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SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - SSC CGL MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test SSC CGL Tier 1 and Tier 2 Mock Test Series 2026 - SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 for SSC CGL 2025 is part of SSC CGL Tier 1 and Tier 2 Mock Test Series 2026 preparation. The SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 questions and answers have been prepared according to the SSC CGL exam syllabus.The SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 MCQs are made for SSC CGL 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 below.
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SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 1

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

First row - 67, 25, 101

Second row - 55, 17, 97

Third row - 45, 19, ?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 1

The logic followed here is:

(First number × 3) - (Second number × 4) = Third number

First row - 67, 25, 101 → (67 × 3) - (25 × 4) = 201 - 100 = 101

Second row - 55, 17, 97 → (55 × 3) - (17 × 4) = 165 - 68 = 97

Similarly,

Third row - 45, 19, ? → (45 × 3) - (19 × 4) = 135 - 76 = 59

Hence, option 4) is the correct answer.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 2

In a certain code language, 'India is my country' means ‘8573’, 'Sam is my friend' means ‘8634’, 'My country' means ‘73’ and 'Team India' means ‘59’. What number is the code for 'Country'?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 2

According to the given information

‘Country’ is coded as 7.

Hence, ‘7’ is the correct answer.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 3

Find the missing number from the given series:

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 3

Logic: The given table follows column-wise relation as :

In the rows, 3rd  element = (1st element - 1) × 2nd element

Row 1: 

( 5 - 1) × 8 = 4 × 8 = 32 (3rd element)

Row 2: 

(9 - 1) × 6 = 8 × 6 = 48 (third element)

Row 3: 

(7 - 1) × 9 = 6 × 9 = 54 (third element)

Hence, the correct answer is "54".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 4

Which of the following letter cluster will replace the blanks in the given series?

ca _ pcaa _ caa _ caap _ aap

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 4

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: ca _ pcaa _ caa _ caap _ aap

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) aacp → c a a p / c a a a / c a a c / c a a p / p a a p

Option 2) aapp → c a a p / c a a a / c a a p / c a a p / p a a p

Option 3) appc → c a a p / c a a p / c a a p / c a a p / c a a p

Option 4) appp → c a a p / c a a p / c a a p / c a a p / p a a p

Here, 'Option 3' followed a pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 5

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 5

The image obtained when the paper is unfolded is,

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 6

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

20, 25, 35, 50, 70, ?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 6

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "95".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 7

From the given alternatives select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 7

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "option 3" is the correct answer.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 8

Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following terms in a logical and meaningful order in terms of area (km2).

1. Atlantic Ocean

2. Pacific Ocean

3. Southern Ocean

4. Arctic Ocean

5. Indian Ocean

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 8

The logic followed here is:

The oceans are arranged in increasing order in terms of their area.

The correct order as per the logic is,

4) Arctic Ocean

3) Southern Ocean

5) Indian Ocean

1) Atlantic Ocean

2) Pacific Ocean

Hence, the correct answer is " 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 ".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 9

Which of the following travellers was/were associated with the Vijayanagara empire?

  1. Ibn Battuta
  2. Marco Polo 
  3. Nicolo de Conti
  4. Domingo Paes

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 9

The correct answer is ​1, 3, and 4 only.

Key Points

  • Many foreign travellers visited the Vijayanagara empire and have provided valuable information about the empire.
  • The Moroccan traveller Ibn Battuta, Venetian traveller Nicolo de Conti, Persian traveller Abdur Razzak and the Portuguese traveller Domingo Paes were among them who left valuable accounts on the socio-economic conditions of the Vijayanagar Empire.
  • Ibn Battuta was one of the great geographers and explorers of the 14th century and his book “Travels of Ibn Battuta” is significant in understanding the history of Asian trade. 
    • He was from Morocco, who travel thirty years of his life from North Africa, West Africa, Southern Europe and Eastern Europe in the West, to the Middle East, Indian subcontinent, Central Asia, Southeast Asia and East China.
    • He left an account of Harihara I’s reign in his book Rehla.
  • Nicolo de Conti, an Italian, was at Vijayanagara in about 1420, just after the accession of Devaraya I. 
    • The first known foreign traveller, he mentions the fortifications of the city and the thousands of men employed in the army of the rulers.
  • Abdur Razzak: He was a Persian, Timurid chronicler and a scholar who visited the Vijaynagar Kingdom at the time of Dev Raya II as an ambassador of Shah Rukh, the Timurid dynasty ruler of Persia. 
    • He gives an account of the reign of Devaraya II in his Matla as Sadain Wa Majma ul Bahrain.
  • Domingo Paes: The most detailed chronicles of Vijayanagara was provided by him.
    • Domingo Paes was at Vijayanagara in about 1520-22, during the reign of Krishnadevaraya.
    • The visitor gives invaluable information on the walls, gates, streets and markets of the city, as well as the major temples of the city, including the Virupaksha at Hampi, together with its collonaded bazaar.
    • Paes describes the Mahanavami festival at some length.
    • The description of the king’s palace with which Paes’s account concludes seems to apply to Krishnadevaraya’s new residence in what is now Hospet.

Additional Information

  • Marco Polo is an Italian traveller who visited India during 1288-1292 AD under the reign of the Pandya Kingdom
    • According to him Pandion Empire ruling half of India at that point in time was the richest empire in existence and they were called Gods.
  • Athanasius Nikitin: He was the first Russian traveller and merchant who visited India.
    • He described the conditions of the Bahamani kingdom under Muhammad III in his Voyage to India. 
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 10
Identify the set comprising cold blooded organisms. 
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 10

The correct answer is Snake, Frog, Cockroach.

Concept:

Cold-blooded organisms

  • Cold-blooded organisms are also known as ectothermic organisms.
  • Cold-blooded organisms are incapable of controlling their body temperature.
  • They rely on external sources of heat to regulate their body temperature.
  • Snakes, frogs, lizards, earthworms, and cockroaches are cold-blooded organisms.

Warm-blooded organisms

  • Warm-blooded organisms are also known as endothermic organisms.
  • These organisms can internally regulate their body temperature, often maintaining a relatively constant temperature regardless of the external environment.
  • Parrots, dolphins, pigeons, humans, and Whales are warm-blooded organisms.

Explanation:

Option 1: Lizard, Parrot, Dolphin

  • Lizard: Lizards are cold-blooded reptiles that cannot internally regulate their body temperature and rely on external sources of heat.
  • Parrot: Parrots are warm-blooded birds that can maintain a relatively constant body temperature through metabolic processes.
  • Dolphin: Dolphins are warm-blooded marine mammals that have the ability to maintain a constant body temperature despite the surrounding water temperature.

Option 2: Pigeon, Humans, Lizard

  • Pigeon: Pigeons are warm-blooded birds that can maintain a relatively constant body temperature through metabolic processes.
  • Humans: Humans are warm-blooded mammals with the ability to regulate their body temperature internally.
  • Lizard: As mentioned earlier, lizards are cold-blooded reptiles that rely on external sources of heat for temperature regulation.

Option 3: Snake, Frog, Cockroach

  • Snake: Snakes are cold-blooded reptiles that rely on external heat sources to regulate their body temperature.
  • Frog: Frogs are cold-blooded amphibians that have body temperatures influenced by the environment.
  • Cockroaches: Cockroaches are cold-blooded insects that do not have the ability to regulate their body temperature internally.

Option 4: Whale, Frog, Earthworm

  • Whale: Whales are warm-blooded marine mammals that can maintain a constant body temperature even in cold water.
  • Frog: As mentioned earlier, frogs are cold-blooded amphibians that have body temperatures influenced by the environment.
  • Earthworm: Earthworms are cold-blooded invertebrates that have body temperatures tied to their surroundings.

Thus, Snakes, frogs, and cockroaches are cold-blooded organisms.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 11

The Refrigerator works on which of the following principles?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 11

The correct answer is Evaporation.

Key Points

  • The electrical appliance which keeps the object cool is called a refrigerator.
    • The refrigerator works on the Carnot cycle.
    • An ideal cycle that gives maximum possible efficiency is called the Carnot cycle.
    • The first refrigerator was built by John Gorrie in 1844.
    • The five basic parts of a refrigerator are an expansion valve, evaporator coils, compressor, Radiator pipes, and refrigerant.
    • The expansion valve lowers the temperature of the refrigerant by expanding it, and then it flows through the chilling cabinet, cooling it down.
    • The other components control the flow of refrigerant and radiate out the heat.
  • The basic principle is that whenever a liquid coolant is passed through things at a higher temperature, it absorbs the heat; gets evaporated and the cooling effect is produced.
  • The Refrigerator works on the principle of evaporation. So option 4 is correct.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 12

Consider the following pair:


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 12

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

  • The famous Hornbill festival is celebrated in Nagaland. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
    • Hornbill Festival is celebrated every year in Nagaland in the first week of December every year.
    • It is one of the famous &  biggest home-bred festivals in the country.
    • The festival pays respect & gives tribute to Hornbill which is the most revered & admired bird, especially for Nagas. 
  • The Tibetan New Year, popularly known as Lossar is a festival in Sikkim which is celebrated with a lot of fervor and enthusiasm. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched
    • A harvest festival, Lossar is a significant day among the Tibetans.
    • Also known as Gyalpo Lossar it is celebrated by visiting the monastery and after performing the rituals the people visit relatives and friends.
    • The Losar festival is also celebrated by the Monpa Tribe of Tawang and the West Kemang district of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Kharchi Puja is a Hindu festival from TripuraHence, pair 3 is correctly matched
    • it's a week-long royal Puja that falls in the month of July on the eighth day of the new moon.
    • This festival is celebrated at Agartala (Puran Agartala) in the temple premises of Fourteen gods.
    • The word "Kharchi" is derived from the word "Khya" which means "Earth".
    • Kharchi Puja is basically done to worship the earth.
    • All of the rituals are of tribal origin, which includes worshipping fourteen gods and Mother Earth.
    • The Puja is performed to wash out the sins and to clean the post-menstrual phase of Mother Earth's menstruation.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 13
Who is set to receive the Padmapani Lifetime Achievement Award at the Ajanta-Ellora Film Festival?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 13

The Correct Answer is Javed Akhtar.

In News

  • Javed Akhtar to be honoured at Ajanta-Ellora Film Festival.

Key Points

  • Veteran lyricist-screenwriter Javed Akhtar will be felicitated with the Padmapani Lifetime Achievement Award at the Ajanta-Ellora Film Festival.
  • Akhtar, the co-writer of Hindi cinema classics such as "Zanjeer", "Deewaar", "Sholay", "Don", "Kaala Patthar" and "Mr India", will be honoured for his contribution to the Indian film industry on the opening day of the festival's ninth edition.
  • The award ceremony will take place at Rukmini Auditorium in MGM University campus of Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar on January 3, 2024.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 14

Lysosomes are called the ''Suicidal bags'' because

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 14

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • Lysosomes: These are membrane-bound vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the Golgi apparatus.
  • These are also called ''Suicidal bags'' because of their phagocytic activity. Lysosome keeps the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles.
  •  If any cell or cell organelle gets damaged, the lysosome digest the damaged cell or cell organelle by the application of hydrolytic enzymes (hydrolases – lipases, proteases, carbohydrates)

Additional Information 

  • Ribosomes are responsible for the protein formation
  • Mitochondria produce ATP for the cell that is why they are also called the Powerhouse of the Cell
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 15
_______ metal is extracted by electrolysis only.
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 15

The correct answer is Al.

 Key Points

  • Al metal is extracted by electrolysis only.
  • Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of alumina mixed with molten cryolite.
  • This process is known as the Hoope’s process.
  • In this process, the impure aluminium is collected over the anode and the pure aluminium is obtained on the cathode with a salt of the metal being the electrolyte.

 Additional Information

  • During the electrolytic refining of aluminium metal, the impure metal/ore is placed at the anode of an electrolytic cell while the cathode is a thin plate of pure aluminium metal.
  • The electrolyte consists of the solution of a salt of the aluminium metal, i.e.cryolite and calcium fluoride.
    • On passing the electric current, the pure aluminium metal from the anode dissolves and gets deposited at the cathode.
    • The soluble impurities go into the solution while the remaining insoluble or the less electropositive impurities settle down below the anode as anode mud or sludge.
    • electrolysis is involved in the refining stage of copper production, it is not the primary method for extracting copper from its ores. Smelting is the primary extraction method, and electrolysis is used in the refining process to purify the obtained copper.
      • The difference lies only in the electrolyte and the substances placed at the respective anode and cathode.​ 
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 16
Who estimated the national income for the first time in India?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 16

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naroji.

Key Points

  • Dadabhai Naoroji prepared the first estimates of National income in 1876.
    • Dadabhai Naoroji fondly called the Grand Old Man of India, was the pioneer in this field
    • He estimated the national income by first estimating the value of agricultural production and then adding a certain percentage of non-agricultural production.
    • The first person to adopt a scientific procedure for estimating the national income was Dr V K R V Rao in 1931. He divided the Indian Economy into two parts :
    • Agricultural Sector included agriculture, forests, fishing, and hunting.
    • The corporate Sector included industries, construction, business, transport, and public services.
    • The product method was used for estimating income in the agricultural sector and the income method was used for estimating income in the corporate sector.

Additional Information

  • The Government of India appointed National Income Committee in 1949.
  • Since 1955 the national income estimates are being prepared by Central Statistical Organisation.
  • The Central Statistical Organisation has divided the Indian economy into three basic sectors:
    • The primary sector comprises agriculture, forestry, fishing, mining, and quarrying.
    • The secondary sector comprises manufacturing, power generation, gas, and water supply.
    • The tertiary sector comprises transport, communication and trade, banking insurance, computer software, public administration, defence, and external trade.
  • National Income does not include data :
    • Income from illegal activities like smuggling, gambling, etc.
    • Income from work done without remuneration like domestic work by housewives.
    • Black money
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 17
Which of the following state government inaugurated  'Mukhyamantri Ladli Bahna Awas Yojana'?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 17

The Correct Answer is Madhya Pradesh.

In News

  •  MP CM Chouhan inaugurates 'Mukhyamantri Ladli Bahna Awas Yojana'.

Key Points

  • Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan inaugurated 'Mukhyamantri Ladli Bahna Awas Yojana' at Kushabhau Thakre Convention Centre (Minto Hall) in Bhopal.
  • Under the scheme, the families who were left out of getting the benefit of housing facilities in various housing schemes will get their houses under it.
  • The scheme will include those families who do not have houses with pucca roof or live in kutcha houses with less than two rooms, do not own a motorised four-wheeler or whose family members do not have any member in government service, monthly income should be ₹ 12,000 or less.
  • Also, no member of the family should be an income tax payer and have 2.5 acres or less of irrigated land or less than 5 acres of non-irrigated agricultural land.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 18
According to the 2011 census, which of the following states of India has the lowest literacy rate?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 18

The correct answer is Bihar.Key Points

  • According to the 2011 Census, Bihar has the lowest rate of literacy (61.8%) among all the states.
  • Bihar has the lowest male and Rajasthan has the lowest female literacy rates (71.2% and 51.5%, respectively), while Kerala has the highest rates (96.1% and 92.1%, respectively).
  • Reason for low literacy rate in Bihar is:
    • Due to Bihar's poor educational infrastructure, there is a wide gap between supply and demand.
    • High poverty levels contribute to a focus on immediate survival over education.
    • Deep-rooted societal norms that may prioritize traditional roles over education.
    • High rates of labor migration leading to disruptions in education for families.

Additional Information

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 19
Which of the following river is the main source of Wular lake, the largest freshwater lake in India?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 19

The correct answer is Jhelum.

Key Points

  • Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India.
    • It lies in the Kashmir Valley.
    • It is located in the Bandipora district in Jammu and Kashmir.
    • It is also known as "Mahapadma Saras".
    • It is the second-largest freshwater lake in Asia.
    • Jhelum River is the main source of water for Wular Lake. Hence option 3 is correct.
    • It is formed as a result of tectonic activity.
    • It also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’. 
    • It was designated as a Ramsar site on 23rd March 1990.

Additional Information

  •  Jhelum River:
    • The Jhelum River is a tributary of Indus and is located in eastern Pakistan, northern India.
    • It originates from the Verinag Spring in Anantnag district of Jammu and Kashmir and flows into the Chenab river.
    • Right Bank Tributaries of Jhelum - Pohru, Sandrin, Arapal, Sindh, Arapath, Bringi, and Liddar. Left Bank Tributaries- Ningal, Vishav, Romshi, Doodganga, Rambiara, and Sukhnag.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 20

In the given figure, O is the point of intersection of two chords AB and CD such that OB = OD, then triangle OAC and ODB are

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 20

Given:

In the given figure, O is the point of intersection of two chords AB and CD such that OB = OD

Concept Used:

According to the chord intersection theorem, the product of two intersecting inside-the-circle chords' segments is equal.

Solution:

Given that, O is where the chords AB and CD converge and  OB = OD

The type of triangles OAC and ODB must be determined.

According to the chord intersection theorem, the product of two intersecting inside-the-circle chords' segments is equal.
As a result, the segment product is: OA x OB = OC x OD

∴  OA = OC and OB = OD.

In ΔOAC, OA and OC lengths are equal.

∴ The triangle is isosceles.

In ΔOBD, OB and OD lengths are equal.

∴ The triangle is isosceles.

Due to the resemblance characteristic, identical triangles have congruent corresponding angles and proportionate corresponding sides.

  (Vertically opposing angles)

OA = OB = OC = OD (radius)

∴ The corresponding sides and angles are equal.

The triangles OAC and OBD are hence comparable.

Hence, the triangles OAC and OBD are similar and isosceles.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 21

The amount spent on state together D1 and D4 exceeds that spent on together D2 and D7 by :

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 21

Calculation:

Total % of D1 and D4 = 12 + 14

⇒ 26%

Total % of D2 and D7 = 11 + 11

⇒ 22%

Difference = 26% - 22%

⇒ 4%

Difference in amount = 4962000 × 4%

⇒ 198480

∴ The required answer is Rs. 1,98,480.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 22

The age of two persons is in ratio 4 ∶ 5, another person who is 60% of the age of the older person is 14 years younger than the second person, what is the average age of the group?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 22

Let the age of two persons be 4x and 5x

According to the question,

Age of another person = (60/100) × 5x = 3x      ----(i)

∴ 4x – 3x = 14

⇒ x = 14

∴ Age of three persons in the group = 3 × 14, 4 × 14, 5 × 14 = 42, 56, 70

Average age of the group = (42 + 56 + 70)/3 = 56

∴ The average age of the group is 56

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 23

The distance between two pillars of length 16 m and 9 m is x meters. If two angles of elevation of their respective top from the bottom of the other are complementary to each other, then the value of x in meters is

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 23

Given

The distance between two pillars of length 16 m and 9 m is x meters.

Two angles of elevation of their respective top from the bottom of the other are complementary to each other.

Concept used

If two angles of elevation are complimentary to each other then H = √ab

Where a and b are the Length of the pillars.

Calculation

AB and CD are two pillars of Length 16 m and 9m.

Let the angle of elevation at B and D be θ and (90 - θ)

Distance between two pillars BD be x metres

IN Δ ABD

Tanθ = AB/BD = 16/x       - - - -(i)

In Δ BDC

Tan(90 - θ) = CD/BD = 9/x

Cotθ = 9/x                       - - - - (ii)

Multiply equation i and ii

⇒ Tanθ × Cotθ = (16/x) (9/x)

⇒ 144/x2 = 1

⇒ x2 = 144

x = 12 m

Alternate Method
If two angles of elevation are complimentary to each other then H = √ab

Where a and b are the Length of the pillars.

H = 

H = √144

H = 12 m

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 24

A shopkeeper offers three schemes as given below to sell a particular type of product. Which of the following schemes offer(s) the maximum discount percentage?

A. Buy 6, get 4 free

B. Buy 5, get 5 free

C. Two successive discounts of 18% and 24%

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 24

Formula used:

Effective discount = x + y - (x × y)/100

effective discount = (Article get free)/(Total articles) × 100

Calculation:

Scheme A. Buy 6 get 4 free

So, effective discount for scheme A is = (Article get free)/(Total articles) × 100

= 4/(6 + 4) × 100 = 40%

Scheme B. Buy 5 get 5 free

So, effective discount for scheme B is = (Article get free)/(Total articles) × 100

= 5/(5 + 5 ) × 100 = 50%

Scheme C. Two successive discounts of 18% and 24%

= 18 + 24 - (18 × 24)/100

= 42 - 4.32

= 37.68%

B has the maximum discount percentage.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 25
In a basket consists of Apples and oranges in the ratio of 6: 5. If x apples and (x + 2) oranges were rotten then the ratio of the fresh apples and oranges is 4: 3. Find the total number of rotten apples and oranges in the basket.difference between apples and oranges in the basket is 8.
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 25

Solution:

Number of apples in the basket = 6a

Number of oranges in the basket = 5a

difference between apples and oranges in the basket is 8

6a - 5a = 8

a = 8

Number of apples in the basket = 6a = 48

Number of oranges in the basket = 5a = 40

If x apples and (x + 2) oranges were rotten then,

Number of fresh apples to oranges are in the ratio 4: 3

(48 - x)/(40 - (x + 2) = 4/3

(144 - 3x) = (160 - 4x - 8)

-8 = -x 

x = 8

Total number of rotten oranges and apples in the basket is (8 + 8 + 2) = 18

Hence, option(3) is correct.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 26

Direction: Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

He was (A) / worn out if (B) / he got home. (C) / No error (D)

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 26

The correct answer is '(B)​.'

Key Points

  • The error lies in part (B) of the sentence.
  • We use if to introduce a possible or unreal situation or condition.
    • ExampleYou can only go in if you’ve got your ticket.
  • We use when to refer to the time of a future situation or condition that we are certain of.
    • ExampleWhen I’m older, I’d love to be a dancer.
  • Therefore, the use of 'ifin part '(B)​​' part of the sentence should be replaced by 'when' to make it grammatically correct.
  • Hence, the correct answer is '(B)​.'
  • Correct sentence: He was worn out when he got home.

Additional Information  

  • The present tense is the base form of the verb.
  • We use do and does to make questions with the present simple.
  • We use does for the third person singular (she/he/it) and do for the others.
  • We use do and does with question words like where, what and when.
    • Example: Where do Angela and Rita live?

Hinglish

  • त्रुटि भाग part (B) में निहित है।​
  • हम किसी संभावित या अवास्तविक स्थिति या स्थिति का परिचय देने के लिए if का उपयोग करते हैं।
    • ExampleYou can only go in if you’ve got your ticket.
  • हम भविष्य की स्थिति या स्थिति के समय का उल्लेख करने के लिए when उपयोग करते हैं, जिसके बारे में हम निश्चित हैं।​
    • ExampleWhen I’m older, I’d love to be a dancer.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 27

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Witty

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 27

The correct answer is: Serious
Key Points

  • Antonym of a word means a word that has the opposite meaning of the given word.
  • Witty means clever and humorous. (चतुर और विनोदी)
    • ExampleHis witty remarks kept the audience entertained.
  • Marked option Serious means solemn and not humorous. (गंभीर और विनोदी नहीं)
    • ExampleThe professor adopted a serious tone when discussing the research findings.
  • Therefore, serious is the most appropriate antonym for witty.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Cynical means distrustful and skeptical. (अविश्वासी और संशयवादी)
  • Callous means insensitive and cruel. (असंवेदनशील और क्रूर)
  • Giddy means dizzy and lightheaded. (चक्कर आना और सिर घूमना)
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 28

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Because of the region's scorching heat and aridity, a considerable amount of water evaporates.

B. As a result, the salt and other minerals become increasingly concentrated.

C. It is then unable to exit the lake and is forced to evaporate.

D. The Dead Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water on the planet, with about ten times the salt content of typical saltwater.

E. This is because water flows into the Dead Sea from a single primary tributary, the Jordan River.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 28

The correct answer is 'DECAB'.

Key Points

  • The given question is an example of a Para Jumble.
  • We know that the first statement of a para jumbled question is usually an independent general statement, a noun, a universal fact, starting of an incident, or it starts with 'most' or 'once'.
  • The correct sequence to form a coherent paragraph is: DECAB.
    • D. The Dead Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water on the planet, with about ten times the salt content of typical saltwater.
    • E. This is because water flows into the Dead Sea from a single primary tributary, the Jordan River.
    • C. It is then unable to exit the lake and is forced to evaporate.
    • A. Because of the region's scorching heat and aridity, a considerable amount of water evaporates.
    • B. As a result, the salt and other minerals become increasingly concentrated.
  • This arrangement also makes sense. It begins by stating the uniqueness of the Dead Sea's saltiness (D) and then explains the reason behind this high salt content (E). Subsequently, it describes the inability of water to exit and the subsequent evaporation (C), which is due to the extreme heat and aridity of the region (A).
  • Finally, it concludes by linking the consequence of water evaporation to the increased concentration of salt and minerals (B). This sequence creates a logical flow of information, explaining the characteristics and factors contributing to the Dead Sea's high salinity. 
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.
     

Correct Answer: The Dead Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water on the planet, with about ten times the salt content of typical saltwater. This is because water flows into the Dead Sea from a single primary tributary, the Jordan River. It is then unable to exit the lake and is forced to evaporate. Because of the region's scorching heat and aridity, a considerable amount of water evaporates. As a result, the salt and other minerals become increasingly concentrated.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 29

Direction: Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined segment.

The company was known for its deserving respect or admiration business practices and honest and fair ethical standards

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 29

The correct answer is "honourable."
Key Points

  • "Honourable" means deserving of respect or admiration. (सम्‍मानजनक; सम्‍मानपूर्ण)
    • Example: He is an honourable person.
  • It is the most appropriate one-word substitute for the phrase "deserving respect or admiration."
  • It is also a grammatically correct option, as it fits the context of the sentence.
  • The correct answer is Option 1.

 Additional Information

  • Option 2, "decent", means conforming to accepted standards of morality or respectability. It is not as strong as "honourable". (शालीन; उचित, उपयुक्त)
  • Option 3, "respectable", means considered to be socially acceptable or successful. It does not necessarily imply ethical standards. (सम्‍मान-योग्‍य, आदरणीय (समाज में अच्‍छा, उचित या सही माना जाने वाला))
  • Option 4, "trustworthy", means deserving of trust or confidence. It is related to honesty, but does not cover all aspects of the original phrase. (विश्‍वास-योग्‍य, विश्‍वसनीय, भरोसेमंद)
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 30

​Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 5.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 14 - Question 30

The correct answer is "always".

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the blank will imply how the symbols were all the time connected with specific merchandise.
  • Now, among the given options, the correct word to use is "always."
  • "Always" is the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
    • It indicates a consistent or constant behavior or action.(हमेशा)
  • The use of "just" or "like" would not convey the same meaning.
  • The option "some" does not fit in the sentence structure.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  •  Option 1, "just", implies a recent or immediate action.(अभी)
  • Option 3, "like", suggests a comparison or similarity.(के समान)
  • Option 4, "some", does not make sense in the sentence structure.(कुछ)
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