UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ

The correct answer is KC Wheare.

Explanation

• K.C. Wheare describes India as "quasi-federal".
• He described Constitution adopts more unitary features and fewer federal features.
• Quasi-Federation
  • Quasi-federalism means an intermediate form of state between a unitary state and a federation.
  • It combines the features of a federal government and the features of a unitary government.
  • India is regarded as a semi-federal state or a quasi-federal state as described by Prof. K.C. Wheare.
  • Article 1 of the Constitution of India states that ' India that is Bharat shall be a union of states.
  • The Indian model of federalism is called the quasi-federal system as it contains major features of both a federation and union.

Other Related Points

• K.C. Wheare
  • Kenneth Clinton Wheare was an Australian academic.
  • He spent most of his career at Oxford University in England.
  • He was an expert on the constitutions of the British Commonwealth.
  • He advised constitutional assemblies in former British Colonies.

The Correct answer is Justice Fazl Ali.

Explanation

• The creation of the Andhra state intensified the demand from other regions for the creation of states on a linguistic basis.
• This forced the Government of India to appoint (in December 1953) a three-member States Reorganisation Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali to re-examine the whole question. Its other two members were K M Panikkar and H N Kunzru.
• It submitted its report in September 1955 and broadly accepted language as the basis of the reorganisation of states. But, it rejected the theory of ‘one language-one state’. Its view was that the unity of India should be regarded as the primary consideration in any redrawing of the country’s political units. It identified four major factors that can be taken into account in any scheme of the reorganisation of states:

1. Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country.
2. Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.
3. Financial, economic and administrative considerations.
4. Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people in each state as well as of the nation as a whole.

• The commission suggested the abolition of the four-fold classification of states under the original Constitution and the creation of 16 states and 3 centrally administered territories. The Government of India accepted these recommendations with certain minor modifications.
• By the States Reorganisation Act (1956) and the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act (1956), the distinction between Part-A and Part-B states was done away with and Part-C states were abolished. Some of them were merged with adjacent states and some others were designated as union territories. As a result, 14 states and 6 union territories were created on November 1, 1956.
• The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 established the new state of Kerala by merging the Travancore- Cochin State with the Malabar District of Madras state and Kasargode of South Canara (Dakshina Kannada).
• It merged the Telugu-speaking areas of Hyderabad state with the Andhra state to create the Andhra Pradesh state. Further, it merged the Madya Bharat state, Vindya Pradesh state and Bhopal state into the Madya Pradesh state. Similarly, it merged the Saurashtra state and Kutch state into that of the Bombay state.

The correct answer is option 3.Explanation

• To protect monuments, places, and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49) is Directive Principles for the State. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Providing early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45) is Directive Principles for the State.
• It is added by the 86th constitutional amendment act. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence is one of the Fundamental Duties for Citizens of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• To pay taxes and contribute to the development of the nation was one of the recommendations of Swaran Singh. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

​Fundamental duties

• The idea of Fundamental Duties is inspired by the Constitution of Russia.
• These were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Originally 10 in number, one more duty was added through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
• All the eleven duties are listed in Article 51-A of the Constitution (the sole Article in Part-IV-A).
• The fundamental duties serve as a reminder to citizens that while enjoying their rights, they have also to be quite conscious of duties they owe to their country, their society and to their fellow citizens.
• However, like the Directive Principles, the duties are also non-justiciable in nature.​

List of Fundamental Duties

• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India;
• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture;
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures;
• To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; and
• To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years (added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002).

The correct answer is the Desert region.

Explanation

• 'Barchan' landforms are associated with the Desert region.
• Dry hot deserts are good places for sand dune formation.
• Crescent-shaped dunes are called barchans.
  • It has the points or wings directed away from the wind direction i.e., downwind.
  • It forms where the wind direction is constant and moderate and where the original surface over which sand is moving is almost uniform.

Important Points

• Parabolic dunes form when sandy surfaces are partially covered with vegetation.
  • That means parabolic dunes are reversed barchans with wind direction being the same.
• Seif is similar to barchan with a small difference.
  • Seif has only one wing or point.
  • This happens when there is a shift in wind conditions.
  • The lone wings of seifs can grow very long and high.
• Longitudinal dunes form when the supply of sand is poor and wind direction is constant.
  • They appear as long ridges of considerable length but are low in height.
• Transverse dunes are aligned perpendicular to the wind direction.
  • These dunes form when the wind direction is constant and the source of sand is an elongated feature at right angles to the wind direction.
  • They may be very long and low in height.

The correct answer is Option 1.
Explanation
(A) Citrus canker - (ii) Bacteria

• Citrus canker is a bacterial disease of citrus plants.
• The disease leads to the premature fall of fruits and leaves.
• The disease is caused by Xanthomonas bacteria.

(B) Polio - (i) Virus

• Polio is a viral disease caused by poliovirus.
• It is an infectious disease.
• Polio affects children by causing limb paralysis of them.

(C) Malaria - (iv) Protozoa

• Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease.
• It is caused by Plasmodium protozoa.
• Plasmodium proliferates in the gut of the female Anopheles and acts as a vector for malaria.

(D) Rust of wheat - (iii) Fungi

• Rust of wheat is a fungal disease of wheat, barley, etc.
• It is caused by Puccinia graminis.
• Puccinia graminis belong to the Basidiomycetes group of the kingdom fungi.

Explanation:

Hence, the correct option is 1.

The correct answer is Preeti Sudan

In News

• Preeti Sudan, an IAS officer from the 1983 batch, will become the chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on August 1, 2024.

Explanation

• Sudan succeeds Manoj Soni, who resigned earlier this month for personal reasons, though his term was supposed to end in May 2029.
• Sudan will be the second woman to hold the UPSC chairperson position, following R M Bathew in 1996.
• The UPSC, established in 1926, is a constitutional body responsible for recruiting and training civil servants for the Government of India.
• Preeti Sudan has had a distinguished career in public service, including roles in the Department of Food and Public Distribution and the ministries of Women and Child Development and Defence.
• She has contributed to significant national programs like Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao, Ayushman Bharat, and legislations like the National Medical Commission and the ban on e-cigarettes.
• Sudan has also served on international platforms, including as a consultant with the World Bank and Chair of COP-8 of the Framework Convention on Tobacco Control.
• Manoj Soni's resignation was linked to controversies, particularly involving the selection of probationary IAS officer Puja Khedkar and allegations of misuse of power.

The correct answer is Shillong.

Explanation

• The highest point of the Meghalaya Plateau is Shillong peak.
• Shillong Peak
  • ​It is at 6,433 feet (1,961 metres) located 5 km south of the city of Shillong.
  • There is also a prominent IAF station.
• The Shillong Plateau is considered an outlier of the plateau of peninsular India.
  • It is composed primarily of ancient rocks.
  • It contains reserves of coal and iron ore, and limestone is quarried.
• Meghalaya is one of the seven sister states in the North East.
  • It was declared as a state on 21st January, 1972.
  • It is divided into five administrative districts of the Jaintia Hills, East and West Garo Hills and East and West Khasi Hills.
  • The state of Meghalaya is also known as “ Meghalaya Plateau”.
  • It consists mainly of Archean rock formations. These rock formations contain rich deposits of valuable minerals like Coal, Limestone, Uranium and Silimanite.
  • The elevation of the plateau ranges between 150 m to 1961 m.
• The central part of the plateau comprising the Khasi Hills has the highest elevation.
  • The Cherrapunjee – Mawsynram belt in the southern slopes of Khasi Hills records the heaviest rainfall in the world.
• The Garo Hills which form the western part of Meghalaya are lower in elevation.
  • The greater part of Garo Hills range in height from 450 m to 600 m and drop steeply to the Brahmaputra valley on the north and to the plains of Bangladesh on the south.
• The Hill area of Jaintia Hills is similar to that of Khasi Hills.
  • The northern strip comprises of low lying terrain region, fertile and favourable for cultivation.
  • Lum Maryngksih is the highest peak in Jaintia Hills.

The correct answer is Lysine.

Explanation

Essential and Non-essential:

• Amino acids are essential for the functioning of a healthy body.
• The human body can synthesize 10 out of 20 amino acids. They are called non-essential amino acids.
• To make up for the deficiency of rest we must include them in our diet.
• These 10 amino acids which the body cannot synthesize on its own and must be taken from external sources are called essential amino acids

The 10 essential amino acids are-

• Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine, Phenylalanine, Methionine, Tryptophan, Threonine, Lysine, Arginine, and Histidine.

The non-essential amino acids are

• Glycine, Alanine, Proline, Arginine, Asparagine, Aspartic acid, Cysteine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid, Glutamine, and Serine.

Hence, the essential amino acid is Lycine.

• Amino acids are organic compounds containing both amino and carboxylic groups in their molecules.
• They also contain a side chain that varies and is specific to each amino acid.
• While there are over 500 amino acids occurring in nature, only 20 are required by our body..

Acidic, basic, and neutral amino acids.

• Whether an amino acid is basic or neutral depends on the relative number of amino and carboxylic groups in the molecule.
  • When Carboxylic group > amino group, the molecule is acidic.
  • When amino group > carboxylic group, the amino acid is basic.
  • When amino group = acid group, the molecule is neutral.

The correct answer is the South China Sea​.Explanation

• The South China Sea is situated between the Philippines and Vietnam.
• The South China Sea, which lies between China, Taiwan, the Philippines, Brunei, Malaysia, Indonesia and Vietnam, is of great economic importance globally.
• Shipping: Nearly one-third of the world’s shipping passes through its lanes, and the waters house numerous important fisheries.

Other Related Points

• The South China Sea:
  • It is one of the busiest sea routes in the world.
  • The South China Sea dispute is an overlapping territorial dispute involving countries like Vietnam, Taiwan, China, Malaysia, Brunei, and the Philippines.
  • In this decade-long dispute, China claims sovereignty over more than 80 per cent of the territory while Vietnam claims the Paracel Islands and the Spratly Islands.
  • The Philippines affirms its sovereignty over the Spratly archipelago and the Scarborough Shoal, while the countries like Brunei and Malaysia have asserted their ownership over the southern region of the ocean and some of the Spratly Islands.

The correct answer is 2only.

Explanation

• The National Ayurveda Day was observed on 2 November this year. Hence the first statement is wrong.
• It is celebrated on Dhanvantari Jayanti to create awareness about the health benefits of Ayurveda and to promote the Ayurvedic lifestyle.
• Lord Dhanvantari is believed to be the god of Ayurvedic medicine.
• The theme for 2021 is Ayurveda for Poshan. Hence the second statement is true.
• The day focuses on the strengths of Ayurveda and its unique treatment principles.

Other Related Points

• Ayurveda:
  • It is the traditional Hindu system of medicine (incorporated in Atharva Veda, the last of the four Vedas), which is based on the idea of balance in bodily systems and uses diet, herbal treatment, and yogic breathing.

The correct answer is the 97th Constitutional Amendment.

Explanation

• 97th Constitutional Amendment 'Part IX B' was added to the Indian Constitution.
• It made the right to form cooperative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
• It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B)
• It added a new Part IX-B in the constitution which is entitled as “The Co-operative societies”
  (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).

Other Related Points

• The 97th Constitutional Amendment:
  • This Act of 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies.
  • In this context, it made the following three changes in the Constitution:
  • It made the right to form cooperative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
  • It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B).
  • It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled "The Cooperative Societies" (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
• 93rd Amendment:
  • This amendment was done in 2006.
  • In this, reservation of seats has been arranged for admission of citizens of scheduled castes and tribes and other backward classes in educational institutions.
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
  • It added Article 243 to Article 2430 and a new part Part IX to the constitution of India.
  • Salient features of this Act:
    • Gram Sabha (Article 243A):
    • A body of all persons registered in the electoral roll of that Panchayat.
    • Three-Tier System (Article 243B):
      Panchayat at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
    • The election of members and chairpersons is given under Article 243B.
    • Reservation of seats for SC/ST is provided at all three levels under Article 243D.
    • The duration of Panchayats is given under Article 243C, it is constituted for five years.
    • Grounds of disqualification are given under Article 243F.
    • Powers, authorities, and responsibilities are given in Article 243G and enlisted in the 11th schedule of the constitution.
    • State Election Commission (243K) for superintendence, control, and direction of the election in Panchayats.

The correct answer is 61^st.

Explanation

• In India, the voting age was lowered from 21 to 18 years by the 61st of the following Constitutional Amendment.
• By Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988 Constitutional Amendment Act, the voting age of Indian citizens has been reduced from 21 years to 18 years.
• The 61st Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.

Other Related Points

• This was done by amending Article 326 of the Constitution, which concerns elections to the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies.
• The Indian constitution adopts the Universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies.
• Every citizen who is or above 18 years of age has a right to vote without any discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, etc.
• The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 by the Parliament in the year 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988.

The correct answer is Article 141.

Explanation

• Article 141 makes provision that "the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the Courts within the territory of India".
• It states that the 'Law declared by Supreme Court is to be binding on all courts within the territory of India'.
• In interpreting Article 141 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court in the case Bengal Immunity Co. V State of Bihar laid down that there is nothing in the Constitution of India which stops or prevents the Supreme Court from digressing from its previous decision if it is convinced of its error and its toxic effect on the general interest of the public.
• Articles 141, and 142 have been included in the basic structure doctrine along with Article 32 and Article 136.

Other Related Points

• Article 143:
  • Power of President to consult Supreme Court.
  • If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court
    upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.
  • The President may, notwithstanding anything in the proviso to article 131, refer a dispute of the kind mentioned in the said proviso to the Supreme Court for opinion and the Supreme Court shall, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.
• Article 140 :
  • It consists of the Ancillary powers of the Supreme Court.

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Explanation

• Chitrakoot or Chitrakote Waterfall is located on the Indravati river in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh.
• It's a natural waterfall.
• Height-29 meters.
• During the rainy days, the water in the fall is reddish.
• Also called Niagara of India due to its similar shape to horse feet.

The correct answer is 71.

Explanation

• India is ranked at 71st position in the Global Food Security (GFS) Index 2021 of 113 countries.
• It lags behind Pakistan and Sri Lanka in terms of food affordability.
• Ireland, Australia, the UK, Finland, Switzerland, the Netherlands, Canada, Japan, France, and the US shared the top rank with an overall GFS score in the range of 77.8 and 80 points on the index.
• The GFS Index was designed and constructed by London-based Economist Impact and is sponsored by Corteva Agriscience.

Other Related Points

• The GFS Index :
  • It measures the underlying drivers of food security in 113 countries, based on the factors of affordability, availability, quality and safety, and natural resources and resilience.
  • It considers 58 unique food security indicators including income and economic inequality calling attention to systemic gaps and actions needed to accelerate progress toward the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal of Zero Hunger by 2030.

Explanation:

Plane table surveying:

• It is a graphical method of surveying in which the fieldwork and plotting are carried out simultaneously.

Principle:

The rays drawn from different points should pass through a single point i.e position of station point.

Methods:

1) Radiation method:

• It is adopted when the points to be plotted are intervisible and accessible from a single instrument station. Orientation is not required because only one instrument station is required.

2) Intersection method:

• It is adopted when the points to be plotted are intervisible but inaccessible. Orientation is required

3) Traversing method:

• The traverse is directly plotted on the paper by drawing the traverse lines with the alidade. No angle measuring instrument is used.

4) Resection method:

• Resection is a general term used or the process of determining the location of the instrument station. The principle of resection is opposite to that of the intersection method.

Concept:

Lacey gave three independent equation after intensive research in alluvium and gave the idea of regime.

The equations given by Lacey are:

As per lacey, the wetted perimeter P is given as

P = 4.75 √Q

Hence the wetted perimeter of the alluvial channel increases with an increase in design discharge.

Important Point:

Difference between Lacey and Kennedy theory are:-

Concept:
The total pressure force acting on the curved surface has horizontal and vertical components.
The horizontal component (Fh) is equal to the projection of the curved surface on the vertical plane and acts at the center of the pressure of the projected area.
The vertical component of the pressure force (Fv­) is equal to the weight of liquid supported by the curved surface up to the free surface of the liquid and it acts at the centroid of liquid
Fh = γ A h̅
A is the projected area.
h̅ is the Centroid of the projected area.
Fv = γ × Volume of liquid held by curved surface up to the free surface.
Calculation:

Net vertical force is the difference between the upward force (F_L) on the lower surface ED and downward force (F_U) on the upper surface CD.
F_L = γ × volume (ABDEC)↑
F_U = γ × volume (ABDC)↓
F_net = F_L – F_U = γ × volume (CDE)

The crystal geometry refers to the external symmetry of a crystal, which is a reflection of its internal molecular arrangement. The three primary types of symmetry mentioned are:

1. Plane of Symmetry: A plane dividing the crystal into two identical mirror-image halves.
2. Centre of Symmetry: A central point where each crystal face and edge has a corresponding face or edge on the opposite side.
3. Axis of Rotation Symmetry: A line passing through the crystal such that when the crystal is rotated around it, it appears identical at certain intervals before completing a full revolution.

The correct answer is Option C, as it precisely describes the concept of Axis of Rotation Symmetry, where a crystal can be rotated multiple times within a single full revolution to match its original position.

​Sludge volume index (SVI):​

• SVI represents the degree of concentration of sludge in the system and hence decides the rate of recycling of sludge required to maintain desired MLSS and F/M ratio in the aeration tank to achieve the required degree of purification.
• Hence, Sludge recirculation and settleability are determined by SVI.
• It is defined as the volume occupied in ml by 1 gm of solids in the mixed liquor after settling for 30 minutes.
• Its unit is ml/gm

Recirculation ratio =
Where, Q_R = Recyled discharge, Q_o = Discharge from PST, X = MLSS in tank, SVI = Sludge volume index
Recirculation ratio and its effect:

• The recirculation ratio is the amount of wastewater that flows through the advanced pretreatment component divided by the amount of wastewater that is sent to the final treatment and disposal component.​
• Recirculation is used to remove or lower levels of nitrates, BOD₅, TSS, and other contaminants in the wastewater.​
• A recirculation tank collects the primary treated effluent from a pretreatment component and mixes it with highly treated wastewater from an advanced pretreatment component to dilute the wastewater and end up with an overall cleaner effluent.

Taxiway:

• Taxiways as defined by ICAO are a defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another in an expeditious manner.

Design criteria for taxiway:
1) Longitudinal gradient as per ICAO

2) Transverse gradient as per ICAO

3) Rate of change of longitudinal gradient as per ICAO

Centrifugal or radial pumps are simple and versatile constructions with a wide range of impeller designs. The motion of water in it is from the center towards the periphery. The motion is caused by the centrifugal force created in the pump as a result of the revolving motion of the working wheel.

Water enters the center of the impeller. The water passes between the vanes and is pushed radically towards the casing and then onwards through the discharge nozzle. The vanes create an increase in both water velocity and pressure.
The housing that encloses the rotating element and seals the pressurized liquid inside is commonly called a Casing. The casing is of spiral shape and it terminates in a delivery pipe.

As per Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,
1. Trade effluent includes any liquid, gaseous or solid substance which is discharged from any premises used for carrying on any 5 [industry, operation or process, or treatment and disposal system], other than domestic sewage.
2. Pollution means such contamination of water or such alteration of the physical, chemical or biological properties of water or such discharge of any sewage or trade effluent or of any other liquid, gaseous or solid substance into water (whether directly or indirectly) as may, or is likely to, create a nuisance or render such water harmful or injurious to public health or safety, or to domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural or other legitimate uses, or to the life and health of animals or plants or of aquatic organisms.
3. sewage effluent means effluent from any sewerage system or sewage disposal works and includes sullage from open drains; 3[(gg) “sewer” means any conduit pipe or channel, open or closed, carrying sewage or trade effluent;] 4[(h) “State Board” means a State Pollution Control Board constituted under section 4;]
Other Acts

1. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act – This act promoted recycling and reuse of the wastewaters. It proved effective in reducing the quantities of industrial wastes.
2. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act – This act was to control and monitor air pollution in the environment. The Water Pollution Control Boards were given the additional charges of looking after air pollution control also.
3. The Environment (Protection) Act – This act subsequently promulgated by the Parliament after the occurrence of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy. This act empowers the Central Government for taking any measures, for improving and protecting the environment.

Explanation:

Spatial Autocorrelation:

• Interpolation is made possible by a principle called spatial autocorrelation.
• The term spatial autocorrelation refers to the presence of systematic spatial variation in a mapped variable. Where adjacent observations have similar data values the map shows positive spatial autocorrelation. Where adjacent observations tend to have very contrasting values then the map shows negative spatial autocorrelation.

Spatial autocorrelation may arise from any one of the following situations:

• the difference between the (large) scale of variation of a phenomenon and the (small) scale of the spatial framework used to capture or represent that variation
• measurement error
• spatial diffusion, spillover, interaction, and dispersal processes
• inheritance by one variable through causal association with another; and
• model misspecification

Thematic Correlation:

• Thematic correlation involves an analysis of relevant themes and motifs within a passage and that passage's contribution to the broader biblical message pertaining to those motifs.

Explanation:

• The process of transformation of water from liquid to gaseous form is called Evaporation.

• Evaporation decreases by 1% per 1% increase in salinity, therefore evaporation from sea water is less than evaporation from fresh water at same temperature.

Other Related Points

The rate of evaporation depends upon:

• The vapour pressure at the water surface and air above.
• Temperature of air and water
• Wind speed
• Atmospheric pressure
• Quality of water (Salinity)
• Depth of water body

• Shape and Size of water body

Explanation:
Torque in the shaft T is calculated by using direct relation
Calculation
P = T. W
where P = power developed = 2515 kw
W = 2 x π x N/60 =  Angular velocity
N = 240 rpm
T = Torque
So
2515 X 10³  = 2 x π x 240 x T/60
T = 100.068 KNm

Explanation:

Characteristics of Grit in Grit Chamber:

1. It consists of coarse particles of sand, ash, eggshells, bone chips, and clinkers in sewage.
2. Its specific gravity is in the range of 2.4 to 2.65.
3. Grit content = 0.05 to 0.15 m³/ml in the case of domestic sewage and 0.06 to 0.12 m³/ml in the case of combined sewage.
4. The minimum size of grit to be removed is 0.2 mm but 0.15 mm is preferred in conditions where a considerable amount of ash is to be carried in sewage.

Benkelman Beam deflection method:
The Benkelman beam method is thus widely used for evaluation of the structural capacity of existing flexible pavements and also for estimation and design of flexible overlays for the strengthening of any weak pavement for highways. The Benkelman beam measures the deflection of a flexible pavement under moving wheel load.
Overlay thickness is given by,
h = 550 log_e D_c/D_a
Where, D_c = Corrected rebound deflection and D_a = Allowable deflection

Explanation:
30th highest hourly volume is exceeded 29th hours in a year is
= 29/365 x 24 x 100 % of the time

= 0.33

Concept:

For a strong alkali PH is 12 or greater than.

The product of H⁺ and OH^- ions in a stronger alkali is 10^-14.

Other Related Points

1. The PH of the solution is 7 then the solution is neutral
2. The PH of the solution is zero then the solution is most acidic.