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SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - SSC CGL MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test Series 2024 - SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 for SSC CGL 2024 is part of SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 questions and answers have been prepared according to the SSC CGL exam syllabus.The SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 MCQs are made for SSC CGL 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 below.
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SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 1

Arrange the following words according to dictionary -

1. Exploit

2. Explosive

3. Exponent

4. Exposition

5. Explore

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 1

1. Exploit as the letter I comes before R

5. Explore as the letter R comes before S

2. Explosive as the letter L comes before O

3. Exponent as the letter N comes before S

4. Exposition

Hence the correct answer will be '1,5,2,3,4'

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 2

There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, and G. Each of them has different heights. C is shorter than only G. The number of persons taller than B is equal to the number of persons shorter than D. Neither A nor E is shortest. Who among the following is shortest?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 2

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G.

1) C is shorter than only G. So, G must be the tallest.

2) The number of persons taller than B is equal to the number of persons shorter than D. So, B and D must be either 3rd tallest or 3rd shortest.

3) Neither A nor E is shortest. So, E and A must be taller than F.

G > C > B/D > A/E > D/B > E/A > F

Hence, F is the shortest. 

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SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 3

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 3

The number of triangles in the given figure is:


So, there are a total of 15 triangles in the figure.

Hence, ‘15’ is the correct answer.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 4

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 4

Completing the incomplete pattern;

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 5

Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and fourth term is related to third term.

AR37 ∶ DW44 ∶∶ PQ43 ∶ SV5O ∶∶ GF31 ∶ ?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 5

The logic followed here is:

For, AR37 ∶ DW44

For, PQ43 ∶ SV5O

Similarly, for GF31 ∶ ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 6

Select the option in which the numbers shares the same relationship in set as that shared by the numbers in the given set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E. g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(144, 8, 4)

(256, 12, 4)

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 6

The logic followed here is:

(Second number + Third Number)2 = First Number

(144, 8, 4) → (8 + 4)2 = 122 = 144

(256, 12, 4) → (12 + 4)2 = 162 = 256

Similarly,

(400, 16, 4) → (16 + 4)2 = 202 = 400

Hence, '(400, 16, 4)' is the correct answer.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 7

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the following classes. 

Parents, Graduates, Cricketers

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 7

The logic followed here is:

Some Parents can be Graduates,

Some Parents can be Cricketers, 

Some Cricketers can be Graduates,

Some Parents can be Cricketers as well Graduates,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 8

In a certain code language, 'CROW' is coded as '3-18-15-23' and 'FISH' is coded as '6-9-19-8'. How will 'BULL' be coded in that language?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 8

The logic followed here is :-

Alphabetic positional values are represented.

'CROW' is coded as '3-18-15-23'.

And

'FISH' is coded as '6-9-19-8'.

Similarly,

'BULL' will be coded as :

Hence, the correct answer is "2-21-12-12".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 9
In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 9

Moon is a satellite, Earth is a planet and Mercury is also a planet.

Here, first one is part of second one.

Venus is Hot but Venus is not a part of Hot.

Hence, "Venus - Hot" is the odd one out.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 10
The 'microliths' were used by early man during the ___________ Age.
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 10

The 'microliths' were used by early man during the Mesolithic Age.

Key Points

The period when we find environmental changes, beginning about 12,000 years ago till about 10,000 years ago is called the Mesolithic Age or Middle Stone Age.

  • Stone tools found during this period are generally tiny and are called microliths.
  • Microliths were probably stuck onto handles of bone or wood to make tools such as saws and sickles.
  • At the same time, older varieties of tools continued to be in use during this period.

Hence, we can conclude that the 'microliths' were used by early man during the Mesolithic Age. 

Additional Information

  • The Mesolithic Age was a transitional period between the Palaeolithic and Neolithic Age.
  • People of this era subsisted on hunting, fishing, and gathering food and later on they domesticated animals also.
  • Mesolithic sites have been discovered in Rajasthan, south of the Krishna River, in central and eastern India and in southern Uttar Pradesh.
  • Mesolithic sites in India include Bagor in Rajasthan and Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 11
In which state of India is the ancient site Kalibangan, of Indus Valley civilisation, situated?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 11

The correct answer is Rajasthan.Key Points

  • The ancient site Kalibangan, of Indus Valley civilization, is situated in Rajasthan.
  • Plowed field surface, 7 fire altars, decorated bricks, and bones of Camel were found in Kalibangan. 

Additional Information

  • Lothal was a Dockyard during the Indus Valley Civilization.
  • Great granary, great bath, steatite image of a bearded man were found in Mohenjo Daro.
  • Chanhudaro was the city without Citadel.
  • Rakhigarhi is the largest Indian site of the Indus Valley Civilization.
  • The Indus Valley Civilization was spread from present-day North-East Afghanistan to Pakistan and North-West India. The civilization flourished in the river basins of the Ghaggar-Hakra river and the Indus. Indus valley civilization is one of the four oldest civilizations in the world. It is also known as Harappan Civilization and is well-known for its organized planning based on the grid system.

Important facts to be remembered.

  • John Marshall was the first researcher to use the term, ‘Indus Valley Civilization’.
  • Indus Valley Civilization spread from the year 2500 – 1750 BC according to radio-carbon dating.
  • The most distinctive feature of the Harappan Civilization was its urbanization.
  • Moreover, sheep and goats, dogs, humped cattle buffalo, and elephants were domesticated in the Indus Valley Civilization.
  • The capital cities are Mohenjodaro and Harappa.
  • The port cities are Sutkagendor, Balakot, Lothal, Allahdino, and Kuntasi.
  • The Indus valley people were well-acquainted with the use of both cotton and wool.

Important Points Name of the major cities are given below:

  • Mohenjodaro (Sind)-It is located on the right bank of the Indus.
  • Kalibangan (Rajasthan)-It was on the banks of the river Ghaggar river.
  • Chanhudaro - It lies on the left bank of the Indus in the south of Mohenjodaro.
  • Lothal(Gujarat) - It is located at the head of the Gulf of Cambay.
  • Surkotada (Gujarat) - It is at the head of the Rann of Kutch.
  • Banawali (Haryana) - It was situated on the banks of the now-extinct Sarasvati.
  • Dholavira (Gujarat) - It excavated is in the Kutch district.
  • Social features-
    • Indus valley civilization is the first urbanization in India.
    • It has a well-planned drainage system, grid pattern, and town planning.
    • They have possessed equality in society.
  • Religious Facts-
    • Matridevi or Shakti is the Mother goddess.
    • Yoni worship and Nature worship existed.
    • They worshipped trees like Peepal.
    • People also worshipped Fire worship called Havan Kund.
    • Pashupati Mahadeva is known as the lord of Animals.
    • The people of Indus Valley Civilization worshipped Animal worship like Unicorn and ox.
  • Economic facts-
    • Indus valley civilization is based on agriculture.
    • Trade and commerce flourished in this period.
    • A dockyard has been found at Lothal.
    • There were export and import.
    • Production of cotton was there.
    • There was also the unit of measurement.
    • Weights and measures of truth existed in Harappan culture was seen at Lothal.
    • The weights were made of limestone, steatite, etc. and were usually cubical in shape.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 12

With reference to Home Rule League, consider the following statements:

  1. Tilak’s Home Rule League movement was more organized as compared to Annie Besant's league.
  2. Tilak's home rule was spread in more areas as compared to Annie Besant's league.
  3. Mohammed Ali Jinnah took part in Home Rule League.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 12

The correct answer is Only two

Key Points

  • The Home Rule Movement was the Indian response to the First World War.
  • Prominent leaders Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Annie Besant, G.S. Khaparde, Sir S. Subramania Iyer, Joseph Baptista, and Mohammad Ali Jinnah among others got together and decided that it was necessary to have a national alliance that would work throughout the year (unlike the Congress which had annual sessions) with the main objective of demanding self-government or home rule for all of India within the British commonwealth.
  • Mohammed Ali Jinnah also had the first experience of participating in politics in India by taking part in the Home Rule League of Annie Besant. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • This alliance was to be the All India Home Rule League along the lines of the Irish Home Rule League.
  • In the end, however, two Home Rule Leagues were launched one by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the other by Annie Besant, both with the aim of beginning a new trend of aggressive politics.
  • Tilak’s Home Rule League movement was more organized, and there were many volunteers who worked for Tilak. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The number of people who took part in Tilak’s movement was much more compared to Annie Besant. 
  • Tilak’s movement was confined to Maharashtra and Karnataka whereas, Annie Besant movement spread to other parts of India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Both Tilak and Besant realized that the sanction of a Moderate-dominated Congress, as well as the full cooperation of the Extremists, was essential for the movement to succeed.
  • Tilak's League
    • Tilak set up his Indian Home Rule League in April 1916.
    • Tilak held his first Home Rule meeting at Belgaum. Poona was the headquarters of his league.
    • His league was restricted to Maharashtra (excluding Bombay city), Karnataka, Central Provinces, and Berar.
    • It had six branches and the demands included swarajya, the formation of linguistic states, and education in the vernacular.
  • Annie Besant's League
    • Annie Besant set up her All-India Home Rule League in September 1916 in Madras (now Chennai) and covered the rest of India (including Bombay city). 
    • It had 200 branches, was loosely organized as compared to Tilak’s league, and had George Arundale as the organising secretary.
    • Besides Arundale, the main work was done by B.W. Wadia and C.P. Ramaswamy Aiyar.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 13
Which one of the following pairs of Deccan Sultanates and their respective regions is not correctly matched?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 13

Option 1 is not correctly matched.

Key Points

  • The Deccan Sultanates were the five different Muslim-ruled dynasties of the medieval period that ruled in Golconda, Bijapur, Bidar, Ahmednagar, and Berar of South-Central India. 
  • These 5 kingdoms were situated between the Vindhya Ranges and the Krishna River in the Deccan Plateau which later became independent states during the disintegration of the Bahmani Sultanates.
  • Ahmednagar Sultanate
    • Also known as the Nizam Shahi dynasty, the Ahmadnagar Sultanate was established by Malik Ahmed Shah Bahri. Hence Option 1 is not correctly matched
  • Bijapur Sultanate
    • It is known as the Adil Shahi dynasty was founded by Ismail Adil Shah in 1490 A.D. and was ruled by the Adil Shahi Dynasty.
  • Berar Sultanate 
    • The Berar Sultanate was founded by Fath-Ullah Imad- ul-Mulk in the year 1490 and was ruled by the Imad Shahi dynasty.
  • Golkonda Sultanate 
    • The Qutb Shahi dynasty or the Golkonda Sultanate was known as the ruling family of the sultanate of Golkonda.
  • Bidar Sultanate
    • It was the smallest of all the five Deccan sultanates and was founded by Qasim Barid after its independence in 1528.
    • The dynasty was ruled by the Barid Shahi dynasty and was annexed by the Bijapur sultanate in 1619 AD.
 
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 14

"Stopper"  terminology is associated with which of the following sports?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 14

The correct answer is option 1) i.e Football.

Important Points

  • A stopper is positioned between the defenders and the midfielders.
  • They typically stay in a central position on the field, focusing on stopping balls from getting to the defence.
  • Occasionally, the stopper will move far towards the touchlines in order to stop an attack from the other team.
  • Stoppers often help to move the ball from the defenders to the midfielders or forwards.
  • This position is not included in every lineup; only some coaches choose to use stoppers in their on-field formations.

Key Points

About Football:

  • The Football game is a team game and an outdoor sport which is basically played on the field. The field is rectangular in shape. Some of the countries Football game is known as Soccer.
  • This game consists of two teams sixteen(16) players on each team Eleven(11) players from each team played on the field and the rest of the five (5) players are sitting on the substitute bench.
  • The standard dimension of the Football Field is (110 meters by 90 meters) in length and (90 meters by 60 meters) in breadth approximately the international stadium size.
  • The weight of the football is measured on an Ounce. Some of the positions of football are played on the field they are Stopper, Goal Keeper, Winger (right and left), Striker, Midfielder, etc.
  • In 1888The Football League was founded in England (United Kingdom) and became the first of many professional football competitions in the world
  • Globally Football is governed by FIFA (Federation International Football Association). It was established on 21st May 1904 in Paris (France).
  • In India Football is governed by AIFF (All India Football Federation). It was founded on 23rd June 1937.

 Additional Information

  • The current President of FIFA is Mr. Gianni Infantino (August 2020). Its headquarters is located in Zurich(Switzerland).
  • The current President of AIFF is Mr. Kalyan Chaubey (August 2020). Its headquarters is located in New Delhi.
  • The latest ranking by FIFA Brazil topped the spot at 1st rank (April 2022) and India at 106th rank (April 2022).
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 15
The transport system of plants depends majorly on the two tissues _____ and _______.
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 15

The correct option is 4, i.e Xylem and phloem.

  • The transport system of plants depends majorly on the two tissues Xylem and Phloem.
  • Xylem transport water and minerals.
  • Xylem tissues are tubular shape structure.
  • Xylem fibres are smaller.
  • Phloem transport food material.
  • Phloem tissues are elongated, tubular shaped.
  • Phloem fibres are larger.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 16
Color of which of the following soil is red due to diffusion of iron rather than the pressure of environment?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 16

The correct answer is Red Soil.

Key Points

  • Red Soil:-
    • ​Red soil develops reddish colour due to the diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
    • It looks yellow in a hydrated form.
    • It is highly porous and fertile when they are fine-grained and deep.
    • This soil is deficient in nitrogen, humus, phosphoric acid, magnesium, and lime but fairly rich in potash, with its pH ranging from neutral to acidic.
    • Cotton, wheat, rice, beans, millets, tobacco, oilseeds, potatoes, and fruits are some of the appropriate crops for red soils.
    • Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau.
    • They are also found in parts of Orissa, Chhattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga plain and along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats.

Additional Information Laterite Soil

  • Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means brick. 
  • The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperatures and heavy rainfall. 
  • These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminum compound are left behind. 
  • Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature. 
  • These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. 
  • Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilizers are required for making the soils fertile for cultivation. 
  • Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashewnut.
  • Laterite soils are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction. 
  • These soils have mainly developed in the higher areas of the Peninsular plateau. 
  • The laterite soils are commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam.

Black Soil

  • Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which include parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
  • These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’.
  • The black soils are generally clayey, deep, and impermeable.
  • They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. Being sticky is characteristic of black soil.
  • So, during the dry season, this soil develops wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self-ploughing’.
  • The black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia, and alumina.
  • They also contain potash but they lack phosphorous, nitrogen, and organic matter.

Alluvial Soil

  • Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. These soils cover almost 40% of the total area of the country. 
  • They are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams
  • Zonal Soil- These types of soil have the same mineral properties that of the parent rock and are found in the same area where they are weathered.
  • The alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy, loam to clay.
  • Alluvial soils lack nitrogen, phosphorus and humus. However, they are generally rich in potash and lime. 
  • In the Upper and Middle Ganga plain, two different types of alluvial soils have developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar.
  • Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts.
  • Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains.
  • The colour of the alluvial soils varies from light grey to ash grey.
  • The soil lacks nitrogen content. 
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 17
Which was the first National Movement in which women's participation was really very notable?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 17

The correct answer is Dandi March.

Key Points

Dandi March

  • On 12th March 1930, Gandhiji began his march from the ashram to the ocean. He reached shore and made salt and thereby making himself a criminal insight of law. Many parallel salt marches were undertaken during this time in other parts of the country.
  • It brought Mahatma Gandhi and India to the attention of the world.
  • It was the first National Movement in which women participation was really very notable.
  • Kamladevi Chattopadhyay, a socialist leader persuaded Gandhi not to restrict movement to men alone.
  • Many women including Kamladevi broke salt and liquor laws and courted arrest.
  • Third and most significant was that this movement forced the British to realise that their Raj would not last forever and they need to devolve some power to Indians.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 18
Which of the following languages is NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 18

The correct answer is English.

Key Points

  • The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of India.
  • As per Articles 344 (1) and 351 of the Indian Constitution, the 8th schedule includes 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili, and Dogri.
  • Surprisingly these 22 languages do not include “English” which is widely spoken in India.​

Mistake Points

  • Many students confuse these languages with “Classical language” which includes only 6 languages - Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (declared in 2005), Kannada (declared in 2008), Telugu (declared in 2008), Malayalam (declared in 2013), and Odia (declared in 2014).​

Additional Information

  • Nepali was originally not present in the 8th schedule of the constitution but later added with the 71st amendment act along with Konkani & Manipuri.
  • Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding frictional unemployment

A. It is a type of unemployment that arises during workers transition from one job to another.

B. Frictional unemployment tends to fall during the recession.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 19

The Correct answer is Both A and B.

Important Points

  • Frictional unemployment is a type of unemployment that arises when workers are searching for new jobs or are transitioning from one job to another. It is part of natural unemployment and hence is present even when the economy is considered at full employment.
    • Hence statement A is correct.
  • The major cause of frictional unemployment include -:
  • A mismatch between the workers and available jobs
  • If there is a mismatch between job-seekers and available jobs in the market, that is considered frictional unemployment. The issue can especially affect the new entrants or re-entrants to the job market. This is generally due to the natural career progression for an employee, and their natural transition to a new job, industry, or role.
  • Workers’ dissatisfaction with work conditions
  • Workers’ anxiety towards salaries, benefits, work location, job responsibilities, etc. may force them to quit their current job, and look for something that better meets their updated expectations.
  • In a recession, frictional unemployment tends to fall as workers have less confidence to wait for a better job. They are more likely to stay in their current job or take the first job that comes along.
    • Hence statement B is correct
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 20

Which of the following are metalloids? 

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 20

The correct answer is Boron, silicon, antimony.

 Key Points

  • Metalloids:-
    • These are elements that have properties similar to both metals and non-metals. In some of their properties, they show similarity with metals and in others with non-metals.
    • They are hence placed in between metals and non-metals.
    • Metalloids can also be called semimetals.
    • They are found in groups 13, 14, 15, 16 and 17 of the p-block.
    • Metalloids include Boron, Silicon, Germanium, Arsenic, Antimony, Tellurium and Polonium.
    • Total elements are 118 out of which 91 are metals, 7 are metalloids, and 20 are non-metals.
    • In the modern periodic table, metalloids are in Right of the periodic table

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 21
The Right to Property is a Constitutional Right under the Article ­-
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 21

The correct answer is a 300 AKey Points

Right to Property

  • The property right was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44thAmendment Act, 1978. It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
  • It is not an exclusive legal right offered to citizens. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • Amendments for this purpose are made to article 19 and article 31 is deleted.
  • It is ensured that the removal of property from the list of fundamental rights would not affect the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
  • The 44thAmendment Act, 1978 inserted Article 300A in a new chapter IV of Part XII of the Constitution, thereby depriving the ‘right to property of its ‘fundamental right’ status.
  • Article 300 A of the constitution of India says that a person shall not be deprived of his property save by the authority of the law.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 22
Three persons P, Q and R rent a piece of land to graze their cows. P grazes 15 cows for 4 months, Q grazes 21 cows for 3 months and R grazes 24 cows for 5 months. If the rent of the land for a year is Rs. 3240, then how much money will P give as the rent?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 22

GIVEN:

P grazes 15 cows for 4 months, Q grazes 21 cows for 3 months and R grazes 24 cows for 5 months.

Rent for a year = Rs. 3240

CONCEPT:

Rent will be shared according to the number of cows and time for which the cows graze.

CALCULATION:

According to the given data:

Ratio in which the rent will be shared among P, Q and R

= (15 × 4) : (21 × 3) : (24 × 5)

= 60 : 63 : 120

= 20 : 21 : 40

Hence,

Rent paid by P =  = Rs. 800

∴ Rent paid by P is Rs. 800.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 23
The difference between the simple interest and compound interest (interest is compounded half yearly) on a sum at the rate of 25% per annum for one year is ₹ 4375. What will be the principal?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 23

Given:

The difference between the simple interest and compound interest (interest is compounded half yearly) on a sum at the rate of 25% per annum for one year is ₹ 4375

Formula used:

Simple Interest = (P × N × R)/100

Compound Interest = [P(1 + (r/200))T] - P      (for compounded half yearly)

Calculation:

Let P be the Principal,

S.I = (P × 1 × 25)/100 = P/4

C.I = [P(1 + (25/200))2] - P        ( T = 2   ∵ compounded half yearly for 1 year)

⇒ C.I = 17P/64

Now, C.I - S.I = (17P/64) - (P/4) = P/64

⇒ P/64 = 4375

∴ P = 64 × 4375 = 280000

Shortcut TrickFormula used:

CI - SI = P(R/100)2

Rate (R) = 25%/2 due to the compounded half-yearly.

⇒ 4375 = P (25/200)2

⇒ P = 4375 × 64

⇒ P = 280,000

∴ The sum is Rs. 280,000.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 24
A retailer prices his products to earn a 40% profit even after offering a 4a% discount. If on a particular day, instead of the usual discount, the retailer ends up giving a (3a + 25)% discount to a customer, what will be his percentage of profit or loss?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 24

Given:

Profit % of the retailer = 40%

Discount = 4a%

New discount =  (3a + 25)%

Formula Used: 

Calculation:

 

       .........(1)

Now, when the discount is (3a + 25)%

              .........(2)

Equate the value of equation (1) in eq. (2), we get,

 = 

⇒ 100 × 100 - 400a + 100p - 4ap = 140 × 100 - 3a × 140 - 25 × 140 

⇒ 10000 + 100p - 4ap - 400a = 14000 - 420a - 3500

⇒ 100p - 4ap = 500 - 20a 

⇒ p(100 - 4a) = 5(100 - 4a)

⇒ p = 5

Here, p is a positive value so the profit will occur. 

∴ The correct answer is 5% Profit.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 25

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.

Education gives people the knowledge and skills they need to stay healthy, get jobs and foster tolerance.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 25

The correct answer is: Endurance
Key Points

  • Tolerance means the ability to accept or endure differences, especially those in opinions, beliefs, or behaviours, without reacting negatively. (सहनशीलता)
    • ExampleThe community embraced cultural tolerance, celebrating diversity and understanding.
  • Marked option Endurance means the ability to endure or withstand hardship or adversity. (सहनशक्ति)
    • ExampleMarathon runners showcase incredible endurance, pushing their physical limits over long distances.
  • In the given context, education helps people endure challenges and maintain their well-being.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.
Additional Information

  • Entrench means to establish firmly or securely. (मोरचा करना)
  • Distrust means to have doubts or suspicions about someone or something. (संदेह)
  • Lethargy means a lack of energy or enthusiasm. (आलस्य)
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 26

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Pernicious

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 26

The correct answer is: Compassionate.
Key Points

  • Pernicious means harmful or destructive, so its antonym should mean helpful or beneficial. (हानिकारक या विनाशकारी)
    • ExampleThe pernicious influence of the toxic substance led to harmful effects on the environment.
  • Compassionate fits this description as it means showing sympathy and concern for others, especially those who are suffering. (दूसरों के प्रति सहानुभूति और चिंता दिखाना)
    • ExampleThe compassionate nurse provided comfort and care to the suffering patient.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • Malicious means intending to do harm or cause trouble. (नुकसान पहुंचाने या परेशानी पैदा करने का इरादा)
  • Wicked means evil or morally wrong. (बुरा या नैतिक रूप से गलत)
  • Injurious means causing harm or damage. (हानि या क्षति पहुँचाना)
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 27

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 27

The correct answer is "nervousness". 

Key Points

  • "Nervousness" is a perfect fit because it's normal to feel a bit nervous before speaking in public, even for those who are experienced or confident.
  • This word accurately reflects the slight fear or anxiety that comes with public speaking, making it the right choice.
  • So, the best choice from the given options for blank no. 5 is "nervousness".
    • It aligns with the natural anxiety a public speaker might experience, which the passage intends to acknowledge.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

  • "Childishness" doesn't fit in the context.
    • The fear or tension that comes with public speaking isn't related to immaturity or child-like behavior.
  • "Happiness" also isn't a fit because, while public speaking may bring joy to some, it isn't inherently associated with happiness, and the context of this passage suggests a slightly intimidating or challenging experience, not a joyous one.
  • "Trick" doesn't make sense in this context.
    • The term usually means a cunning or skillful act or scheme intended to deceive or outwit someone, which has nothing to do with the given context about the inherent challenges of public speaking.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 28

Parts of the following sentence are given as options. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

A businessman at our colony was found COVID positive.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 28

The erroneous part is 'at our colony'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'in our colony' should be used instead of 'at our colony'.
  • The preposition 'in' is used to show place inside or to a position inside a particular area or object. [(पूर्वसर्ग) (स्‍थान का निर्देश) अंदर या किसी क्षेत्र या वस्‍तु के भीतर कोई स्थिति में, के अंदर]
    • Example: He lives in a grand mansion.

Correct Sentence: A businessman in our colony was found COVID positive.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 29

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.

The decision of the committee may mitigate the growth of the organisation.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 29

The correct answer is: Lessen

Key Points

  • Mitigate means to make something less severe or intense. (किसी चीज़ को कम गंभीर या गहन बनाना)
    • Example: Installing new safety measures can help mitigate workplace risks.
  • Marked option Lessen means to reduce in amount, degree, or intensity. (मात्रा, डिग्री या तीव्रता में कमी करना)
    • Example: Taking regular breaks can lessen the strain on your eyes while working on the computer.
  • So, it is clear that Lessen is a synonym for mitigate.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • Show means making something visible, to display or present. (किसी चीज़ को दृश्यमान बनाना, प्रदर्शित करना या प्रस्तुत करना)
  • Accelerate means to increase the speed or rate of something. (किसी चीज़ की गति या दर बढ़ाना)
  • Divert means to redirect or change the course of something. (किसी चीज़ की दिशा को पुनर्निर्देशित करना या बदलना)
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 30

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

There was a huge (A)/ crowd as the famous actress (B)/ was invited to inauguration the function. (C)/ No Error. (D) 

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 11 - Question 30

The correct answer is 'was invited to inauguration the function'.

Key Points

  • The error in the sentence lies in the use of the word "inauguration." In the context provided, it's not the function that's being inaugurated but rather the action of initiating or formally starting the function that's intended.
  • The correct word to use here is "inaugurate." "Inaugurate" is a verb that means to formally begin or introduce something, especially an event, by performing a ceremony or taking an official action.
  • In this case, the famous actress was invited to perform the act of inaugurating or formally starting the function. So, the corrected sentence should be: "There was a huge crowd as the famous actress was invited to inaugurate the function."
  • This change makes the sentence grammatically accurate by using the verb "inaugurate" in its proper form to indicate the actress's action of formally commencing the function.
     

Correct Sentence: There was a huge crowd as the famous actress was invited to inaugurate the function.

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