SEBI Grade A (General Stream) Mock Test - 6 - Bank Exams MCQ

The correct answer is ZiG.
In News

• Zimbabwe's new gold-backed currency, Zimbabwe Gold (ZiG), started trading to address high inflation concerns.

Key Points

• It was launched with an initial exchange rate of 13.56 ZiG to $1, replacing the Real Time Gross Settlement Dollar (RTGS).
• The RTGS had experienced significant devaluation, losing about 80% of its value before the currency change.
• Bank balances were transitioned into ZiG over the weekend, with customers given a 21-day period to complete the process.
• New ZiG banknotes are set to enter circulation by the end of the month, as per the Reserve Bank of Zimbabwe's statement.
• The RTGS, also known as the Zimdollar, was introduced in 2019 following a decade of dollarization.
• Despite efforts to stabilize the currency, annual inflation exceeded 55% in March, raising concerns of hyperinflation reminiscent of the 2007-2009 era.

Additional Information

• Zimbabwe is a landlocked country in southern Africa known for its dramatic landscape and diverse wildlife, much of it within parks, reserves and safari areas.
• On the Zambezi River, Victoria Falls make a thundering 108m drop into narrow Batoka Gorge, where there’s white-water rafting and bungee-jumping.
• Downstream are Matusadona and Mana Pools national parks, home to hippos, rhinos and birdlife.
• Capital: Harare
• Official languages: Shona, Tshwa, English, Xhosa, etc.
• Population: 1.63 crores (2022).

The correct answer is South China Sea.
In News

• The maritime cooperative activity involving the defense forces of the US, Japan, Australia, and the Philippines will take place in the South China Sea.

Key Points

• Specifically, the activity will occur in Manila's exclusive economic zone (EEZ) in the South China Sea.
• Participating vessels include the USS Mobile, HMAS Warramunga, JS Akebono, and two Philippine warships.
• The activity aims to strengthen the interoperability of the countries' armed forces and support a free and open Indo-Pacific.
• The joint statement reaffirms the final and legally binding nature of the 2016 South China Sea Arbitral Tribunal Award.
• This initiative comes amid rising tensions in the region due to China's growing assertiveness and territorial disputes.

The correct answer is 6.5 percent

In News

• The Reserve Bank of India's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has maintained the key repo rate at 6.5 percent for the seventh consecutive meeting, prioritizing the control of retail inflation, which has exceeded the 4 percent target.

Key Points

• The repo rate, crucial for banks borrowing funds from the RBI to address short-term liquidity mismatches, remains unchanged at 6.5 percent, as announced by Governor Shaktikanta Das.
• The decision to maintain the repo rate was made by a majority vote of 5:1 within the MPC, signaling a continuation of the stance of 'withdrawal of accommodation'.
• Governor Das emphasized the need for vigilant monitoring of prices of essential commodities like vegetables and fruits due to the forecast of above-normal temperatures during April-June, aiming to mitigate volatility in the market.
• The article highlights the positive outlook for agriculture and rural activity, anticipating an upturn in rural demand and an improvement in employment conditions, which is expected to stimulate private consumption.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

• Blackbuck National Park is located in Gujarat.

Key Points

• The sanctuary was established in July 1976, as an initial protected area of about 18 sq km.
• In 1980, another 16 sq km were added to increase the total area to 34 sq km.
• The park is surrounded Gulf of Khambhat on the south and by wastelands and agriculture fields on the other sides.
• It was the grassland of the Maharaja of the princely state of Bhavnagar.
• The National park has been classified as a 4B Gujarat-Rajwada biotic province of a semi-arid bio-geographical zone.

Additional Information

• The top 5 National Parks of Gujarat for Wildlife Sanctuaries are:
  • Gir National Park.
  • Marine National Park.
  • Jambughoda Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • Barda Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • Purna Wildlife Sanctuary.

Important Points

The correct answer is Navan AI

In News

• niia.ai leverages the power of generative AI to offer significant time and cost savings to apparel designers.

Key Points

• Traditionally, the apparel design process involves multiple steps, taking weeks to complete. However, with niia.ai, this process is condensed into fewer steps, allowing designers to bring their ideas to market in a matter of hours.
• The platform enables designers to create design variations or entirely new designs simply by describing their ideas. It offers visualization features that provide a 360-degree view of the product and allows designers to "try out" the design on AI-generated fashion models, generating photoshoot-quality images.
• By eliminating the need to physically produce samples of designs, niia.ai not only saves money but also contributes to sustainability efforts by reducing waste in the apparel design process.
• Santosh Rout, Founder and CEO of Navan AI, expressed excitement about the launch of niia.ai, highlighting its transformative potential for designers of all scales, from individual designers to large apparel brands.
• The platform's low-cost Software as a Service (SaaS) pricing model aims to democratize apparel design, empowering designers with speed, efficiency, and cost-effectiveness.
• The Indian fashion market, experiencing rapid growth, presents a significant opportunity for technology-driven solutions like niia.ai. With the market expected to reach over USD 125 billion by 2025, niia.ai aims to play a crucial role in the sector's transformation by providing designers with the tools they need to capitalize on this growth.

The correct answer is Chandrayaan-3 Mission

In News

• ISRO’s Chandrayaan-3 mission team has been honored with the 2024 John L ‘Jack’ Swigert Jr. Award for space exploration by the Space Foundation in the US.

Key Points

• The John L ‘Jack’ Swigert Jr. Award is presented annually to celebrate significant achievements in space exploration by space agencies, companies, or consortia of organizations.
• The award ceremony took place during the Space Symposium’s annual opening ceremony in Colorado on April 8, with DC Manjunath, Consul General of India in Houston, accepting the award on behalf of ISRO’s Chandrayaan team.
• Heather Pringle, CEO of the Space Foundation, commended India’s leadership in space and praised the technical and engineering excellence demonstrated by the Chandrayaan-3 mission.

Additional Information

• The John L ‘Jack’ Swigert Jr. Award is named after astronaut John L ‘Jack’ Swigert Jr., a significant figure in space exploration history.
• Previous recipients of this prestigious award include NASA, the University of Arizona OSIRIS-REx team, the teams behind the NASA JPL Mars Ingenuity Helicopter and InSight-Mars Cube One missions, as well as the NASA Dawn and Cassini missions.
• The Space Foundation, established in 1983, is a nonprofit organization that provides information, education, and collaboration opportunities for the global space ecosystem.
• India’s successful landing of a spacecraft on the Moon’s South Pole in September of the previous year solidified its position as a key player in lunar exploration, alongside other major spacefaring nations such as the US, Russia, and China.

The correct answer is 'Only C.'

Key Points

• The last sentence of the first paragraph says "Dr. Tedros who picks the awardees himself said that the award recognizes those who have made an outstanding contribution to protecting and promoting health around the world, at a time when the world is facing an unprecedented convergence of inequity, conflict, food insecurity, climate crisis, and a pandemic'' and the fifth sentence of the second paragraph says "The eight volunteer polio workers of Afghanistan (four of them women) were shot and killed by gunmen in Takhar and Kunduz provinces in February 2022''.
  • From the above sentences, we can say that statements A and B are incorrect according to the given passage.​
• The sixth sentence of the second paragraph says ''Their work was crucial in a country where wild poliovirus type 1 is still circulating, WHO recorded.''
  • From the above sentence, we can say that statement C is correct according to the given passage.​​​

Hence, the only possible answer is option 5.

The correct answer is '​​​Better remuneration and safety guarantee for health workers.'

Key Points

• The fourth sentence of the second paragraph says ''Even as they contribute to better health outcomes, this workforce continues to protest across the country, for better remuneration, health benefits, and permanent posts'', the seventh sentence of the second paragraph says "Clearly, certain kinds of basic public health work are fraught with perils on several continents across the world'' and the eighth sentence of the second paragraph concludes "It is the duty of the governmental agencies that employ them to ensure their welfare, safety, and security''.
• From the above sentences, we can say that the central theme of the passage is ''​​Better remuneration and safety guarantee for health workers.''​

Hence, the only possible answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'returned'.

Key Points

• Returned means to come or go back to a place.
  • Example- I leave on 10 July and return on 6 August.
• Returned is the most appropriate answer.
• The correct sentence- 'They upped the ante in the next four months and did not backtrack even after the virus returned with a vengeance.'
• Began (It is the past tense of begin) means to start doing something.
• Departed (past tense of depart) means to leave a place, usually at the beginning of a journey.
• Disappeared (past tense of disappear) means to vanish, to become impossible to see or to find, to stop existing.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved second, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Calculations:

5265 ÷ 117 + 67 × 85 - 1172 + 289 + 263 - 120 = (?)

⇒ 45 + 5695 - 1172 + 289 + 263 - 120 = (?)

⇒ 45 + 5695 - 1172 + 289 + 263 - 120 = (?)

⇒ 6292 - 1292 = (?)

⇒ ? = 5000

Hence, the correct answer is 5000.

Given:

(12)3 ÷ 4 + 15 × 13 - ? + 4 = 21 × 30

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

(12)3 ÷ 4 + 15 × 13 - ? + 4 = 21 × 30

⇒ 1728 ÷ 4 + 195 - ? + 4 = 630

⇒ 432 + 195 + 4 - ? = 630

⇒ ? = 631 - 630

⇒ ? = 1

∴ 1 should come in place of the question mark (?).

Calculation:

Let x be the total number of population

Total number of population = (21/100)x – (15/100)x = 2184

⇒ (6/100)x = 2184

⇒ x = (218400/6) = 36400

Let y be the total male population

Total male population = (24/100)y – (18/100)y = 936

⇒ (6/100)y = 936

⇒ y = (93600/6) = 15600

Total number of female population in town C and D = 3900 + 3328 = 7228

∴ The total number of female population in town C and D is 7228.

Calculation:

Let x be the total population

Total number of population = (21/100)x – (15/100)x = 2184

⇒ (6/100)x = 2184

⇒ x = (218400/6) = 36400

Let y be the male population

Total number of male population = (24/100)y – (18/100)y = 936

⇒ (6/100)y = 936

⇒ y = (93600/6) = 15600

The total number of female in all the six towns = 36400 – 15600 = 20800

⇒ Difference between number of females and males = 20800 – 15600 = 5200

⇒ Required difference = (5200/15600) × 100 = 33.33%

∴ Approximate percentage of the total number of females from all the six towns is 33.33% more than that of the males from all the six towns.

Given:

870, 855, 840, 825, 810, 800

Calculation:

The logic follows here is;

870 - 15 = 855

855 - 15 = 840

840 - 15 = 825

825 - 15 = 810

810 - 15 = 795 ≠ 800

There should be 795 instead of 800.

∴ 800 is the wrong term.

Given:

Percentage of water in the white color = 60%

Percentage of water in the blue color = 70%

Formula used:

Weighted average = Sum of weighted terms/Number of terms

Calculation:

Let x be the percentage of water in the final mixture

(60/100) × 2 + (70/100) × 3 = (2 + 3) × (x/100)

⇒ 1.2 + 2.1 = 5 × (x/100)

⇒ x = (3.3 × 100)/5

⇒ x = 66%

∴ The percentage of water in the final mixture is 66%.

Alternate Method

⇒ (70 - x)/(x - 60) = 2/3

⇒ 210 - 3x = 2x - 120

⇒ 5x = 330

⇒ x = (330/5) = 66%

∴ The percentage of water in the final mixture is 66%.

Persons: Azim, Bindu, Chaitra, Delphin, Eza, Fath, and Gayl

Dresses: Jean, Shirt, Kurta, Skirt, Saree, Salwar and Dhoti

Number of dresses: The number of dresses bought by each of them are in the consecutive multiples of 3. The total number of dresses bought by all people cannot exceed 85.

So, 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 and 21 are the number of dresses bought by them.

1. Either Eza or Gayl bought 12 Skirts.

2. Delphin bought a number of Jeans, which is higher than only Fath.

3. So Fath bought 3 dresses and Delphin bought 6 jeans.

4. The number of Sarees bought is twice the number of Shirts bought.

5. Saree is bought for the second highest number. So, number of Saree is 18 and Shirt is 9.

6. Gayl bought twice the number of dresses of Delphin. So, Case 1 is invalid.

6. Chaithra bought the highest number of dresses but neither bought Saree nor Salwar.

So, the number is 21 and the dress left for it is Kurta.

7. Either Shirt or Dhoti is bought for the lowest number.

As Shirt is already 9, so the number of Dhoti bought is 3.

8. The number of Sarees bought is twice the number of Shirts bought, which is not bought by Azim.

So, he bought 15 salwar.

9. Neither Azim nor Bindu bought 18 dresses.

10. Saree is bought for the second highest number. So, number of Saree is 18 and Shirt is 9.

The final arrangement is,

Everyone except Gayl bought an odd number of dresses, whereas Gayl bought an even number of dresses.

So, Gayl is the odd one out.

Persons: Azim, Bindu, Chaitra, Delphin, Eza, Fath, and Gayl

Dresses: Jean, Shirt, Kurta, Skirt, Saree, Salwar and Dhoti

Number of dresses: The number of dresses bought by each of them are in the consecutive multiples of 3. The total number of dresses bought by all people cannot exceed 85.

So, 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 and 21 are the number of dresses bought by them.

1. Either Eza or Gayl bought 12 Skirts.

2. Delphin bought a number of Jeans, which is higher than only Fath.

3. So Fath bought 3 dresses and Delphin bought 6 jeans.

4. The number of Sarees bought is twice the number of Shirts bought.

5. Saree is bought for the second highest number. So, number of Saree is 18 and Shirt is 9.

6. Gayl bought twice the number of dresses of Delphin. So, Case 1 is invalid.

6. Chaithra bought the highest number of dresses but neither bought Saree nor Salwar.

So, the number is 21 and the dress left for it is Kurta.

7. Either Shirt or Dhoti is bought for the lowest number.

As Shirt is already 9, so the number of Dhoti bought is 3.

8. The number of Sarees bought is twice the number of Shirts bought, which is not bought by Azim.

So, he bought 15 salwar.

9. Neither Azim nor Bindu bought 18 dresses.

10. Saree is bought for the second highest number. So, number of Saree is 18 and Shirt is 9.

The final arrangement is,

So, Azim and Fath bought the third highest and lowest number of dresses respectively.

The least possible Venn diagram according to the above statement is:

I. All Laptop being Cable is a possibility → False (As only a few Laptops are Cables, hence the possibility of all will be false.)

II. Some Radio being Cable is a possibility → True (Some Radio being Cable is definitely a possibility as no direct relation is given between them.)

III. All Radio are Laptop → False (All Radio being Laptop is a possibility but its not definite.)

Hence, Only II follows is the correct answer.

Given:

Ten persons: M, N, O, P, Q, V, W, X, Y and Z

Five different floors of a building

Two flats: flat-1 and flat-2 from west to east such that flat-1 is to the west of flat-2.

Now,

1) V lives on an odd numbered floor but dose not lives on an even numbered flat.

2) More than one floor is there between the floor of M and the floor on which N lives.

3) U lives to the east of V on the same floor.

4) One floor is there between V who is not on the lowermost floor and the floor on which R lives, both lives on the same flat number.

5) M lives to the west of P and dose not lives on an even numbered floor.

As V cannot be on the lowermost floor thus, CASE 1 gets eliminated

6) O who lives to the North-West of T is not on the fifth floor.

7) Only one floor gap is there between the floor of Q and the floor on which S lives.

8) T is not an immediate neighbour of S. M does not live above Q.

More than one floor is there between the floor of M and the floor on which N lives, also, M lives to the west of P and dose not lives on an even numbered floor.

In CASE 3, there is not a gap of more than one floor between M and N, thus CASE 3 gets eliminated.

In CASE 1(a), we are not getting the exact position of Q and S, but in CASE 2 all the conditions of the question are being fulfilled, thus we have the final arrangement in CASE 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Q".

Given:

Ten persons: M, N, O, P, Q, V, W, X, Y and Z

Five different floors of a building

Two flats: flat-1 and flat-2 from west to east such that flat-1 is to the west of flat-2.

Now,

1) V lives on an odd numbered floor but dose not lives on an even numbered flat.

2) More than one floor is there between the floor of M and the floor on which N lives.

3) U lives to the east of V on the same floor.

4) One floor is there between V who is not on the lowermost floor and the floor on which R lives, both lives on the same flat number.

5) M lives to the west of P and dose not lives on an even numbered floor.

As V cannot be on the lowermost floor thus, CASE 1 gets eliminated

6) O who lives to the North-West of T is not on the fifth floor.

7) Only one floor gap is there between the floor of Q and the floor on which S lives.

8) T is not an immediate neighbour of S. M does not live above Q.

More than one floor is there between the floor of M and the floor on which N lives, also, M lives to the west of P and dose not lives on an even numbered floor.

In CASE 3, there is not a gap of more than one floor between M and N, thus CASE 3 gets eliminated.

In CASE 1(a), we are not getting the exact position of Q and S, but in CASE 2 all the conditions of the question are being fulfilled, thus we have the final arrangement in CASE 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "N".

Given word:- SIGNATURE

Forward Pair - NR, AE, TU

Backward Pair - TR

Thus, there are four such pairs of letters in the word “SIGNATURE” which have as many letters between them as in the English alphabetical series (both in forward and backward directions).

Hence, the correct answer is Four.

Row 1 A, B, C, D, and E are sitting facing south
Row 2 P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting facing north.

1. A sits second from the end.

2.The number of persons sitting to the right of A is equal to the number of persons sitting to the right of Q.

3. D sits Immediate next to the one who is facing Q.

4. One persons sit between D and E, who does not sit next to C.

5. S sits three places away from Q. T sits to the right of S. Hence Case 2.1A, case 2.1 and Case 2 gets eliminated.

6. Two persons sit between R and T. The person who sits opposite to T sits four places away from C. Case 1.1 gets eliminated.

7.B sits to the left of A. At most two person sits right of D. Hence case 1 gets eliminated

Final arrangement

S is sitting immediate left of R.

The given statement is:

Considering the ever-growing competitive scenario, should there be uniform eligibility criteria for admission to all the graduate degree colleges in the country?

Based on the above statement, we check the given arguments as follows:

I. This argument is strong as it is not possible for every student to fulfill the uniform eligibility criteria that will be applied to all the colleges. So, in order to ensure that every student gets a chance to pursue higher studies, each college must have its own eligibility criteria rather than a uniform one.

II. This argument is weak in nature as passing out from different colleges should be compared on the basis of which college that student is passing out, rather than comparing with students of different colleges. Each college has their own set of faculties and facilities. So, the standard of education provided by each college is different. Hence, comparison on this basis is futile.

III. This argument is not at all related to the given statement as it doesn't talk about the eligibility criteria at all.

Hence, only argument I is strong.

The correct answer is Monitoring performance, comparing it with goals, and taking corrective action as needed

Key Points

• Controlling ensures that actual performance meets or exceeds goals.
• It is a continuous process that involves setting performance standards, measuring actual performance, and taking corrective actions.
• Effective controlling helps in achieving the desired results and maintaining quality.
• It also helps in identifying deviations and implementing timely corrections.

Additional Information

• Planning
  • Establishes goals and decides how to achieve them.
• Organizing
  • Arranges tasks, people, and other resources to accomplish the work.
• Directing
  • Motivates and influences people to work hard to achieve the organization’s goals.
• Communicating
  • Involves conveying the mission and vision of the organization to employees.

The correct answer is Autocratic Leadership

Key Points

• Autocratic leaders make decisions unilaterally, often without input from subordinates.
• They provide clear, direct instructions and expect compliance from team members.
• This style can be effective in situations requiring quick decision-making or in highly structured environments.
• However, it may lead to low morale and lack of creativity among employees.

Additional Information

• Transformational Leadership
  • Inspires and motivates followers to achieve extraordinary outcomes.
• Transactional Leadership
  • Focuses on supervision, organization, and performance-based rewards and punishments.
• Democratic Leadership
  • Encourages participation and input from team members in decision-making processes.
• Laissez-Faire Leadership
  • Gives employees autonomy and freedom to make decisions.

The correct answer is Corporate Bonds.

In News

• Corporate bonds are typically traded in the capital market, not the money market.

Key Points

• The money market deals with short-term debt instruments with maturities of one year or less.
• Treasury bills, commercial paper, and certificates of deposit are common money market instruments.
• Repurchase agreements, or repos, are also traded in the money market for short-term borrowing and lending.
• Corporate bonds typically have longer maturities and are traded in the capital market.

Additional Information

• Treasury Bills
  • Short-term government securities with maturities ranging from a few days to one year.
• Commercial Paper
  • Unsecured, short-term debt instrument issued by corporations.
• Certificates of Deposit
  • Time deposits are offered by banks with specific maturity dates and interest rates.
• Repurchase Agreements
  • Short-term borrowing for dealers in government securities.

The correct answer is Psychological Barrier

Key Points

• Perception differences can lead to misunderstandings.
• Psychological barriers include emotions, attitudes, and mental health.
• Effective communication requires overcoming these barriers.
• Awareness of these barriers can improve communication effectiveness.

Additional Information

• Semantic Barrier
  • Arises from the use of ambiguous language.
• Physical Barrier
  • Includes physical distance and environmental factors.
• Organizational Barrier
  • Related to hierarchical structures and company policies.
• Cultural Barrier
  • Differences in cultural backgrounds and practices.

The correct answer is Director's Report

Key Points

• Financial statements provide a comprehensive overview of the company's financial performance and position.
• The balance sheet shows the company's assets, liabilities, and equity at a specific point in time.
• The profit and loss statement details the company's revenues, expenses, and profits over a period.
• The cash flow statement tracks the cash inflows and outflows from operating, investing, and financing activities.

Additional Information

• Balance Sheet
  • Snapshot of the company's financial position.
• Profit and Loss Statement
  • Details the company's performance over a period.
• Cash Flow Statement
  • Tracks the movement of cash within the company.
• Statement of Changes in Equity
  • Shows changes in equity over the reporting period.

The correct answer is 3 directors

Key Points

• A public company must have at least 3 directors.
• A private company must have at least 2 directors.
• A one-person company (OPC) must have at least 1 director.
• The maximum number of directors is usually capped at 15, unless increased by special resolution.

The correct answer is Job Costing.​Key Points

• Job Costing:
  • Tracks costs for individual jobs or orders.
  • Each repair job is unique and requires different resources.
  • Helps in determining the cost and profitability of each job.
  • Common in service industries like car repair, printing, and custom manufacturing.

Additional Information

• Process Costing
  • Used for continuous production processes.
  • Costs are averaged over all units produced.
• Batch Costing
  • Suitable for products produced in batches.
  • Costs are assigned to batches, not individual units.
• Contract Costing
  • Applied to large, long-term contracts.
  • Common in construction and large-scale projects.
• Operation Costing
  • Combines elements of both job and process costing.
  • Used for similar products with varying processes.