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SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - SSC CGL MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 for SSC CGL 2025 is part of SSC CGL preparation. The SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 questions and answers have been prepared according to the SSC CGL exam syllabus.The SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 MCQs are made for SSC CGL 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 below.
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SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 1

A school has four sections A, B, C, D of Class IX students.

The results of half yearly and annual examinations are shown in the table given below.

Q. How many students are there in Class IX in the school?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 1

Since the classification of the students on the basis of their results and sections form independent groups, so the total number of students in the class:
= (28 + 23 + 17 + 27 + 14 + 12 + 8 + 13 + 6 + 17 + 9 + 15 + 64 + 55 + 46 + 76)
= 430.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 2

A school has four sections A, B, C, D of Class IX students.

The results of half yearly and annual examinations are shown in the table given below.

Q. Which section has the maximum pass percentage in at least one of the two examinations?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 2

Pass percentages in at least one of the two examinations for different sections are:

Clearly, the pass percentage is maximum for Section D.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 3

Directions: Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.
The following graph shows the percentage break-up of sales of units of different products in 2018.

Product A is sold at Rs.40/unit. The shopkeeper earns Rs.18000 from product A.

Q. The shopkeeper made Rs. 25 profit on each unit of product B. How much profit did the shopkeeper make?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 3

No. of units of product A sold = 18000/40 = 450
So total products sold = 

No. of units of products B sold = 

The profit made = (270 × 25) = Rs. 6750

Hence, option A is correct.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 4

Directions: In the following question, study the two pie-charts and answer the questions.
April Month's Salary = Rs. 24000.

May Month's Salary = Rs. 25000.

Q. What is the percent increase in Education in May month than April month?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 4

Expenditure on education in April

Expenditure on education in May

Percentage increase

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 5

Directions: In the following question, study the two pie-charts and answer the questions.
April Month's Salary = Rs. 24000.

May Month's Salary = Rs. 25000.

Q. From the salary of May, the amount spent on Grocery and Electricity are:

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 5

Expenditure on grocery

Expenditure on electricity

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 6

17 × 756 ÷ √2916 = ? +540

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 6

17*756÷54 = ? +540
17*14 = ? +540
238 = ? + 540
? =238-540 = -302

So option C is correct

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 7

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight boxes – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were placed in an almirah of eight shelves. The bottom shelf was numbered 1 and the topmost shelf was numbered 8. Each of these boxes contained different amount of Sugar – 25 kg, 20 kg, 17 kg, 10 kg, 8 kg, 5 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg but not necessarily in the same order.
Box V was placed at one of the even numbered shelves and contained 17 kg of Sugar. The box which was placed on 6th shelf contained 10 kg of Sugar. Box Q was placed immediately below the box which contained 8 kg of Sugar and immediately above the box which contained 2 kg of Sugar. Box R was not the lightest and Box U, was the heaviest. Box R was placed above the shelf on which Box U was placed but not on the even numbered shelf. Box P, contained 20 kg of Sugar, and was placed either at the top or bottom shelf. There are three boxes between Box U and Box S and Box S was placed below the shelf on which Box U was placed. T was placed immediately above the box which was heaviest.

Q. What amount of Sugar was contained by Box Q?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 7

Following the final solution we can say that box Q contained 1 Kg of Sugar.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
Final Solution:

Common Explanation:
Reference:
Eight boxes – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are placed in an almirah of eight shelves. The bottom shelf is numbered one and the topmost shelf is numbered 8. Each of these boxes contain different amount of Sugar – 25 kg, 20 kg, 17 kg, 10 kg, 8 kg, 5 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg but not necessarily in the same order.
Inference:
We will keep this information in mind while solving the puzzle.
Reference:
The box which was placed on 6th shelf contained 10 kg of Sugar.
Inference:
Using the above hints, we have:

Reference:
Box R was not the lightest and Box U, was the heaviest.
There are three boxes between Box U and Box S and Box S was placed below the shelf on which Box U was placed.
T was placed immediately above the box which was heaviest.
Inference:
Here, we have two possible scenarios in which we can use the above hints accordingly.
Case 1:

Case 2:

Here, we will make a mental note of information that Box R was not the lightest.
Reference:
Box R was placed above the shelf on which Box U was placed but not on the even numbered shelf.
Box P, contained 20 kg of Sugar, and was placed either at the top or bottom shelf. 
Inference:
At this point we cannot use the above hints in case 2 so we can say that case 2 is an invalid case.
Case 1:

Reference:
Box Q was placed immediately below the box which contained 8 kg of Sugar and immediately above the box which contained 2 kg of Sugar. 
Inference:
Here, we have two possible scenarios in which we can use the above hints in case 1 accordingly.
Case 1-A:

Case 1-B:

Reference:
Box V was placed at one of the even numbered shelves and contained 17 kg of Sugar.
Inference:
At this point we cannot fix the position of box V according to the above hints in case 1-B so we can say that case 1-B is an invalid case.
Case 1-A:

As we have already figured out that box R was not the lightest so we can say that box R contained 5 Kg of Sugar and box Q contained 1 Kg of Sugar.
Case 1-A:

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 8

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Alex, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo and Foxtrot joined six different colleges – UBS, SP JAIN, DAVIET, JBIMS, IIMA and IIMB and opted for six different courses in management – Marketing, Finance, Operations, HR, Logistics and General Management.
Each of them has a different educational qualification out of B. Tech, B.Sc, B.Com, C.A, BBM and BA.
The following information is available about them:

  • Delta joined SP JAIN and did not take up Marketing or Logistics and is not a B. Tech.
  • The person who joined IIMA opted for HR and is not a C.A or B.Sc.
  • Foxtrot is a C.A and has taken Finance management.
  • The person, who is a B.A graduate, joined JBIMS and took Logistics. Whereas, the person, who is a B.Com graduate, took up General Management.
  • The person, who is a B. Tech graduate, has taken Operations Management and did not join UBS or DAVIET.
  • Alex joined IIMB, Charlie is B.A graduate and Bravo took up HR.

Q. Which courses did Charlie opt for in his MBA?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 8

Following the common explanation, we observe that the Charlie opt for Logistics.
Option D is the correct answer. 

Common Explanation:
References:
Delta joined SP JAIN and did not take up Marketing or Logistics and is not a B. Tech.
Inference:

References:
Foxtrot is a C.A and has taken Finance management.
Inference:

References:
Alex joined IIMB, Charlie is B.A graduate and Bravo took up HR.
The person who joined IIMA opted for HR and is not a C.A or B.Sc.
Inference:

References:
The person, who is a B.A graduate, joined JBIMS and took Logistics
Inference:

References:
The person, who is a B. Tech graduate, has taken Operations Management and did not join UBS or DAVIET.
Inference:
Thus Alex is a B. Tech graduate.
Now as Delta has not opted for Marketing, Marketing must be opted by Echo, thus Delta opts General Management.

References:
The person, who is a  B . Com  graduate, took up General Management.
Inference:
Thus Delta is  B . Com  graduate.
Now is Bravo has not done B.Sc. he must have done BBM and thus Echo has done B.Sc.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 9

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Alex, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo and Foxtrot joined six different colleges – UBS, SP JAIN, DAVIET, JBIMS, IIMA and IIMB and opted for six different courses in management – Marketing, Finance, Operations, HR, Logistics and General Management.
Each of them has a different educational qualification out of B. Tech, B.Sc, B.Com, C.A, BBM and BA.
The following information is available about them:

  • Delta joined SP JAIN and did not take up Marketing or Logistics and is not a B. Tech.
  • The person who joined IIMA opted for HR and is not a C.A or B.Sc.
  • Foxtrot is a C.A and has taken Finance management.
  • The person, who is a B.A graduate, joined JBIMS and took Logistics. Whereas, the person, who is a B.Com graduate, took up General Management.
  • The person, who is a B. Tech graduate, has taken Operations Management and did not join UBS or DAVIET.
  • Alex joined IIMB, Charlie is B.A graduate and Bravo took up HR.

Q. What is the educational qualification of Delta and what is the course he opted for?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 9

Following the common explanation we observe that Delta has opted for B . C o m and General management.
Option C is hence the correct answer.

Common Explanation:
References:
Delta joined SP JAIN and did not take up Marketing or Logistics and is not a B. Tech.
Inference:

References:
Foxtrot is a C.A and has taken Finance management.
Inference:

References:
Alex joined IIMB, Charlie is B.A graduate and Bravo took up HR.
The person who joined IIMA opted for HR and is not a C.A or B.Sc.
Inference:

References:
The person, who is a B.A graduate, joined JBIMS and took Logistics
Inference:

References:
The person, who is a B. Tech graduate, has taken Operations Management and did not join UBS or DAVIET.
Inference:
Thus Alex is a B. Tech graduate.
Now as Delta has not opted for Marketing, Marketing must be opted by Echo, thus Delta opts General Management.

References:
The person, who is a  B . Com  graduate, took up General Management.
Inference:
Thus Delta is  B . Com  graduate.
Now is Bravo has not done B.Sc. he must have done BBM and thus Echo has done B.Sc.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 10

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Alex, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo and Foxtrot joined six different colleges – UBS, SP JAIN, DAVIET, JBIMS, IIMA and IIMB and opted for six different courses in management – Marketing, Finance, Operations, HR, Logistics and General Management.
Each of them has a different educational qualification out of B. Tech, B.Sc, B.Com, C.A, BBM and BA.
The following information is available about them:

  • Delta joined SP JAIN and did not take up Marketing or Logistics and is not a B. Tech.
  • The person who joined IIMA opted for HR and is not a C.A or B.Sc.
  • Foxtrot is a C.A and has taken Finance management.
  • The person, who is a B.A graduate, joined JBIMS and took Logistics. Whereas, the person, who is a B.Com graduate, took up General Management.
  • The person, who is a B. Tech graduate, has taken Operations Management and did not join UBS or DAVIET.
  • Alex joined IIMB, Charlie is B.A graduate and Bravo took up HR.

Q. If Echo joined DAVIET, then the student who joined UBS, opted for:

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 10

Following the common explanation, if Echo joined DAVIET then Foxtrot will join UBS and opted for finance.
Option A is hence the correct answer.

Common Explanation:
References:
Delta joined SP JAIN and did not take up Marketing or Logistics and is not a B. Tech.
Inference:

References:
Foxtrot is a C.A and has taken Finance management.
Inference:

References:
Alex joined IIMB, Charlie is B.A graduate and Bravo took up HR.
The person who joined IIMA opted for HR and is not a C.A or B.Sc.
Inference:

References:
The person, who is a B.A graduate, joined JBIMS and took Logistics
Inference:

References:
The person, who is a B. Tech graduate, has taken Operations Management and did not join UBS or DAVIET.
Inference:
Thus Alex is a B. Tech graduate.
Now as Delta has not opted for Marketing, Marketing must be opted by Echo, thus Delta opts General Management.

References:
The person, who is a  B . Com  graduate, took up General Management.
Inference:
Thus Delta is  B . Com  graduate.
Now is Bravo has not done B.Sc. he must have done BBM and thus Echo has done B.Sc.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 11

Directions: A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input:   62 97 38 74 55 12 86 45 68 22
Step 1: 13 62 97 38 74 55 86 45 68 23
Step 2: 39 13 62 97 74 55 86 68 23 46
Step3:  56 39 13 97 74 86 68 23 46 63
Step 4: 69 56 39 13 97 86 23 46 63 75
Step 5: 87 69 56 39 13 23 45 63 75 98

Find the different steps of output using the above-mentioned logic for the following input.
Input:  88 59 28 94 37 75 15 64 71 48

Q. How many numbers are there between 72 and the one which 4th to left of 76 in step 5?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 11

Clearly, there are two numbers between '16' which is 4th to the left of 76 and 72 in step 5.
Step 5: 89 72 60 38 16 29 49 65 76 95
Hence, option B is correct.

Complete Machine Process:
Input: 88 59 28 94 37 75 15 64 71 48
Step 1: 16 88 59 94 37 75 64 71 48 29
Step 2: 38 16 88 59 94 75 64 71 29 49
Step 3: 60 38 16 88 94 75 71 29 49 65
Step 4: 72 60 38 16 88 94 29 49 65 76
Step 5: 89 72 60 38 16 29 49 65 76 95

Common Explanation:
Change happening from Input to Step 1:

Reference:
Input: 62 97 38 74 55 12 86 45 68 22
Step 1: 13 62 97 38 74 55 86 45 68 23

Inference:
In every step, two numbers are changing their positions. In input, the lowest number which is 15, is first added by 1 and getting placed at extreme left end. Similarly, the second lowest number among all, which is 22 is also getting increased by 1 and is getting placed at the extreme right end of the input to give us Step 1.

Given Input: 88 59 28 94 37 75 15 64 71 48
Step1: 16 88 59 94 37 75 64 71 48 29
 
Reference
Step 1: 13 62 97 38 74 55 86 45 68 23
Step 2: 39 13 62 97 74 55 86 68 23 46

Inference:
In this step too, the 3rd lowest number among all is first getting increased by 1 and is placed at the extreme left end of Step 1 and so is the case with the 4th lowest number. 

Step1: 16 88 59 94 37 75 64 71 48 29
Step2: 38 16 88 59 94 75 64 71 29 49
 
And the same process continues till we get all the numbers arranged in similar fashion.

The complete Machine process is as follows:
Input:  88 59 28 94 37 75 15 64 71 48
Step1: 16 88 59 94 37 75 64 71 48 29
Step2: 38 16 88 59 94 75 64 71 29 49
Step3: 60 38 16 88 94 75 71 29 49 65
Step4: 72 60 38 16 88 94 29 49 65 76
Step5: 89 72 60 38 16 29 49 65 76 95

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 12

Directions: In the following question, five statements are provided. These statements form a coherent paragraph when properly arranged. Select the alternative representing the proper and logical sequencing of these statements in the question.

1. But, equally, the benefits of reservation have not been distributed equitably.
2. There are inequalities and then there are inequalities within unequal entities.
3. The relatively rich and dominant sections among the backward castes have tended to take up a disproportionately larger share of the reservation pie.
4. Moreover, large segments of the weaker sections and backward classes continue to have no access to quality education or meaningful employment.
5. That reservation in jobs and education did address socio-economic disparities in India to some degree is true.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 12

The context is about unequal distribution of reservation benefits. Sentence 2 is the leading statement. A solution to 'inequalities' mentioned in 2 is presented in 5. A contradictory view of the solution mentioned in 5 is given in 1 with the use of 'but'. Sentence 4 (keyword 'moreover') mentions another concern about benefits of reservation not reaching the deserving -no access to quality education. Sentence 3 presents the reason for 'large segments of the weaker sections' not getting reservation benefits as these are enjoyed by the rich. The sequence is: 2-5-1-4-3.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 13

Direction: In each of the questions given below, a paragraph is given which has some blanks and those blanks have to be filled with the same word out of five words given below it. You have to choose that same word as your answer and fill up the blanks with that appropriate word. 

His concern for the affected children is so ____________ that it can be understood without giving much thought. It is not his fault though because all his family members are ____________ in all their dealings and they do not care much about anything in life. It is because of this ____________ nature of his family that they have not got many friends in the neighbourhood.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 13

The given paragraph is regarding the nature of him and his family members. It is regarding the fact that all his family members are very much superficial in nature and what is seen from outside is not at all correct in this case.

Coming to the given words, stupendous implies extremely impressive whereas spurious implies something false. Both these words are not making any sense for all the three blanks at the same time and hence they can be eliminated from consideration. Coming to substantial, it refers to something significant and this is also not correct for the context. There is only one word that fits in all these three statements that make the paragraph meaningful and that is superficial. 

This makes Option B the correct choice among the given options. 

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 14

Direction: In the questions given below a sentence is given with two blanks in each. Corresponding to each question two columns are given with three words in each column. Which combination of words from the two columns will perfectly fit into the blanks to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful? 

Acute encephalitis syndrome or AES is a basket term used for ______________ to various symptoms in children with clinical neurological manifestation that ______________ mental confusion, disorientation, convulsion, delirium, or coma. 

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 14

According to the given context, we are saying that AES is a disease that includes a lot of symptoms as described in the sentence.

If we come to the words given the columns, there is only one word that can fill the first blank and that is referring whereas for the second blank we can use the word includes. Therefore the combination of A-F will be correct to make the given sentence meaningful and contextually correct and there is no other combination of words that will make the sentence correct. This makes

Option C the correct choice among the given options.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 15

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

More than three lakh workers will be employed in the solar and wind energy sectors to meet the country’s target of generating 175 gigawatts of electricity from renewable sources by 2022, an International Labour Organization (ILO) report said. The report titled, World Employment and Social Outlook (WESO) 2018: Greening with Jobs, quoted from a study conducted by the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW) and the Natural Resources Defense Council (NRDC), on the changes in sectoral employment that will occur in order to meet India’s target. The study was based on surveys of solar and wind companies, developers and manufacturers.

“India is rapidly increasing its share of renewable energy sources, but still relies on coal, oil, natural gas, and the related carbon emissions for 80% of its electricity,” the report released on Tuesday said. This formed a small part of the report, which focused on the trajectory of the labour market in the backdrop of environmentally sustainable production practices. Tackling the misconception that green economies pave the way for economically undesirable outcomes, the report said rather than a trade-off between the two, their development goes hand in hand. According to the ILO report, there will be a net increase of 18 million jobs across the globe as a result of environmentally sustainable measures taken in the production and use of energy. This net figure is based on the estimation that the resultant job losses of six million will eventually lead to an increase of 24 million jobs as greener practices are adopted. Of this, 14 million jobs created will be in Asia and the Pacific.

“The transition to a green economy will inevitably cause job losses in certain sectors as carbon and resource-intensive industries are scaled down, but they will be offset by new job opportunities,” the report said. However, the report emphasised that the net increase of 18 million jobs is dependent on a supportive policy framework to aid displaced workers and skill development programs to help ease them into jobs that require new skills. It mentioned that although India does have a specific body or council to address the skills development for green transition, it has no existing institutional mechanism to anticipate skills needs and adapt training provision. Of the 27 countries surveyed, India and seven others fall under this category. “Developing and emerging economies have relatively weaker institutional capacity for integrating skills and environmental sustainability,” the report said.

The report stressed on the urgency of economies adopting sustainable practices, adding, in 2013, humanity used 1.7 times the amount of resources and waste that the biosphere was able to regenerate and absorb. The report reads, “It is striking that in a context of scarce resources and limited ability to absorb waste, current patterns of economic growth rely largely on the extraction of resources, manufacturing, consumption and waste.” It explained this urgency from the perspective of the job market by connecting labour productivity to climate change.“Looking ahead, projected temperature increases will make heat stress more common, reducing the total number of working hours by 2% globally by 2030 and affecting workers in agriculture, and developing countries,” the report said.

Q. As per your understanding of the passage, which of the following can be said to be example/s of steps which contribute towards a green economy
I. The government announces tax incentives for those using public transport.
II. The government provides subsidy on diesel cars so that it becomes affordable
III. The government supports start-ups  working on the development of electric cars.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 15

Statement II is incorrect. The subsidy on diesel would not help in tackling environmental degradation in any way and would actually lead to more pollution.

Statements I and III are both correct. Both steps would help in reducing fossil fuel consumption.

Hence, option C is correct.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 16

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

More than three lakh workers will be employed in the solar and wind energy sectors to meet the country’s target of generating 175 gigawatts of electricity from renewable sources by 2022, an International Labour Organization (ILO) report said. The report titled, World Employment and Social Outlook (WESO) 2018: Greening with Jobs, quoted from a study conducted by the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW) and the Natural Resources Defense Council (NRDC), on the changes in sectoral employment that will occur in order to meet India’s target. The study was based on surveys of solar and wind companies, developers and manufacturers.

“India is rapidly increasing its share of renewable energy sources, but still relies on coal, oil, natural gas, and the related carbon emissions for 80% of its electricity,” the report released on Tuesday said. This formed a small part of the report, which focused on the trajectory of the labour market in the backdrop of environmentally sustainable production practices. Tackling the misconception that green economies pave the way for economically undesirable outcomes, the report said rather than a trade-off between the two, their development goes hand in hand. According to the ILO report, there will be a net increase of 18 million jobs across the globe as a result of environmentally sustainable measures taken in the production and use of energy. This net figure is based on the estimation that the resultant job losses of six million will eventually lead to an increase of 24 million jobs as greener practices are adopted. Of this, 14 million jobs created will be in Asia and the Pacific.

“The transition to a green economy will inevitably cause job losses in certain sectors as carbon and resource-intensive industries are scaled down, but they will be offset by new job opportunities,” the report said. However, the report emphasised that the net increase of 18 million jobs is dependent on a supportive policy framework to aid displaced workers and skill development programs to help ease them into jobs that require new skills. It mentioned that although India does have a specific body or council to address the skills development for green transition, it has no existing institutional mechanism to anticipate skills needs and adapt training provision. Of the 27 countries surveyed, India and seven others fall under this category. “Developing and emerging economies have relatively weaker institutional capacity for integrating skills and environmental sustainability,” the report said.

The report stressed on the urgency of economies adopting sustainable practices, adding, in 2013, humanity used 1.7 times the amount of resources and waste that the biosphere was able to regenerate and absorb. The report reads, “It is striking that in a context of scarce resources and limited ability to absorb waste, current patterns of economic growth rely largely on the extraction of resources, manufacturing, consumption and waste.” It explained this urgency from the perspective of the job market by connecting labour productivity to climate change.“Looking ahead, projected temperature increases will make heat stress more common, reducing the total number of working hours by 2% globally by 2030 and affecting workers in agriculture, and developing countries,” the report said.

Q. Which of the following statements weakens the argument about the urgency of economies in adopting sustainable practices?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 16

Options A,B and C talk about the reasons for adopting sustainable practices.

Only option D fits in. If true, this weakens the point of adopting sustainable policies.

Hence, option D is correct.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 17

Directions : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

For generations, companies have been selling fair skin to young Indian women, promising better marriage and employment prospects. However, over the last few years, men have become a favoured target audience. This followed the realisation that the Indian alpha male, denied a choice in male-specific grooming products, had been using women’s fairness creams all along. Until the mid-2000s, deodorants and shaving creams were the only grooming products advertised for men. But India’s largest consumer goods companies sensed an opportunity, and launched a slew of fairness products for male consumers.

In India, as in other parts of the world, light skin is the culturally accepted and endorsed form of beauty, and children absorb this message at a young age. According to a 2015 research report by Nielsen, urban Indian men believe that fair skin can improve professional prospects. The cultural pressure to look fair, argues Kiran Khalap, branding expert and founder at communications consultancy Chlorophyll, is something inherent in our society, not manufactured by companies. “And it is certainly not restricted to India: China and Japan have had skin-whitening products for centuries, well before they met Western ‘white’ people,” he said. However, there is a growing awareness among consumers that companies are exploiting their insecurities, and critics have taken some of the biggest fairness brands, and the celebrities who endorse them, to task for their casual discrimination.

Earlier this month, Bollywood actor Abhay Deol took to Facebook to trounce his fellow actors who earn millions from endorsing fairness creams. This comes a few years after actress Nandita Das launched the “Dark is Beautiful” campaign to encourage Indians to embrace a wider definition of beauty. These efforts are slowly making a difference, increasing awareness and encouraging consumers to take pride in their natural skin tones. That means Indian companies will eventually have to change their approach. “My sense is that brands will wake up to the new reality, and you will see propositions reworked around clearer skin (and) glow, rather than pure fairness,” Leo Burnett’s Sinha said.

Rajesh Krishnamurthy, business head for the consumer product division at The Himalaya Drug Company, believes that over time the men’s grooming category will evolve to include a wider range of products, including those for normal skin, just like in the women’s skin care category. “Companies are increasingly realising that you cannot continue to bullshit consumers anymore; these are educated young men who will question what you sell to them,” said Shantanu Deshpande, co-founder and CEO of the male-grooming startup Bombay Shaving Company.

Q. With reference to the passage, why exactly was “Dark is beautiful” campaign initiated?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 17

The passage mentions- “This comes a few years after actress Nandita Das launched the “Dark is Beautiful” campaign to encourage Indians to embrace a wider definition of beauty.” points at option A which mirrors the context of this statement. 
Option B can be eliminated as it is extreme and not true with respect to the notion of the campaign.
Option C can be ruled out as it is not the reason behind the campaign.
Option D can be eliminated as it contradicts the fundamental idea of the campaign.
Hence, option A is correct.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 18

Directions: In this question, you need to replace the underline part of the sentence by the most suitable idiom/expression given as option.

You must be extra careful with even minor details with electrical work.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 18

Go the whole hog (Idiom):

To do something completely or thoroughly.

Ex. Vineeta decided to go the whole hog and joined the Army.

Be on toes (Idiom):

To stay active and alert.

This idiom could have been the correct choice, had ‘with minor details’ part not been there in the sentence.

Linger on (Idiom):

To remain alive; continue or persist, although gradually dying, ceasing, disappearing.

Ex. She lingered a few months after the heart attack.

Dot your i's and cross your t’s (idiom):

To pay complete attention to the details.

Ex. Your instructor is a tough grader, be sure to dot your 'i's and cross your 't's on your research.

Stay the course (Idiom)

To keep going strongly to the end of a race or contest.

Ex. Critics predicted the car could not stay the distance.

Clearly, option D implies the same meaning as given in bold in the sentence.

Option D is hence the correct answer.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 19
What is the main difference between a firm under perfect competition and a firm under monopoly?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 19
In a perfect competition market, there are a large number of sellers producing a homogenous product. Each firm is a price taker, meaning it has no control over the price and must accept the market determined price. On the other hand, in a monopoly market, there is a single seller with no close substitutes for the product. The monopoly firm has full control over the price and can set it at a level that maximizes its profits. Therefore, the main difference between a firm under perfect competition and a firm under monopoly is that a firm under perfect competition is a price taker, while a firm under monopoly is a price maker.
SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 20

As part of the Financial Inclusion the following acts as an alternative to the Branch Banking.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 20

Mobile Banking: It refers to the use of a mobile device to carry out financial transactions anywhere.

  • ​This service is provided by majorly all financial institutions, especially banks.
  • Mobile banking enables customers to carry out various transactions, which may vary depending upon institutions.
  • Mobile banking service can be categorized into, account information, transaction, investment, support service, content, and news.
  • It can be done either through the internet or SMS.
  • In 2002 mobile banking was started in India by a way through SMS.
SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 21

______________ are financial instruments in which an investor lends money to a corporation or government for a specific length of time in exchange for regular interest payments.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 21

Bonds are financial instruments in which an investor lends money to a corporation or government for a specific length of time in exchange for regular interest payments.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 22

Which among the following is used as an identifier of mobile money?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 22

MMID is used as an identifier of mobile money.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 23

Which organization received the GeM award in the "Timely Payments (CPSEs)" category?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 23

NLC India Limited (NLCIL) received the GeM award in the "Timely Payments (CPSEs)" category. The award recognizes NLCIL's contribution in improving the reliability of e-market practices through prompt payments. NLCIL has shown significant growth in GeM procurement, reflecting its commitment to transparent and efficient procurement practices.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 24

What is the aim of the NCC Integrated Software launched by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 24

The NCC Integrated Software launched by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh aims to streamline the process of NCC enrollment and alumni registration. The software serves as a single-window platform, digitizing the entire process from enrollment to exit. It enables seamless issuance of certificates and creates a comprehensive database of NCC cadets, ensuring a smooth and efficient experience for all stakeholders involved.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 25

When will the United Nations Security Council hold its first-ever meeting on the threats of Artificial Intelligence (AI)?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 25

The United Nations Security Council will hold its first-ever meeting on the threats of AI on July 18th, as announced by the UK's ambassador to the UN. This meeting, organized by the United Kingdom, aims to discuss the potential risks posed by AI to international peace and security.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 26

Who has been named a minor planet by the International Astronomical Union (IAU)?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 26

Indian astrophysicist Aswin Sekhar has been honored by the IAU with a minor planet named after him.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 27

IBM 1401 is

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 27

IBM 1401 is a Second Generation Computer and is the first computer to enter Nepal in 2028 BS for census. Government of Nepal had brought this computer on rent and later purchased for data processing in Bureau of Statistics. After this computer, another ICL 2950/10, a British computer, was purchased by the fund of UNDP and UNFPA for the census of 2038 BS is second computer in Nepal.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 28

Which programming language is widely used for data analysis and scientific computing?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 28

Python is extensively used for data analysis and scientific computing due to its rich libraries such as NumPy, Pandas, and SciPy, which provide powerful tools for these tasks.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 29

Speed of line printer is limited by the speed of

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 30

Primary memory is used by the:

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 20 - Question 30

The CPU (Central Processing Unit) uses primary memory for essential operations. Here's how it interacts with primary memory:

  • Storing Instructions: The CPU places critical instructions in primary memory to access them quickly.
  • Data Processing: It uses primary memory to temporarily store data that it is actively processing.
  • Fast Access: Primary memory allows the CPU to rapidly access required data and instructions, enhancing performance.
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