SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 7 - Bank Exams MCQ

We have:

• Q is the only daughter of P’s brother and is promoted in a month having 30 days.
• W’s son-in-law promoted three persons after Q.

That means, in case (1) Q get promotion in April, in case (2) Q get promotion in September.

• U promoted three persons before R, who is the mother of W.
• The number of persons promoted before U is the same as the number of persons promoted after P.
• Q is neither promoted immediately before nor after R, who is not promoted in December.

That means, in case (1) U gets promoted in February, in case (1a) U gets promoted in July, case (2) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (2) is not valid as the number of persons promoted before U is the same as the number of persons promoted after P.

Again, we have:

• Two persons are promoted between S and W, who is the father of V.

That means, in case (1) either S or W gets promotion in January, case (1a) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (1a) is not valid as two persons are promoted between S and W, who is the father of V.

Again, we have:

• Q’s father is the only son of the one who promoted four persons before T.

That means, in case (1) T must be promoted in December, and either of W or S is the father of Q, in case (1b) T must be promoted in October, and U must be the father of Q.

Since, only remaining person is V, and V is child of W, thus in case (1) V can never be the son-in-law of W, thus case (1) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (1) is not valid as only remaining person is V, and V can’t be W’s son-in-law.

Again, we have:

• P’s father is promoted immediately after U’s daughter-in-law.
• V is an unmarried member of the family.

Since, T is the son-in-law of W.

Thus, U must be the father of P and S must be the daughter-in-law of U.

Based on the above given information we have:

We have:

• Q is the only daughter of P’s brother and is promoted in a month having 30 days.
• W’s son-in-law promoted three persons after Q.

That means, in case (1) Q get promotion in April, in case (2) Q get promotion in September.

• U promoted three persons before R, who is the mother of W.
• The number of persons promoted before U is the same as the number of persons promoted after P.
• Q is neither promoted immediately before nor after R, who is not promoted in December.

That means, in case (1) U gets promoted in February, in case (1a) U gets promoted in July, case (2) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (2) is not valid as the number of persons promoted before U is the same as the number of persons promoted after P.

Again, we have:

• Two persons are promoted between S and W, who is the father of V.

That means, in case (1) either S or W gets promotion in January, case (1a) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (1a) is not valid as two persons are promoted between S and W, who is the father of V.

Again, we have:

• Q’s father is the only son of the one who promoted four persons before T.

That means, in case (1) T must be promoted in December, and either of W or S is the father of Q, in case (1b) T must be promoted in October, and U must be the father of Q.

Since, only remaining person is V, and V is child of W, thus in case (1) V can never be the son-in-law of W, thus case (1) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (1) is not valid as only remaining person is V, and V can’t be W’s son-in-law.

Again, we have:

• P’s father is promoted immediately after U’s daughter-in-law.
• V is an unmarried member of the family.

Since, T is the son-in-law of W.

Thus, U must be the father of P and S must be the daughter-in-law of U.

Based on the above given information we have:

We have:

• Q is the only daughter of P’s brother and is promoted in a month having 30 days.
• W’s son-in-law promoted three persons after Q.

That means, in case (1) Q get promotion in April, in case (2) Q get promotion in September.

• U promoted three persons before R, who is the mother of W.
• The number of persons promoted before U is the same as the number of persons promoted after P.
• Q is neither promoted immediately before nor after R, who is not promoted in December.

That means, in case (1) U gets promoted in February, in case (1a) U gets promoted in July, case (2) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (2) is not valid as the number of persons promoted before U is the same as the number of persons promoted after P.

Again, we have:

• Two persons are promoted between S and W, who is the father of V.

That means, in case (1) either S or W gets promotion in January, case (1a) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (1a) is not valid as two persons are promoted between S and W, who is the father of V.

Again, we have:

• Q’s father is the only son of the one who promoted four persons before T.

That means, in case (1) T must be promoted in December, and either of W or S is the father of Q, in case (1b) T must be promoted in October, and U must be the father of Q.

Since, only remaining person is V, and V is child of W, thus in case (1) V can never be the son-in-law of W, thus case (1) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (1) is not valid as only remaining person is V, and V can’t be W’s son-in-law.

Again, we have:

• P’s father is promoted immediately after U’s daughter-in-law.
• V is an unmarried member of the family.

Since, T is the son-in-law of W.

Thus, U must be the father of P and S must be the daughter-in-law of U.

Based on the above given information we have:

We have:

• Q is the only daughter of P’s brother and is promoted in a month having 30 days.
• W’s son-in-law promoted three persons after Q.

That means, in case (1) Q get promotion in April, in case (2) Q get promotion in September.

• U promoted three persons before R, who is the mother of W.
• The number of persons promoted before U is the same as the number of persons promoted after P.
• Q is neither promoted immediately before nor after R, who is not promoted in December.

That means, in case (1) U gets promoted in February, in case (1a) U gets promoted in July, case (2) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (2) is not valid as the number of persons promoted before U is the same as the number of persons promoted after P.

Again, we have:

• Two persons are promoted between S and W, who is the father of V.

That means, in case (1) either S or W gets promotion in January, case (1a) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (1a) is not valid as two persons are promoted between S and W, who is the father of V.

Again, we have:

• Q’s father is the only son of the one who promoted four persons before T.

That means, in case (1) T must be promoted in December, and either of W or S is the father of Q, in case (1b) T must be promoted in October, and U must be the father of Q.

Since, only remaining person is V, and V is child of W, thus in case (1) V can never be the son-in-law of W, thus case (1) is not valid.

Based on the above given information we have:

Case (1) is not valid as only remaining person is V, and V can’t be W’s son-in-law.

Again, we have:

• P’s father is promoted immediately after U’s daughter-in-law.
• V is an unmarried member of the family.

Since, T is the son-in-law of W.

Thus, U must be the father of P and S must be the daughter-in-law of U.

Based on the above given information we have:

1. (A) is sitting in the car, which is exactly in the middle of the row.

2. There are two cars between cars in which (A) and (C) are sitting.

3. Car at the extreme right end has ticket number 20.

Case 1:

Case 2:

4. Car immediate left of (A) is not vacant.

5. (F) is immediately left of (D).

6. Ticket number of cars of (F) and (D) are 22 and 18 respectively.

Case 1:

Case 2:

Case 2(b):

7. (E) does not sit in the car, which is adjacent to either car of (C) or car of (A).

8. Car of (E) is not parked at extreme left end. So, case 2(a) and case 2(b) would not be possible.

9. The ticket number of car (B) is 5 less than ticket number of car of (E). So, ticket number of car of (B) is 15.

10. Car of (B) is not adjacent to car of (A).

11. The ticket number of car (G) is a prime number between 21 and 26. So, the ticket number of car (G) is 23.

12. The car with ticket number 19 is immediate left of car with ticket number 16.

13. Car (A) does not have ticket number 19.

14. There are cars with ticket number 17 and 21.

Case 1:

So, car (G) is fourth car to the left of car of (D).

Hence, the correct option is (C).

1. (A) is sitting in the car, which is exactly in the middle of the row.

2. There are two cars between cars in which (A) and (C) are sitting.

3. Car at the extreme right end has ticket number 20.

Case 1:

Case 2:

4. Car immediate left of (A) is not vacant.

5. (F) is immediately left of (D).

6. Ticket number of cars of (F) and (D) are 22 and 18 respectively.

Case 1:

Case 2:

Case 2(b):

7. (E) does not sit in the car, which is adjacent to either car of (C) or car of (A).

8. Car of (E) is not parked at extreme left end. So, case 2(a) and case 2(b) would not be possible.

9. The ticket number of car (B) is 5 less than ticket number of car of (E). So, ticket number of car of (B) is 15.

10. Car of (B) is not adjacent to car of (A).

11. The ticket number of car (G) is a prime number between 21 and 26. So, the ticket number of car (G) is 23.

12. The car with ticket number 19 is immediate left of car with ticket number 16.

13. Car (A) does not have ticket number 19.

14. There are cars with ticket number 17 and 21.

Case 1:

So, four persons are to the left of car of (F).

Hence, the correct option is (B).

1. (A) is sitting in the car, which is exactly in the middle of the row.

2. There are two cars between cars in which (A) and (C) are sitting.

3. Car at the extreme right end has ticket number 20.

Case 1:

Case 2:

4. Car immediate left of (A) is not vacant.

5. (F) is immediately left of (D).

6. Ticket number of cars of (F) and (D) are 22 and 18 respectively.

Case 1:

Case 2:

Case 2(b):

7. (E) does not sit in the car, which is adjacent to either car of (C) or car of (A).

8. Car of (E) is not parked at extreme left end. So, case 2(a) and case 2(b) would not be possible.

9. The ticket number of car (B) is 5 less than ticket number of car of (E). So, ticket number of car of (B) is 15.

10. Car of (B) is not adjacent to car of (A).

11. The ticket number of car (G) is a prime number between 21 and 26. So, the ticket number of car (G) is 23.

12. The car with ticket number 19 is immediate left of car with ticket number 16.

13. Car (A) does not have ticket number 19.

14. There are cars with ticket number 17 and 21.

Case 1:

The ticket number of car of (A) is either 17 or 21.

So, ‘Cannot be determined’ is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct option is (E).

1. (A) is sitting in the car, which is exactly in the middle of the row.

2. There are two cars between cars in which (A) and (C) are sitting.

3. Car at the extreme right end has ticket number 20.

Case 1:

Case 2:

4. Car immediate left of (A) is not vacant.

5. (F) is immediately left of (D).

6. Ticket number of cars of (F) and (D) are 22 and 18 respectively.

Case 1:

Case 2:

Case 2(b):

7. (E) does not sit in the car, which is adjacent to either car of (C) or car of (A).

8. Car of (E) is not parked at extreme left end. So, case 2(a) and case 2(b) would not be possible.

9. The ticket number of car (B) is 5 less than ticket number of car of (E). So, ticket number of car of (B) is 15.

10. Car of (B) is not adjacent to car of (A).

11. The ticket number of car (G) is a prime number between 21 and 26. So, the ticket number of car (G) is 23.

12. The car with ticket number 19 is immediate left of car with ticket number 16.

13. Car (A) does not have ticket number 19.

14. There are cars with ticket number 17 and 21.

Case 1:

So, car of (B) is at extreme left end.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

For I: It is completely related to the passage, there must be awareness program to make society awake.

For II: This is must do step which should be taken by Government but it is not related to statement which is mention above.

For III: It is a myth that should be avoided or abolished but it is the part of the statement given above.

For step I:

For number: If the number is odd then add 2 else if the number is even then subtract 3.

For letter: If the letter is vowel then replace it with the second succeeding letter, else if the letter is a consonant then replace it with the second preceding letter.

For step II: the opposite letter of each letter as per alphabetical series is taken and is arranged on opposite cells whereas the numbers are moved one cell in a clockwise direction.

E.g) Opposite letters of E and I interchange their places similarly Opposite letters of W and U interchange their places and so on.

For step III: Letters are changed to the immediate succeeding letter, and numbers are changed by adding 2.

For step IV: The position of all the letters is interchanged with respect to opposite cells.

Based on the above given information we have the following result.

For step I:

For number: If the number is odd then add 2 else if the number is even then subtract 3.

For letter: If the letter is vowel then replace it with the second succeeding letter, else if the letter is a consonant then replace it with the second preceding letter.

For step II: the opposite letter of each letter as per alphabetical series is taken and is arranged on opposite cells whereas the numbers are moved one cell in a clockwise direction.

E.g) Opposite letters of E and I interchange their places similarly Opposite letters of W and U interchange their places and so on.

For step III: Letters are changed to the immediate succeeding letter, and numbers are changed by adding 2.

For step IV: The position of all the letters is interchanged with respect to opposite cells.

Based on the above given information we have the following result.

For step I:

For number: If the number is odd then add 2 else if the number is even then subtract 3.

For letter: If the letter is vowel then replace it with the second succeeding letter, else if the letter is a consonant then replace it with the second preceding letter.

For step II: the opposite letter of each letter as per alphabetical series is taken and is arranged on opposite cells whereas the numbers are moved one cell in a clockwise direction.

E.g) Opposite letters of E and I interchange their places similarly Opposite letters of W and U interchange their places and so on.

For step III: Letters are changed to the immediate succeeding letter, and numbers are changed by adding 2.

For step IV: The position of all the letters is interchanged with respect to opposite cells.

Based on the above given information we have the following result.

For step I:

For number: If the number is odd then add 2 else if the number is even then subtract 3.

For letter: If the letter is vowel then replace it with the second succeeding letter, else if the letter is a consonant then replace it with the second preceding letter.

For step II: the opposite letter of each letter as per alphabetical series is taken and is arranged on opposite cells whereas the numbers are moved one cell in a clockwise direction.

E.g) Opposite letters of E and I interchange their places similarly Opposite letters of W and U interchange their places and so on.

For step III: Letters are changed to the immediate succeeding letter, and numbers are changed by adding 2.

For step IV: The position of all the letters is interchanged with respect to opposite cells.

Based on the above given information we have the following result.

1. The difference between the ages of Ritika and Lovely is 9 years which is same as difference between the ages of Tanya and Meenakshi.

2. Nakul is 21 years old.

3. Difference between the ages of Nakul and Meenakshi is a perfect square of 4.

4. Only three persons are younger than Prateek.

So,

5. The difference between the ages of Tanya and Prateek is equal to the ages of Nakul.

Meenakshi is elder to Prateek.

6. The age of the Prateek is a perfect square.

From this case-1 gets eliminated as Prateek’s age can be either 35 years or 7 years in case-1.

Now, with case 2.

Tanya – Prateek = Nakul

Prateek = 46 – 21 = 25.

7. Sonal is 11 years younger than Prateek.

So, Sonal is 25 – 11 = 14 years.

8. Ritika is just elder than Lovely.

9. As many as persons are younger than Sonal as are elder as Lovely.

Ritika > Lovely > > > > > Prateek > Nakul > Sonal >

So, Sonal is 14 years old and is the second youngest person.

10. The sum of the ages of Ritika and Sonal is 91 years.

So, Ritika + Sonal = 91.

Ritika + 14 = 91

Ritika = 91 – 14 = 77 i.e., Ritika born = 2019 - 77 = 1942.

11. The difference between the ages of Ritika and Lovely is 9 years.

So, Lovely born = 1942 + 9 = 1951. Hence, the age of lovely is 77 – 9 = 68.

12. The difference between the ages of Lovely and Urvashi is equal to the age of Sonal.

The age of Lovely + Urvashi = Sonal

So, 68 + Urvashi = 14

Urvashi = 54 i.e. 1965 year.

Qamish is 24 years younger than Urvashi.

Qamish born = 1965 + 24 = 1989 so the age of Qamish is 30.

13. The difference between the ages of Urvashi and Qamish is same as the difference between Qamish and Opal.

Urvashi – Qamish = Qamish – opal

Urvashi + Opal = 2 Qamish

54 + Opal = 60

Opal = 6 years

So, Opal born in 2013.

The final arrangement is given below-

According to the given information-

Age of Ritika = 77 years

Age of Qamish = 30 years

Total age = 77 + 30 = 107 years

So, total age of Ritika and Qamish is 107 years.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

1. The difference between the ages of Ritika and Lovely is 9 years which is same as difference between the ages of Tanya and Meenakshi.

2. Nakul is 21 years old.

3. Difference between the ages of Nakul and Meenakshi is a perfect square of 4.

4. Only three persons are younger than Prateek.

So,

5. The difference between the ages of Tanya and Prateek is equal to the ages of Nakul.

Meenakshi is elder to Prateek.

6. The age of the Prateek is a perfect square.

From this case-1 gets eliminated as Prateek’s age can be either 35 years or 7 years in case-1.

Now, with case 2.

Tanya – Prateek = Nakul

Prateek = 46 – 21 = 25.

7. Sonal is 11 years younger than Prateek.

So, Sonal is 25 – 11 = 14 years.

8. Ritika is just elder than Lovely.

9. As many as persons are younger than Sonal as are elder as Lovely.

Ritika > Lovely > > > > > Prateek > Nakul > Sonal >

So, Sonal is 14 years old and is the second youngest person.

10. The sum of the ages of Ritika and Sonal is 91 years.

So, Ritika + Sonal = 91.

Ritika + 14 = 91

Ritika = 91 – 14 = 77 i.e., Ritika born = 2019 - 77 = 1942.

11. The difference between the ages of Ritika and Lovely is 9 years.

So, Lovely born = 1942 + 9 = 1951. Hence, the age of lovely is 77 – 9 = 68.

12. The difference between the ages of Lovely and Urvashi is equal to the age of Sonal.

The age of Lovely + Urvashi = Sonal

So, 68 + Urvashi = 14

Urvashi = 54 i.e. 1965 year.

Qamish is 24 years younger than Urvashi.

Qamish born = 1965 + 24 = 1989 so the age of Qamish is 30.

13. The difference between the ages of Urvashi and Qamish is same as the difference between Qamish and Opal.

Urvashi – Qamish = Qamish – opal

Urvashi + Opal = 2 Qamish

54 + Opal = 60

Opal = 6 years

So, Opal was born in 2013.

The final arrangement is given below-

According to the given information-

Total age of Urvashi and Sonal = 54 + 14 = 68 years

Total age of Sonal and Meenakshi = 14 + 37 = 51 years

Difference between the total age of Urvashi and Sonal and total age of Sonal and Meenakshi = 68 – 51 = 17 years.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

1. The difference between the ages of Ritika and Lovely is 9 years which is same as difference between the ages of Tanya and Meenakshi.

2. Nakul is 21 years old.

3. Difference between the ages of Nakul and Meenakshi is a perfect square of 4.

4. Only three persons are younger than Prateek.

So,

5. The difference between the ages of Tanya and Prateek is equal to the ages of Nakul.

Meenakshi is elder to Prateek.

6. The age of the Prateek is a perfect square.

From this case-1 gets eliminated as Prateek’s age can be either 35 years or 7 years in case-1.

Now, with case 2.

Tanya – Prateek = Nakul

Prateek = 46 – 21 = 25.

7. Sonal is 11 years younger than Prateek.

So, Sonal is 25 – 11 = 14 years.

8. Ritika is just elder than Lovely.

9. As many as persons are younger than Sonal as are elder as Lovely.

Ritika > Lovely > > > > > Prateek > Nakul > Sonal >

So, Sonal is 14 years old and is the second youngest person.

10. The sum of the ages of Ritika and Sonal is 91 years.

So, Ritika + Sonal = 91.

Ritika + 14 = 91

Ritika = 91 – 14 = 77 i.e., Ritika born = 2019 - 77 = 1942.

11. The difference between the ages of Ritika and Lovely is 9 years.

So, Lovely born = 1942 + 9 = 1951. Hence, the age of lovely is 77 – 9 = 68.

12. The difference between the ages of Lovely and Urvashi is equal to the age of Sonal.

The age of Lovely + Urvashi = Sonal

So, 68 + Urvashi = 14

Urvashi = 54 i.e. 1965 year.

Qamish is 24 years younger than Urvashi.

Qamish born = 1965 + 24 = 1989 so the age of Qamish is 30.

13. The difference between the ages of Urvashi and Qamish is same as the difference between Qamish and Opal.

Urvashi – Qamish = Qamish – opal

Urvashi + Opal = 2 Qamish

54 + Opal = 60

Opal = 6 years

So, Opal was born in 2013.

The final arrangement is given below-

So, two persons are born between Tanya and Prateek.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

1. The difference between the ages of Ritika and Lovely is 9 years which is same as difference between the ages of Tanya and Meenakshi.

2. Nakul is 21 years old.

3. Difference between the ages of Nakul and Meenakshi is a perfect square of 4.

4. Only three persons are younger than Prateek.

So,

5. The difference between the ages of Tanya and Prateek is equal to the ages of Nakul.

Meenakshi is elder to Prateek.

6. The age of the Prateek is a perfect square.

From this case-1 gets eliminated as Prateek’s age can be either 35 years or 7 years in case-1.

Now, with case 2.

Tanya – Prateek = Nakul

Prateek = 46 – 21 = 25.

7. Sonal is 11 years younger than Prateek.

So, Sonal is 25 – 11 = 14 years.

8. Ritika is just elder than Lovely.

9. As many as persons are younger than Sonal as are elder as Lovely.

Ritika > Lovely > > > > > Prateek > Nakul > Sonal >

So, Sonal is 14 years old and is the second youngest person.

10. The sum of the ages of Ritika and Sonal is 91 years.

So, Ritika + Sonal = 91.

Ritika + 14 = 91

Ritika = 91 – 14 = 77 i.e., Ritika born = 2019 - 77 = 1942.

11. The difference between the ages of Ritika and Lovely is 9 years.

So, Lovely born = 1942 + 9 = 1951. Hence, the age of lovely is 77 – 9 = 68.

12. The difference between the ages of Lovely and Urvashi is equal to the age of Sonal.

The age of Lovely + Urvashi = Sonal

So, 68 + Urvashi = 14

Urvashi = 54 i.e. 1965 year.

Qamish is 24 years younger than Urvashi.

Qamish born = 1965 + 24 = 1989 so the age of Qamish is 30.

13. The difference between the ages of Urvashi and Qamish is same as the difference between Qamish and Opal.

Urvashi – Qamish = Qamish – opal

Urvashi + Opal = 2 Qamish

54 + Opal = 60

Opal = 6 years

So, Opal was born in 2013.

The final arrangement is given below-

According to the given information-

Except Ritika, all persons are born in an odd year.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

The correct answer is 156 MTPA.
In News

• India aims to increase cargo traffic on National Waterways to 156 Million Tonnes Per Annum (MTPA) by FY26.

Explanation

• The government has set a target to operationalise 76 waterways by 2027, Union Minister for Ports, Shipping & Waterways Sarbananda Sonowal announced during a Consultative Committee meeting on Inland Waterways Transport held in Mumbai.
• By FY2027, India aims to operationalise 76 National Waterways, including 47 new waterways.
• Projects worth Rs. 1,400 crore were launched to boost inland waterways transport (IWT).
• The expansion will cover 23 States and 4 Union Territories by FY27.
• Sonowal also projected that cargo traffic is expected to grow significantly to 156 million tonnes per annum (MTPA) by March 2026
• This aligns with the Maritime India Vision 2030, which targets 200 MTPA cargo traffic.
• The expansion of IWT aims to reduce congestion and promote eco-friendly transport.

Additional Information

• National Waterways (NW)
  • Designated as inland waterways for navigation
  • Play a key role in boosting cargo and passenger transportation across India
• IWT (Inland Waterways Transport)
  • Utilizes rivers, canals, and lakes for shipping
  • Promotes sustainable and cost-effective transportation
• Maritime India Vision 2030
  • Initiative by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways (MoPSW)
  • Aims to develop India’s maritime sector to enhance global trade

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
In News

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has disclosed that ₹2000 denomination banknotes worth ₹6,099 crore are still in circulation, despite the notes being withdrawn in May 2023.

Explanation

• The ₹6,099 crore is the value of ₹2000 notes that are still unreturned as of July 2025, even though the notes were withdrawn from active use in May 2023.
• 98.29% of the ₹2000 notes in circulation as of May 2023 have been returned to banking channels
• The majority of the ₹2000 notes have been returned to banks, signaling the success of the demonetization efforts.
• The total ₹2000 notes withdrawn by RBI was ₹3.56 lakh crore, not ₹6,099 crore, which is only the value remaining in circulation.

Additional Information

• Demonetization (2016)
  • The Indian government demonetized ₹500 and ₹1000 banknotes to curb black money and counterfeit currency.
  • The ₹2000 notes were introduced to replace the demonetized ₹1000 notes.
• RBI
  • Established in 1935
  • HQ  Mumbai
  • Governor  Sanjay Malhotra

The correct answer is Yakten.
In News

• Yakten Village in Sikkim officially declared India’s first Digital Nomad Village under the ‘Nomad Sikkim’ initiative.

Explanation

• The initiative was implemented in Yakten village in Pakyong district, Sikkim.
• ‘Nomad Sikkim’ is a joint project of the Pakyong District Administration and NGO Sarvahitey.
• It aims to attract digital professionals to work remotely while contributing to the rural economy.
• The project is supported by the Asian Development Bank (ADB).
• It focuses on improving internet access and modern work infrastructure in remote areas.
• The initiative encourages sustainable tourism and local employment generation.

Additional Information

• Sikkim is known for its eco-tourism and high literacy rate.
• Digital Nomad Villages are aimed at accommodating remote workers with necessary infrastructure.
• Sarvahitey is a non-profit organization working on rural development and digital literacy.
• Asian Development Bank 
  • Established in - 1966
  • Hq - Manila, Phillippines

The correct answer is Bharatiya Bhasha Anubhag.
In News

• Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation, Shri Amit Shah, launched the Bharatiya Bhasha Anubhag (Indian Languages Section) in New Delhi to strengthen the Department of Official Language.

Explanation

• Union Home Minister Amit Shah launched the Bharatiya Bhasha Anubhag (BBA), or Indian Languages Section, to provide an organised platform for all Indian languages to move towards “freeing the administration from the influence of foreign languages”.
• The initiative is aimed at promoting Indian languages in official communication and administrative functioning.
• With this launch, the Department of Official Language is now a full-fledged department covering all aspects of linguistic governance.
• The section is expected to promote linguistic diversity and reduce dependence on non-Indian languages in government operations.
• It seeks to modernize language usage in administration using digital and AI-based tools.

Additional Information

• The Department of Official Language comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The new section aligns with the National Education Policy 2020’s vision of promoting mother tongues.
• India has 22 scheduled languages recognized in the Constitution under the Eighth Schedule.
• The initiative is part of a broader linguistic empowerment framework focusing on regional languages in governance.
• It encourages the use of Indian languages in online portals, digital platforms, and AI interfaces in the public sector.
• The Union Budget for the financial year 2024-25 set aside ₹56 crore to establish the BBA for the “development of a platform to facilitate the translation of various languages into Hindi and vice-versa.”

The correct answer is All 1, 2 and 3
In News

• SEBI bars US-based trading firm Jane Street and affiliates from participating in Indian securities markets for alleged manipulation in Bank Nifty options.

Explanation

• SEBI banned Jane Street for allegedly manipulating index derivatives, specifically in Bank Nifty options.
• SEBI has ordered impounding of ₹4,840 crore in unlawful gains, to be held in an escrow account.
• Jane Street earned ₹36,502 crore in net profits between January 2023 and March 2025, of which ₹4,840 crore was deemed unlawful.
• This action reflects SEBI's ongoing efforts to ensure market integrity and penalize entities involved in market manipulation.
• SEBI continues to take strict actions against violators in the securities markets, particularly in high-value segments like derivatives trading.

Additional Information

• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • Established in 1992
  • HQ  Mumbai
  • Chairman -Tuhin Kanta Pandey
• Bank Nifty
  • Index that represents the 12 most liquid and large capitalized banking stocks on the National Stock Exchange of India (NSE).

The correct answer is Prachand Shakti.
In News

• Indian Army Showcases ‘Prachand Shakti’ in Meerut

Explanation

• The Ram Division of the Indian Army conducted the ‘Prachand Shakti’ demonstration in Meerut.
• It was held at Kharga Corps Field Training Area in Uttar Pradesh.
• The event aligned with the Army’s “Year of Tech Absorption” initiative.
• The exercise showcased integration of disruptive tech—UAVs, AI‐enabled systems, loitering munitions and autonomous platforms in infantry operations 
• It reflects the Army’s push for battlefield modernisation and self‑reliance.

Additional Information

• ‘Year of Tech Absorption’ is an Army campaign to adopt cutting‑edge technologies across formations.
• UAV means Unmanned Aerial Vehicle; loitering munition refers to autonomous strike drones.
• Strike Corps refers to large armoured formations designed for offensive operations.
• The event highlighted real‑time combat adaptability of AI‑driven tools.
• Disruptive tech integration aims to enhance infantry lethality and situational awareness.

The correct answer is Gurugram.
In News

• UK’s University of Southampton opens its Indian campus in Gurugram under UGC’s 2023 foreign university regulations.

Explanation

• University of Southampton becomes the first foreign university to open a full-fledged campus in India.
• The Indian campus is located in Gurugram, Haryana.
• The inauguration was attended by Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan and Haryana CM Nayab Singh Saini.
• The university offers globally recognized academic programs in India.
• The move follows UGC’s 2023 regulations on foreign universities operating in India.
• This development marks a major step towards internationalizing India’s higher education sector.

Additional Information

• UGC’s 2023 regulations permit top 500 foreign universities to set up campuses in India.
• University of Southampton ranks among the top global universities, based in the UK.
• International campuses promote cultural exchange and global curriculum access.
• Haryana has been actively promoting Gurugram as an education and tech hub.
• This move supports the National Education Policy’s vision of internationalization.
• National Education Policy, 2020
  • Approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 July 2020.
  • Replaces the National Policy on Education, 1986.
  • Introduces a 5+3+3+4 school structure instead of the 10+2 system.
  • Focuses on Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) from age 3.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2
In News

• The Union Cabinet approved a ₹60,000 crore scheme to upgrade 1,000 ITIs and set up five National Centres of Excellence (NCoE).

Explanation

• The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved the scheme for upgradation of 1,000 government Industrial Training Institute's (ITI's) and the setting up of five National Centers of Excellence(NCOE) for skilling as a centrally sponsored scheme for transforming vocational education in India. 
• The scheme includes the upgrading of infrastructure and facilities to improve the quality of vocational training.
• The scheme was made under budget 2024-2025 and budget 2025-2026, with outlay of Rs. 60,000 crore
• ₹30,000 crore of the outlay will be funded by the central government, with the rest contributed by the state and industry.
• The upgradation will involve enhancing training for trainers at five National Skill Training Institutes (NSTIs).
• The scheme is aimed at improving the skill set of youth in line with industrial requirements and boosting employability.
• The expansion plan supports the government’s focus on vocational education under the Skill India Mission.

Additional Information

• National Skill Training Institutes (NSTIs)
  • NSTIs are the main training hubs for vocational education in India, set up to provide skills-based education to the youth.
• Skill India Mission
  • Launched in  2015
  • The Skill India Mission aims to provide training to over 400 million people in various skills by 2022 to enhance employability.

The correct answer is 10 crore.
In News

• Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0', targeting the plantation of 10 crore trees nationwide.

Explanation

• The initiative builds on the earlier success in Haryana where 1.8 crore saplings were planted.
• Participants can upload selfies with planted trees on a dedicated microsite to track progress
• This time, the target is to plant 10 crore trees nationwide, and more momentum must be given to the Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0 campaign to make it a mass movement.
• Eco Clubs under Mission LiFE are being established in schools for environmental awareness.
• The campaign encourages individuals to plant trees in their mother's name to personalize environmental action.
• The program is aligned with India's broader climate commitments under Mission LiFE.

Additional Information

• Mission LiFE was introduced by PM Modi at COP26 in Glasgow in 2021.
• It targets mobilizing 1 billion people worldwide to undertake pro-environmental actions.
• The initiative promotes lifestyle changes and community-led ecological behavior.
• Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam
  • Launched by the Madhya Pradesh Government in 2024.
  • Encourages individuals to plant a tree in memory or honour of their mother.
  • Implemented under the Environment and Forest Department of Madhya Pradesh.

The correct answer is R. Visweswaran.
In News

• India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) wins Digital Payments Award for 2024–25.

Explanation

• IPPB was awarded the Digital Payments Award for its remarkable achievements in digital banking during FY 2024–25.
• The award ceremony was hosted by the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman presented the award to India Post Payments Bank.
• R. Visweswaran, the Managing Director and CEO of IPPB, received the award on behalf of the bank.
• The India Post Payments Bank was recognized for its strong contribution to financial inclusion and digital payments across India.

Additional Information

• India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)
  • Established in  2018
  • HQ  New Delhi
  • IPPB is a public sector payments bank under the Department of Posts, offering services like money transfers, savings accounts, and bill payments.
• R. Visweswaran
  • R. Visweswaran is the Managing Director and CEO of India Post Payments Bank (IPPB).
• Digital Payments Award
  • The Digital Payments Award recognizes institutions making a significant impact on the financial ecosystem, particularly in promoting digital transactions.