Explanation

  • The Fram 2 mission was successfully launched by SpaceX in April 2025, marking the first-ever human spaceflight over Earth's polar regions.
  • The mission is named after the Norwegian Fram ship, which explored both the Arctic and Antarctic regions in the early 20th century.
  • Chun-Wang, a Maltese entrepreneur, was the commander of the Fram2 mission.
  • Jannicke Mikkelsen became the first Norwegian space traveller and was the vehicle commander.
  • Rabea Rogge was the first female orbital astronaut from Germany and served as the pilot of the mission.
  • Eric Philips, an Australian polar explorer, served as the mission specialist and medical officer.
  • Alexei Novikov, the Russian cosmonaut, was not part of the Fram2 mission.

Additional Information

  • Fram 2 mission
    • Launch Vehicle and Capsule: The mission was launched aboard a Falcon 9 rocket and the Crew Dragon capsule ‘Resilience’ from NASA’s Kennedy Space Center in Florida, USA.
  • SpaceX​
    • Founded by Elon Musk: SpaceX (Space Exploration Technologies Corp.) was founded by Elon Musk in 2002 to reduce space transportation costs and make space exploration more accessible.
    • Key Objective: SpaceX aims to reduce the cost of space travel and enable human colonization of Mars by making space transportation more affordable and sustainable.
    • Reusable Rockets: One of SpaceX's most notable achievements is the development of reusable rockets. The Falcon 9 and Falcon Heavy rockets are capable of being reused, drastically reducing the cost of launching payloads into space.
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