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UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 - UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 is part of UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Civil Engineering (CE) exam syllabus.The UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 MCQs are made for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 below.
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UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

Which of the following is a fundamental duty enshrined in Part IV-A of Constitution?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

The correct answer is option 3.Explanation

  • To protect monuments, places, and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49) is Directive Principles for the State. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Providing early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45) is Directive Principles for the State.
  • It is added by the 86th constitutional amendment act. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence is one of the Fundamental Duties for Citizens of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • To pay taxes and contribute to the development of the nation was one of the recommendations of Swaran Singh. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

​Fundamental duties

  • The idea of Fundamental Duties is inspired by the Constitution of Russia.
  • These were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • Originally 10 in number, one more duty was added through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
  • All the eleven duties are listed in Article 51-A of the Constitution (the sole Article in Part-IV-A).
  • The fundamental duties serve as a reminder to citizens that while enjoying their rights, they have also to be quite conscious of duties they owe to their country, their society and to their fellow citizens.
  • However, like the Directive Principles, the duties are also non-justiciable in nature.

List of Fundamental Duties

  • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
  • To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India;
  • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
  • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture;
  • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures;
  • To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
  • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; and
  • To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years (added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002).
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding Rashtrakutas

1. The Rashtrakutas were of Kannada origin and Kannada language was their mother tongue.

2. Amoghavarsha I built the magnificent rock-cut monolithic Kailasa temple at Ellora.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

The correct answer is 1 only

Explanation

  • The Rashtrakutas were of Kannada origin and the Kannada language was their mother tongue. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
  • Krishna I was also a great conqueror.
  • He defeated the Gangas and the Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi.
  • He built the magnificent rock-cut monolithic Kailasa temple at Ellora. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Other Related Points

Rashtrakutas (755 – 975 A.D.)

  • Rashtrakutas meaning ‘the chief of a Rashtra’, are considered as the feudatory of the Chalukyas.
  • Their capital city was Manyakheta or Malkhed near Solapur which is in present-day Maharashtra.
  • Rashtrakuta fought constantly against the eastern Chalukyas of Vengi and Pallavas of Kanchi and Pandya of Madurai.
  • They were tolerant in their religious views and patronized Shaivism, Vaishnavism, and Jainism.
  • Krishna III was the last great ruler of Rashtrakutas. In 972 CE, the Capital city was burnt to ashes. This marks the end of Rashtrakutas.
  • The system of administration in these empires was based upon the ideas and practices of the Gupta empire.
  • Amoghavarsha I (815- 880 A.D.) ruled for a long period of 64 years.
  • He had lost control over Malwa and Gangavadi.
  • Yet, his reign was popular for cultural development. He was a follower of Jainism.
  • He was also a patron of letters and he himself wrote the famous Kannada work, Kavirajamarga.
  • He had also built the Rashtrakuta capital, the city of Malkhed or Manyakheda.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Who has been appointed as the new UPSC Chairperson? (July 2024)

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

The correct answer is Preeti Sudan

In News

  • Preeti Sudan, an IAS officer from the 1983 batch, will become the chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on August 1, 2024.

Explanation

  • Sudan succeeds Manoj Soni, who resigned earlier this month for personal reasons, though his term was supposed to end in May 2029.
  • Sudan will be the second woman to hold the UPSC chairperson position, following R M Bathew in 1996.
  • The UPSC, established in 1926, is a constitutional body responsible for recruiting and training civil servants for the Government of India.
  • Preeti Sudan has had a distinguished career in public service, including roles in the Department of Food and Public Distribution and the ministries of Women and Child Development and Defence.
  • She has contributed to significant national programs like Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao, Ayushman Bharat, and legislations like the National Medical Commission and the ban on e-cigarettes.
  • Sudan has also served on international platforms, including as a consultant with the World Bank and Chair of COP-8 of the Framework Convention on Tobacco Control.
  • Manoj Soni's resignation was linked to controversies, particularly involving the selection of probationary IAS officer Puja Khedkar and allegations of misuse of power.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

Baltic Republics do NOT include which of the following?

1. Denmark

2. Estonia

3. Finland

4. Latvia

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

The correct answer is 1 and 3.

Explanation

  • Baltic Republics do NOT include Denmark and Finland.
  • Baltic countries are the 3 states i.e. Estonia, Lithuania, and Latvia that are located in the northeastern region of Europe.
  • They are called the Baltic Nations because they border the Baltic Sea.
  • All three countries are members of the European Union, NATO, and the Eurozone.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 5
Which of the following Article makes provision that "the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the Courts within the territory of India"?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

The correct answer is Article 141.

Explanation

  • Article 141 makes provision that "the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the Courts within the territory of India".
  • It states that the 'Law declared by Supreme Court is to be binding on all courts within the territory of India'.
  • In interpreting Article 141 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court in the case Bengal Immunity Co. V State of Bihar laid down that there is nothing in the Constitution of India which stops or prevents the Supreme Court from digressing from its previous decision if it is convinced of its error and its toxic effect on the general interest of the public.
  • Articles 141, and 142 have been included in the basic structure doctrine along with Article 32 and Article 136.

Other Related Points

  • Article 143:
    • Power of President to consult Supreme Court.
    • If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court
      upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.
    • The President may, notwithstanding anything in the proviso to article 131, refer a dispute of the kind mentioned in the said proviso to the Supreme Court for opinion and the Supreme Court shall, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.
  • Article 140 :
    • It consists of the Ancillary powers of the Supreme Court.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 6
In which of the following States of India Chitrakote waterfall is located?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Explanation

  • Chitrakoot or Chitrakote Waterfall is located on the Indravati river in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh.
  • It's a natural waterfall.
  • Height-29 meters.
  • During the rainy days, the water in the fall is reddish.
  • Also called Niagara of India due to its similar shape to horse feet.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

Find the CBR value at 2.5 mm penetration. The load sustained by the specimen at 2.5 mm penetration is 64.6 kg and the load sustained by standard aggregates at 2.5 mm penetration level is 1370 kg.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

Concept:
CBR test is a strength test conducted on the soil by introducing surcharge load at the compaction rate of 1.25 mm per minute on a completely soaked soil sample passing through 20 mm sieve size.

δ = displacement in mm
Pδ = Load corresponding to ‘δ’ settlement
Ps = Load for standard crushed aggregate:

If CBR 2.5 > CBR 5 → Test Accepted
If CBR 5 > CBR 2.5 → Test Repeated
And higher value is recorded
Calculation:

So, CBR value will be 4.71 %

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

A line joining optical centre of the object glass and the centre of the eye piece is known as:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Line of sight:

  • It is the imaginary line passing through the intersection of the crosshair on the diaphragm and the optical center of the objective lens.
  • when a line of sight comes in a horizontal plane, it is called a line of collimation.
  • The line of sight generates a vertical plane when the horizontal axis is perpendicular to the vertical axis.

Line of collimation:

  • It is an imaginary line passing through the intersection of the crosshairs at the diaphragm and the optical center of the object-glass and its continuation.

Axis of Bubble tube:

  • It is an imaginary line tangential to the longitudinal curve of the bubble tube at its midpoint.

Axis of a telescope:

  • This axis is an imaginary passing through the optical center of the object-glass and the optical center of the eye-piece.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Identify the mis-matched pair about type of Airport and the maximum value of longitudinal gradient of a taxiway, as per ICAO.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Taxiway:

  • Taxiways as defined by ICAO are a defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another in an expeditious manner.

Design criteria for taxiway:
1) Longitudinal gradient as per ICAO


2) Transverse gradient as per ICAO


3) Rate of change of longitudinal gradient as per ICAO

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

The projection of a traverse line on a line perpendicular to the meridian is known as _____.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

Concept:
Latitude:

  • The latitude of a line is the orthographic projection on the N-S. It is positive in the case of Northing and negative in the case of Southing.

Departure:

  • The departure of a line is the orthographic projection on the E-W. It is positive in the case of Easting and negative in the case of Westing.

Explanation:
The projection of a transverse line on a line perpendicular to the meridian is known as the departure of the line.
For illustration refer to lines OA and OB as shown in the figure. Let L be the latitude and D be the departure.


DOA = +l1 sinθ1
LOA = +l1 cosθ1
DOB = -l2 sinθ2
LOB = +l2 cosθ2

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 11
Calculate the hauling capacity of a 1-4-1 locomotive when the coefficient of rail-wheel friction and weight on each driving axle are 0.30 and 23 tonnes respectively.
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

Concepts:

The hauling capacity of a railway locomotive is given as:

H = μ × W × N

H = Hauling power

N = number of pairs of driving wheels

W = weight exerted on the driving wheels

μ = coefficient of friction

Calculation:

Given: μ = 0.3, W = 23 tonnes

For Locomotive 1-4-1:

Nos of driving wheels = 4

Nos. of pair of driving wheels are, N = 4/2 = 2

Now, the hauling capacity is given as:

H = 0.3 × 23 × 2 = 13.8 tonnes.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

Match List-I (Methods of solid wastes disposal) with List-II (Terms pertaining to the methods) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

Concept-
Incineration-

  • Burning of refuse at high temperatures in furnaces, called incinerators, is quite a sanitary method of refuse disposal and is widely adopted in developed countries.
  • Incineration is a method in which disposal of refuse is carried out by burning it at high temperature either in presence of oxygen.
  • There is no odour trouble or dust nuisances.
  • It requires very less space.

Disadvantages-

  • It is a very costly method and requires a lot of technical knowledge.
  • Solid waste to be burnt should have a high calorific value.

Composting-

  • It is a biological method of decomposing solid wastes.
  • This can be done in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions.
  • Inorganic materials like plastics, rubber, and leather are separated from municipal solid wastes and the entire process involving both separation and bacterial conversion of the solid wastes is known as composting.
  • So it is limited to special wastes and selected materials.

Sanitary Landfill-

  • In this method of refuse of disposal, refuse is carried and dumped into the low-lying area under an engineered operation, designed and operated in an environmental manner as not to cause any public nuisance or hazards to public health or safety.
  • This method is most simple and economical.
  • No separation is required and no byproducts are left out or evolved in this method.

Disadvantages-

  • The continuous evolution of foul gases near the fill site. These gases may often be explosive in nature and are produced by decomposing organic matter.
  • During the rainy season when excess water seeping through the area may come out of the dump as a coloured liquid called leachate.
  • Rat and fly breeding also occurs here.

Salvage by sorting-

  • Waste sorting is the process by which waste is separated into different elements.
  • Waste sorting can occur manually at the household and collected through curbside collection schemes, or automatically separated in materials recovery facilities or mechanical biological treatment systems.
  • In salvage by sorting process, it requires presorting, grinding and turning.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 13
______ is a secondary pollutant causing pollution of air.
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Explanation:

Secondary pollutant:

  • The primary pollutants often react with one another or with water vapor, aided and abetted by the sunlight, to form entirely a new set of pollutants, called the secondary pollutants.
  • These are the chemical substances, which are produced from the chemical reactions of natural or anthropogenic pollutants or due to their oxidation, etc., caused by the energy of the sun.

Examples:

1) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)

2) Formaldehydes

3) Photochemical smog

4) Ozone

5) Peroxy Acetyl – nitrate (PAN)

Primary pollutant:

  • Pollutants are emitted directly from identifiable sources, either from natural hazardous events like dust storms, volcanoes, etc, or from human activities like burning of wood, coal, oil in homes or industries or automobiles, etc.

Examples:

1) SO2

2) CO & CO2

3) NO, NO2

4) Volatile organic compound

5) Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM)

6) Radioactive compound

7) Halogen compound

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

Any liquid, gaseous or solid substance which is discharged from any premises used for carrying on any industry, operation or process, or treatment and disposal system, other than domestic sewage is called

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

As per Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,
1. Trade effluent includes any liquid, gaseous or solid substance which is discharged from any premises used for carrying on any 5 [industry, operation or process, or treatment and disposal system], other than domestic sewage.
2. Pollution means such contamination of water or such alteration of the physical, chemical or biological properties of water or such discharge of any sewage or trade effluent or of any other liquid, gaseous or solid substance into water (whether directly or indirectly) as may, or is likely to, create a nuisance or render such water harmful or injurious to public health or safety, or to domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural or other legitimate uses, or to the life and health of animals or plants or of aquatic organisms.
3. sewage effluent means effluent from any sewerage system or sewage disposal works and includes sullage from open drains; 3[(gg) “sewer” means any conduit pipe or channel, open or closed, carrying sewage or trade effluent;] 4[(h) “State Board” means a State Pollution Control Board constituted under section 4;]
Other Acts

  1. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act – This act promoted recycling and reuse of the wastewaters. It proved effective in reducing the quantities of industrial wastes.
  2. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act – This act was to control and monitor air pollution in the environment. The Water Pollution Control Boards were given the additional charges of looking after air pollution control also.
  3. The Environment (Protection) Act – This act subsequently promulgated by the Parliament after the occurrence of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy. This act empowers the Central Government for taking any measures, for improving and protecting the environment.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

GIS stores location data in

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

Components of Geographical Information System: The three main components of GIS are
1. Data:

  • GIS stores location data as Thematic layers.
  • Each data set has an attribute table that stores information about feature.
  • The two main types of GIS data are Raster and Vector.
  • Raster data look like grids because they store data in rows and columns.
  • Vector data are in the form of points, lines and polygons with vertices.

2. Hardware:

  • Hardware runs GIS software. It is the component on which GIS operates.
  • It could be anything from powerful servers, mobile phones, or a personal GIS workstation.

3. Software:

  • Software provides the functions and tools needed to store, analyze, and display geographical information.
  • ArcGIS and QGIS are GIS software. GIS software specializes in spatial analysis by using math in maps.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

A river is the source of water for water supply to a town. Its water is very turbid and polluted. The correct sequence of steps for treating the river water would be:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

Explanation:
(i) Method of treatment employed depends on the nature of raw water constituents and the desired standard of water quality.
(ii) The unit operation in water treatment includes:

  • Screening
  • Aeration
  • Flocculation
  • Filtration
  • Disinfection
  • Softening
  • Deferrization
  • Deffluoridation.

(iii) The choice of a particular sequence of treatment unit will depend on the quality of raw water and treated water desired.
(iv) If water is very turbid and polluted, then the sequence of treatment will be
pre–sedimentation → pre–chlorination → coagulation → post chlorination

  • For very turbid and polluted water, pre sedimentation is required. Also, pre-chlorination will be done to remove organic matter.

Other Related Points
(i) In the case of ground water and surface water with storage having turbidity less than 10 NTU and free from colour, odour, plain disinfection is sufficient for drinking purpose.
(ii) For ground water containing excessive iron, dissolved carbon dioxide and odourous gases, the treatment process will be
Aeration → Flocculation + Sedimentation → Rapid gravity filter → Disinfection → Supply
(iii) If ground water having only CO2 and odourous gases, aeration and disinfection are sufficient.
(iv) Surface water with turbidity less than 50 NTU and where sufficient land is available, the treatment will be
Sedimentation → Slow sand filter → Disinfection

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 17
A metallic tape originally 20 m is now found to be 20.2 m long. Two points on the ground are to be marked 50 m apart. What measurement must be made using this tape?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

Concept:

when the tape is too long or too short in this case we can use the formula

where L = measured length on the ground

Lo = true length on the ground = 50m

l = wrong length of tape = 20.2m

lo = true length of tape = 20m

L x 20.2 = 50 x 20

L= 49.505 m

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

If A is the surface tension on a liquid droplet and B is the surface tension on a hollow bubble, which of the following expressions shows the relation between A and B?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

Explanation:

  • ​The surface tension of water provides the necessary wall tension for the formation of bubbles with water. The tendency to minimize that wall tension pulls the bubbles into spherical shapes.
  • The pressure difference between the inside and outside of a bubble depends upon the surface tension and the radius of the bubble.
  • The relationship can be obtained by visualizing the bubble as two hemispheres and noting that the internal pressure which tends to push the hemispheres apart is counteracted by the surface tension acting around the circumference of the circle.
  • For a bubble with two surfaces providing tension, the pressure relationship is:


Bubble Pressure: The net upward force on the top hemisphere of the bubble is just the pressure difference times the area of the equatorial circle:

  • The force of the surface tension downward on the entire circumference of the circle is twice the surface tension times the circumference since two surfaces contribute to the force.


This gives
for a bubble
for a droplet that has only one surface.
Surface tension on a liquid droplet (Spherical droplet of water):
Pressure intensity inside the droplet:
p = 4σ/d
In the question surface tension for the liquid droplet = A
Replacing σ with A in the above equation we get
A = pd/4
Surface tension on a hollow bubble (Soap bubble): w
Pressure intensity inside the bubble:
p = 8σ/d
In the question, the surface tension in a hollow bubble = B
Replacing σ with b ion the above equation we get
B  = pd/8
Thus, A = 2B

Mistake PointsIn this question surface tension of the bubble and drop has been asked, Don't confuse it with the pressure comparison.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

According to IRC ∶ 37-2001, total pavement thickness for cumulative taffic of 2 msa for a CBR value of 6% is ________.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Concept:
As per IRC 37-2001, Clause 4.1


As per IS 37 - 2001, the total pavement thickness is 450 mm for cumulative traffic 2 msa and 6% CBR value.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 20
The ratio of weight of aggregate passing through the slot of the thickness gauge to the total weight of sample and expressed in percentage is known as:
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

Explanation:

Flakiness index:

It is the ratio of the weight of aggregate passing through the slot of the thickness gauge to the total weight of the sample and expressed in percentage

As per IS 2386 (Part 1):1963, cl. 4.0

  • The flakiness index of an aggregate is the percentage by weight of particles in it whose least dimension is less than 0.60 times their mean dimension.
  • This test is not applicable to a size less than 6.30 mm

Elongation Index:

As per IS 2386 (Part 2):1963, cl. 5.0

  • The elongation index of an aggregate is the percentage by weight of particles in it whose greatest dimension is more than 1.80 times their mean dimension.
  • This test is not applicable to a size less than 6.30 mm.

Other Related Points

Toughness index:

The toughness index is defined as the ratio of the Plasticity index to the flow index.

IP = Plasticity Index

If = Flow index

Plasticity index (IP):

It is the range of moisture content over which a soil exhibits plasticity.

Ip = WL - WP

Where, WL = Liquid limit, WP = Plastic limit, WN = Natural water content

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 21
If in a gradually varied flow dy/dx is positive, then dE/dx
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

Explanation:

For GVF, the dE/dx is given as:

Case 1: dy/dx > 0

  1. If y > yc i.e. flow is sub-critical ⇒ F < 1 ⇒ (1 - F2) > 0 ⇒ dE/dx > 0.
  2. If y < yc i.e. flow is Super-critical ⇒ F > 1 ⇒ (1 - F2) < 0 ⇒ dE/dx < 0.

Case 2: dy/dx < 0

  1. If y > yc i.e. flow is sub-critical ⇒ F < 1 ⇒ (1 - F2) > 0 ⇒ dE/dx < 0.
  2. If y < yc i.e. flow is Super-critical ⇒ F > 1 ⇒ (1 - F2) < 0 ⇒ dE/dx > 0.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 22
In GIS, interpolation is made possible by a principle called
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

Explanation:

Spatial Autocorrelation:

  • Interpolation is made possible by a principle called spatial autocorrelation.
  • The term spatial autocorrelation refers to the presence of systematic spatial variation in a mapped variable. Where adjacent observations have similar data values the map shows positive spatial autocorrelation. Where adjacent observations tend to have very contrasting values then the map shows negative spatial autocorrelation.

Spatial autocorrelation may arise from any one of the following situations:

  • the difference between the (large) scale of variation of a phenomenon and the (small) scale of the spatial framework used to capture or represent that variation
  • measurement error
  • spatial diffusion, spillover, interaction, and dispersal processes
  • inheritance by one variable through causal association with another; and
  • model misspecification

Thematic Correlation:

  • Thematic correlation involves an analysis of relevant themes and motifs within a passage and that passage's contribution to the broader biblical message pertaining to those motifs.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

If a turbine develops 2515 kW at 240 rpm, the torque in the shaft is

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Explanation:
Torque in the shaft T is calculated by using direct relation
Calculation
P = T. W
where P = power developed = 2515 kw
W = 2 x π x N/60 =  Angular velocity
N = 240 rpm
T = Torque
So
2515 X 103  = 2 x π x 240 x T/60
T = 100.068 KNm

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Switch angle depends upon
i. Heel divergence
ii. Length of tongue rail
iii. Flange way clearance
iv. Throw of switch
The correct answer is

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Explanation:
Switch angle in railway

  • Switch angle or angle of switch divergence is defined as the angle formed between the gauge lines of the stock rail and tongue rail(Switch rails).

  • If the switch angle is more, the entry of the train will not be smooth and consequently, the speed of trains will have to be reduced. On the other hand, a small switch angle will increase the overall length of the turnout.
  • Switch angle depends upon the length of tongue rails and heel divergence,
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 25
The lost time due to starting delay on a traffic signal approach is noted to be 3 seconds. The actual green time is 25 seconds and the amber time is 3 seconds. How much will be the effective green time?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

Explanation:

g = G + A - (tsl + tcl)

Here g = effective green time ,G =actual green time = 25 sec ,

A= Amber time = 3 sec

tSL= Start-up lost time = 3 sec, tCL= clearance lost time= 3 sec

NOTE:

If clearance lost time is not given we take amber time as clearance lost time

Put the values

g= 25 + 3 - (3 + 3) = 22 sec

Other Related PointsEffective green time is the time during which a given traffic movement or set of movements may proceed at a saturation flow rate.

Amber time

The Amber time (or yellow) light indicates to clear the road when the signal is changing from green to red.

Start-up lost time happens when a traffic signal changes from red (stop) to green (go). Some amount of time elapses between the signal changing from red to green and the first queued vehicle moving through the intersection. There is then an additional amount of time for the next vehicle to begin moving and pass through the intersection, and so on. The total time taken for all waiting drivers to react and accelerate is the start-up lost time

Clearance lost time is the time lost to stopping a line of vehicles at the end of a green phase. Lost time is always measured in seconds.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 26
The Buckingham-Pi theorem is widely used in the dimensional analysis and expresses the resulting equation in terms of
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

Explanation

Buckingham-Pi theorem

If there are n no. of variables in a dimensionally homogenous equation and these variables contain m fundamental dimensions, then the no. of dimensionless group which can be formed shall be (n-m) .These dimensionless groups are called -terms.

Other Related Points

  • Geometric similarity -similarity of shape
  • Kinematic similarity- similarity of motion
  • Dynamic similarity - similarity of forces

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

If a 2% solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C and the dissolved oxygen depletion is 10 mg/L, then the BOD of the sewage would be

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

Concept:
Bio-Chemical Oxygen Demand:

  • Biochemical oxygen demand is used as a measure of the quantity of oxygen required for oxidation of biodegradable organic matter present in water samples by aerobic biochemical action.
  • The BOD can be determined by diluting a known sample of wastewater with a known volume of aerated pure water.

B.O.D of Sewage:
X% of sewage sample means, x litre of sewage is present in 100 & of sample
Final volume = 100, initial volume = x
D. F = 100/X (D.F = Dilution factor)
BOD = (Final vol. of oxygen – initial vol. of oxygen) × D.F
Calculation:
Given,
If sewage of solution is 2 %, then dilution factor will be,
D.F = 100/2
Dissolved Oxygen = 10 mg/L
B.O.D = Dissolved oxygen × Dilution factor
BOD = 10 x 100/2 = 500
B.O.D = 500 mg/L

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 28
The observation of two photographs simultaneously is called
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

Concept:

Stereoscopy:

The technique used for observation or viewing two related photographs or diagrams simultaneously to obtain the mental impression of a three-dimensional model is known as stereoscopy.

Other Related PointsSpectrometry:

It is an analytical technique to measure the interactions between light and matter. It is also used for spectrum study and measurement of the radiation intensity and wavelength.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

A hyetograph is a graphical representation of

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

Rainfall hyetograph shows Intensity of rainfall v/s time. For example,

Note:

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

The mechanical extra widening required for 10.5 m wide pavement on a horizontal curve of radius R meter is given bywhere, I is the length of wheel base of the vehicle in meters.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

Explanation:
Extra Widening
The extra width of carriageway that is required on a curved section of a road over and above that is required on a straight alignment is known as Extra Widening.
Mechanical widening: The widening required to account for the off-tracking due to rigidity of wheel base is known Mechanical widening. It can be calculated as:
Wm  = 2l² / 3R
n = Number of lanes
l = length of wheel base
R = Radius of circular curve
Number of lanes (n) = 10.5/3.5 = 3
Mechanical widening
Wm = 3l² / 2ROther Related PointsPsychological Widening: Extra width of pavement provided for psychological reasons such as overhangs of vehicles, greater clearance for crossing etc is known as Psychological Widening.

V = Design speed (kmph)
∴ For single lane, W m = l² / 2R

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