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UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 - UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 is part of UPPSC AE Civil Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Civil Engineering (CE) exam syllabus.The UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 below.
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UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

The Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha was established at ___________.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

The correct answer is Bombay

Explanation

  • The Marathi equivalent for 'Untouchables Welfare Assembly' is Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha.
  • Dr B.R. Ambedkar launched it in Bombay in July 1924 to help Dalits gain self-confidence.
  • He told them to 'Be Educated, Be Organized, and Be Agitated.'
  • Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha is a central institution established to alleviate the challenges of untouchables and to bring their concerns to the government.

Other Related Points

  • The Hitkarini Sabha's aims were to promote ethical, intellectual, social, cultural, and physical awareness among the people of India, as well as to produce leadership for various professions as needed in the country at the time.
  • B. R. Ambedkar was also known as Babasaheb Ambedkar, and he was one of the architects of the Indian Constitution.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Which light colour promotes the greatest amount of photosynthesis?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

The correct answer is Red.

Key Points

  • Red light colour promotes the greatest amount of photosynthesis
    • It is the process by which Green plants transform Light energy into Chemical energy.
    • During Photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.
    • Oxidation of water takes place forming Oxygen and the Reduction of Carbon Dioxide takes place forming Glucose.
    • Photosynthesis is maximum in the Red color of Light and Least in the Violet color of Light.
    • Photosynthesis range from 400 to 700 nm, It absorbs the Violet, Blue, and Red color of Light.

Other Related Points

  • Factors affecting Photosynthesis:
    • Carbon dioxide concentration: It is best in 0.03 to 0.04 % concentration and beyond this level can cause an increase in fixation rates and can become damaging over longer periods.
    • Water: Water stress causes the stomata to close hence reducing the CO2 availability.
    • Temperature: The temperature optimum for photosynthesis of different plants also depends on the habitat that they are adapted to.
    • Tropical plants have a higher temperature optimum than plants adapted to temperate climates.
    • Light: There is a linear relationship between the incident light and CO2 fixation rates at low light intensities. At higher light intensities, gradually the rate increases but does not show a further increase as other factors become limiting.

White light:

  • It is nothing but colorless daylight.
  • This contains all the wavelengths of the visible spectrum at equal intensity.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

The provision for Anti Defection Act is mentioned in which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

The correct answer is 10th Schedule.

Explanation

  • 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the provision for Anti Defection Act.
  • The Tenth Schedule was inserted into the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act.
  • It deals with the Anti defection law i.e, provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection.
  • Decision on questions as to disqualification on the ground of detection:-
    • If any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification under this Schedule, the question shall be referred for the decision of the Chairman or, as the case may be, the
      Speaker of such House and his decision shall be final.
    • Provided that where the question which has arisen is as to whether the Chairman or the Speaker of a House has become subject to such disqualification, the question shall be referred for the decision of a such member of the House as the House may elect on this behalf and his decision shall be final.

Other Related Points

  • 9th Schedule:
    • It became a part of the Constitution in the First Constitutional Amendment Act, of 1951.
    • It contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts.
    • Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review.
    • It was created by the new Article 31B which shields specific laws or enactments.
    • Article 31A was brought in to protect laws related to agrarian reform and for abolishing the Zamindari system.
  • Eleventh Schedule-
    • Provisions that specify the powers,
      authority, and responsibilities of
      Panchayats.
    • It has 29 subjects.
  • Twelfth Schedule-
    • Provisions that specify the powers,
      authority, and responsibilities of
      Municipalities.
    • It has 18 subjects.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

In which of the following Puranas, the five characteristics of Puranas are mentioned?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

The correct answer is Matsya.
Explanation

  • Matsya Purana has the five characteristics of Puranas.
  • The Matsya Purana is the oldest and better preserved in the Puranic genre of Sanskrit literature in Hinduism.
  • It is one of the eighteen major Puranas (Mahapurana).
  • The text is a Vaishnavism text named after the half-human and half-fish avatar of Vishnu.
  • The text has been called by the 19th-century Sanskrit scholar Horace Hayman Wilson, "although a Shaivism (Shiva-related) work, it is not exclusively so"; the text has also been referred to as one that simultaneously praises various Hindu gods and goddesses.
  • The Matsya Purana has 291 chapters, except the Tamil language version, written in Grantha script, which has 172 chapters.

Other Related Points

  • Puranas are Hindu religious texts which sometimes have historical references. Among
    scholars, there is no unanimity over the number of Puranas as well as on their date and period.
  • It is widely accepted that there are eighteen major Puranas.
  • Among these, the Vayu Purana is very important from a historical point of view. Matsya, Vishnu, and Bhavishya Puranas also contain some historical genealogy.

​​​​​​​

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

With reference to Delhi Sultanate consider the following statements.

1. Sultangarhi was built by Sultan Iltutmish.

2. Located in Delhi, it is the first tomb built by Turks.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Explanation

  • Sultan Ghari was the first Islamic Mausoleum built in 1231 AD for Prince Nasiru'd- Din Mahmud, eldest son of Iltumish, in the "funerary landscape of Delhi" in the Nangal Dewat Forest, Near Nangal Dewat Vasant Kunj. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The first true Islamic arch made its appearance in the tomb of Balban built around 1287-88. Hence the second statement is correct.
  • It has historical importance in the development of Indo-Islamic architecture.
  • It is located at the archaeological park in Mehrauli.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

Crosswind component:

  • It interrupts safe landing and take-off operations.
  • The crosswind component is computed by multiplying the wind speed by the sine of the angle between the wind and the direction of travel while the headwind component is computed in the same manner, using cosine instead of sine.

According to ICAO, the permissible limit of crosswind are as follows:

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 7
Runway threshold is indicated by series of parallel lines starting from a distance of
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

Explanation:

Runway threshold

  • The runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of 6 m from the runway end.
  • The threshold markings are in the form of stripes 3.6 m wide spaced at 0.9 m clear and placed symmetrically on either side of the runway centre-line.

Important PointsMarking in Runway

1. Marking of Taxiway is done in Yellow colour.

2. Runway lightening colour of the taxiway is done in Blue colour.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

P. Minimum diameter of 150 mm sewer shall be adopted for a population less than 1 lakh.

Q. Minimum diameter of 200 mm sewer shall be adopted for a population more than 1 lakh.

R. Minimum diameter of 100 mm sewer shall be adopted in Hilly areas.

Which of the above statements is/are correct as per CPHEEO?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Concept:

Minimum size of sewer:

As per CPHEEO(Central Public Health & Environmental Engineering Organisation), Manual on sewerage and sewerage treatment systems, cl. 3.14

  • The minimum diameter may be adopted as 200 mm for cities having a present/base year population of over 1 lakh.
  • For towns having a present/base year population of less than 1 lakh, the minimum diameter of 150 mm shall be adopted.
  • In hilly locations, a minimum diameter of 150 mm shall be adopted.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Number of fish bolts per fish plate is

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

The name ‘fish plate’ derives from the fish-shaped section of this fitting.
The function of a fish plate is to hold two rails together in both the horizontal and vertical planes. Fish plates are manufactured using a special type of steel (Indian Railways specification T-1/57) with the composition given below:
a) Carbon: 0.30–0.42%
b) Manganese: not more than 0.6%
c) Silicon: not more than 0.15%
d) Sulphur and phosphorous: not more than 0.06%
The number of bolts per fish plate is 4
The steel used for fish plates should have a minimum tensile strength of 5.58 to 6.51 t/cm2 with a minimum elongation of 20%.
Fish plates are designed to have roughly the same strength as the rail section, and as such the section area of two fish plates connecting the rail ends is kept about the same as that of the rail section.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Select the correct statement from the following:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Concept:
A cross drainage work is a structure constructed for carrying a canal across a natural drain or river intercepting the canal to dispose drainage water without mixing with the continuous canal supplies.
Types of Cross Drainage Works:-
Based on the relative bed levels, water levels of the canal and the drain and their relative discharge the Cross Drainage works are of the following types:-
(1) Cross drainage works carrying the Canal over the Natural Drain:
(i) Aqueduct

  • An aqueduct is a hydraulic structure which carries a canal (through a trough) across and above the drainage similar to a bridge in which instead of the road or a railway, a canal is carried over a natural drain.

  • In the case of an aqueduct, HFL (highest flood level) of the drainage should remain lower than the level of the underside of the canal trough.
  • The drain flows at atmospheric pressure under the work.
  • Generally, an inspection road is provided along with the trough

(ii) Syphon aqueduct

  • A syphon aqueduct is a cross drainage structure similar to an aqueduct except that the streambed is depressed locally where it passes under the trough of the canal and the barrels discharges the streamflow under pressure.
  • A syphon aqueduct is constructed where the water surface level of the drain at high flood is higher than the canal bed.
  • The horizontal floor of the barrels is provided with slopes at its ends to join the drain bed on either side.
  • The drain water flows under pressure through the barrels which act as inverted syphons and hence this cross drainage work is known as syphon aqueduct.

2) Cross drainage works carrying the natural drain over the canal-
(i) Super passage
A super passage is also similar to a bridge in which the natural drain is carried over the canal.

  • A super passage is reverse of an aqueduct.
  • A super passage is constructed where the bed of the drain is well above the canal F.S.L
  • The canal flows at atmospheric pressure under the work.

  • In this case it is not possible to provide an inspection road along the canal.

(ii) Syphon

  • A syphon is similar to a syphon aqueduct with the difference that in the case of a syphon the canal water is carried through the barrels under the drain.
  • A syphon is constructed where the full supply level of the canal is higher than the bed of the drain.
  • The barrels in this case also act as inverted syphons through which the canal water flows under pressure.

3) Cross drainage works admitting the drain water into the canal-
In this type of cross drainage works, the canal water and the drain water are allowed to intermingle with each other. This may be achieved by the following two types of cross drainage works:-
(i) Level crossing
(ii) Inlet and outlet

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

Major energy losses occur due to:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

There are generally two types of losses that occur in a pipe flow problem:

  1. Major loss: Major head loss occurs due to friction, which is given by:
    • Where f = friction factor = 64/Re
  2. Minor head loss: Minor head loss occurs due to:
    1. Sudden enlargement
    2. Sudden contraction
    3. Due to pipe bends
    4. head loss at the entrance and exit of pipe etc.

Minor loss:
Different type of minor losses in pipe


UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Who among the following scientists gave the runoff calculation formula R = 0.85 P - 30.5 for ghat areas?
(Where R = runoff in cm, P = rainfall in cm)

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Inglis and Desouza Formula has given two regional formulae, between annual runoff R in cm and annual rainfall P in cm as follows:

  • For Ghat regions of western India
    • Highlands
    • ​​R = 0.85P - 30.5
  • ​For Deccan Plateau
    • Plain areas
    • ​R = (1/254)P(P - 17.8)

Barlow’s Tables:

  • Barlow, the first Chief Engineer of the Hydro-Electric Survey of India (1915)
  • Barlow studied small catchments (area ~ 130 km2) in Uttar Pradesh and expressed runoff R as:
  • R = KbP ,
  • Where Kb = Runoff coefficient which depends upon the type of catchment and nature of monsoon and P is the rainfall.

​​Strange’s Tables:

  • Strangestudied the available rainfall and runoff in the border areas of present-day Maharashtra and Karnataka.
  • Obtained yield ratios as functions of indicators representing catchment characteristics.​
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Select the option that is appropriate regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion: Due to the inherent nature of various parameters involved in the process, the yield from a catchment is a random variable.
Reason: The yield from a catchment is the end-product of various processes such as precipitation, infiltration and evapotranspiration operating on the catchment.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Assertion: Due to the inherent nature of various parameters involved in the process, the yield from a catchment is a random variable.

  • The yield from a catchment is influenced by various natural processes, including precipitation, infiltration, and evapotranspiration.
  • These processes are subject to variability and uncertainties due to factors such as weather patterns, soil characteristics, and vegetation cover.
  • As a result, the yield from a catchment cannot be precisely predicted and is considered a random variable.
  • True: The assertion is correct because the inherent variability in the influencing parameters makes the catchment yield a random variable.

Reason: The yield from a catchment is the end-product of various processes such as precipitation, infiltration, and evapotranspiration operating on the catchment.

  • The yield from a catchment is indeed the result of multiple hydrological processes like precipitation (which provides water input), infiltration (which affects how much water enters the soil), and evapotranspiration (which involves the loss of water through evaporation and plant transpiration).
  • These processes collectively determine the amount of water that ultimately flows out of the catchment.
  • True: The reason is correct because it accurately describes the processes contributing to the catchment yield.

Since the assertion correctly identifies the nature of catchment yield as a random variable due to variability in influencing parameters, and the reason accurately describes the processes affecting the yield, it is clear that the reason provides a correct explanation for the assertion.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 14
The silt pressure( Ps) exerted on a gravity dam is given by ( Where үs = submerged unit weight, ɸ = angle of internal friction, and hs =The height to which the silt is deposited)
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Explanation:

Silt pressure in Gravity Dam:

  • Silt gets deposited against the upstream face of the dam and due to this dam is subjected to silt pressure.
  • The deposited silt is treated as saturated cohesion-less soil having full uplift and it is assumed that the value of internal friction is not changed on account of submergence.
  • Silt pressure exists together with water pressure in a submerged fill and silt pressure on the dam is reduced in the proportion that the weight of the fill is reduced by submergence.
  • The horizontal silt pressure is equivalent to that of a fluid weighing 1360 kg/m³.
  • Vertical silt and water pressure are determined if silt and water together have a density of 1925 kg/m³.

Silt pressure is given as:

Where

ϕ is the angle of internal friction taken which is generally taken as 300 for sand and gravel.

γs is the unit weight of silt or earth submerged in water, and

hs is the height of silt submerged in water above the base of the dam.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 15
Which of the following statements regarding the requirements of a good ballast is INCORRECT?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Explanation:

A good ballast should be non-porous and water-resistant because:

  • If ballast absorbs water, it loses strength and deteriorates over time.

  • Water retention can lead to vegetation growth, which reduces the effectiveness of ballast in providing stability.

  • Excess moisture can weaken the track foundation, affecting train safety.

Other Related Points

"It should be durable and should not get pulverized or disintegrated under adverse weather conditions." – Correct. A good ballast must withstand harsh weather.
"It should be tough and wear-resistant." – Correct. Toughness ensures that the ballast remains effective under repeated train loads.
"It should resist both attrition and abrasion." – Correct. Resistance to wear and tear increases the lifespan of the ballast.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

A parabolic vertical curve is set out connecting a +0.7% grade to a -0.6% grade. The chainage and R.L. of the point of intersection are 1000 m 250 m respectively. The admissible rate of change of grade is 0.05% per 20 m. The chainage of the tangent points will be

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

Concept:
Setting out a vertical curve:


Total Grade = g1 - g2
The length of the curve(L) is

The chainage of tangent points is
Chainage of T1 = Chainage of I - (L/2)
Chainage of T2 = Chainage of I + (L/2)
and the elevation of tangent points is


Calculation:
Given data
Grade 1(g1) = + 0.7%
Grade 2(g2) = - 0.6%
The chainage of the point of intersection = 1000 m
R.L. of the point of intersection = 250 m
Rate of change of grade = 0.05% per 20 m
Total Grade = Grade 1 - Grade 2 = 0.7 - (-0.6) = 1.3%

Now the length of curve(L) is

Length of curve = (1.3/0.05) x 20 = 520 m
The chainage of the tangent points(T1 & T2)
Chainage of T1 = chainage of I - (L/2)
Chainage of T1 = 1000 - (520/2) = 740 m
Chainage of T2 = chainage of I + (L/2).
Chainage of T2 = 1000 + (520/2) = 1260 m

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 17
Errors arising from carelessness of the observer are known as
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Explanation:

Error: The difference between the observed value and the true value is known as an error.

There are three types of errors that occur while we do the surveying:

1. Mistakes:

  • These are the errors that occur due to inexperience, inattention, carelessness, lack of judgment, or poor judgment.
  • Doesn't have any fixed pattern.
  • Cannot be eliminated by adopting any standard methods of observation.

2. Systematic errors:

  • Have well-defined mathematical laws or systems.
  • The magnitude and sign of such errors can be determined and corrections can be applied.

3. Accidental errors/Compensating errors:

  • Random in nature.
  • Don't have any fixed pattern.
  • Can be positive or negative.
  • Follow the law of probability.
  • They have small magnitudes and tend to distribute equally on both sides of true value.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

As per IS 10500 : 2012, the maximum desirable limits of iron and fluorides for drinking water are

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Concept:
According to IS 10500-1012 acceptable limit and permissible limit of some characters present in drinking water are given below :

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

What is the relationship between the flying height (H), the focal length (f), the air base (B) and the photo base (b)?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Explanation:
Scale is the ratio of map (photo) distance and ground distance.
S = Map distance/Ground distance = f/H
Map distance = photo base length = b
Ground distance = air base = B
Therefore,
S = f/H = B/b
Or
B = Hb/f

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

An angle measured with theodolite is α with weight 2. The weight of a/4 will be

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Explanation:
Laws of Weight:

So here division is used
w =2 ,k =a/4
Hence weight of result = 2 × 42

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

​If the base period of a 6 hr. unit hydrograph of a basin is 84 hr. then, the base period of a 12 hr. unit hydrograph of the same basin will be

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Explanation:
Unit hydrograph:
A unit hydrograph is a direct runoff hydrograph resulting from one unit (one cm) of constant intensity uniform rainfall occurring over the entire watershed.

Base period of 12 hr unit hydrograph = Base period of 6 hr unit hydrograph + 6
Base period of 12 hr unit hydrograph = 84 + 6 = 90h

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

With reference to lining of a canal which of the following statement is/are correct?

i. It is necessary to minimize the seepage loss in canal.

ii. It increases the discharge in the canal section by increasing the velocity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Explanation

Canal Lining:

The laying of the impervious layer which protects the bed and sides of the canal is called canal lining. The lining of the canal is necessary for the following reasons:

  • To minimize the seepage losses through the bedsides of the canal.
  • To prevent scouring and erosion of the bed and sides of the canal due to the high velocity of flood water at the time of heavy rainfall.
  • Increase the discharge in the canal section by increasing the velocity.
  • To increase the command area.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Muskingum method of routing satisfies the equation

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Explanation:
The Muskingum method is used for flood routing.
The routing equation for the Muskingum method is given by this
Q2 = C0I2 + C1I1 + C2Q1
I1 and I2 represent the inflow hydrograph data, and Q1 represents the outflow hydrograph data corresponding to the initial condition.
The coefficients C0, C1, and C2 in the equation satisfied the following relation:
C0 + C1 + C2 = 1
C₀ = (- kx + 0.5Δt)/k (1 - x) + 0.5Δt
C₁ = (kx + 0.5Δt)/k (1 - x) + 0.5Δt

C₂ = k(1 - x) - 0.5Δt/k(1 - x) + 0.5Δt]

k is the storage time coefficient and x are weightage factor.
Δt is the time interval considered for routing
If we add all the above three coefficients, then we get C0 + C1 + C2 = 1

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 24
The device, which can be used to control gaseous as well as particulate pollutants in the industrial emissions is known as
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Explanation:

Wet scrubbers are used to remove air pollutants and are classified into

  • Spray towers
  • Wet cyclonic scrubber
  • Venturi scrubber.

Scrubbers are a type of system used to remove harmful materials from industrial exhaust gasses before they are released into the environment.

These pollutants are generally gaseous, and when scrubbers are used to specifically remove SOx, they are referred to as flue gas desulfurization.

There are two main types of scrubber, wet scrubbers and dry scrubbers.

The main difference is the type of material used to remove the gases. By removing acid gasses from the exhaust system before they are released into the sky, scrubbers help prevent acid rain from forming.

Other Related PointsDynamic precipitator

Dynamic precipitator is used in ceramics, woodworking industries. It uses centrifugal force to remove gaseous matter.

Fabric filter

Fabric filters are a fairly simple method that can be used to remove dust from flue gases. In some gases, acidic gasses can also be removed if basic compounds are used. This method simply uses some kind of fabric-usually felt is used as a woven cloth that would allow the dust to pass through-so that the flute glasses must pass through it before the smoke stacks are out.

Cyclone

A cyclone separator is a separation device that uses the principle of inertia to remove particulate matter from flue gas. In these separators, dirty flue gas enters a chamber with a vortex, similar to a tornado. Due to the difference in inertia between the gas particles and the larger particles, the gas particles move up the cylinder while the larger particles hit the inside wall and drop down. This separates the particulate matter from the flue gas, leaving the flue gas clean.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 25
Recirculation in "Activated sludge process" is done to
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Explanation:

The activated sludge process is a type of biological wastewater treatment process for treating sewage or industrial wastewater using aeration and a biological floc composed of bacteria and protozoa.

It uses air (or oxygen) and microorganisms to biologically oxidize organic pollutants, producing a waste sludge (or floc) containing the oxidized material.

Recirculation ratio and its effects

  • The recirculation ratio is the amount of wastewater that flows through the advanced pre-treatment component divided by the amount of wastewater that is sent to the final treatment and dispersal component.
  • Recirculation is used to remove or lower levels of nitrates, BOD5, TSS, and other contaminants in the wastewater
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 26
Following errors are eliminated during reciprocal levelling
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Explanation:

Reciprocal levelling is adopted to accurately determine the level difference between two points which are separated by obstacles like a river, ponds, lakes, etc.

It eliminates the following errors:

  • error in instrument adjustments i.e error due to collimation
  • the combined effect of Earth's curvature and the refraction of the atmosphere
  • variation in the average refraction

Other Related Points

  • Reciprocal levelling eliminates the error due to collimation and error due to curvature of Earth completely, but as the refraction depends upon the atmosphere which may change every minute;
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 27
Aerosol is known as
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Explanation:

A colloidal solution in which solid is the dispersed phase and liquid is the dispersion medium is called "Sol". If the dispersion medium is air, the solution is called "aerosol".

Aerosols:

  • They are finely divided solid or liquid particles which are small enough to remain suspended in the air.
  • These are present in the air naturally and hence, considered natural contaminants.
  • The particulate matter in air largely in solid form as particles of dust, fume, and smoke are examples of aerosols.
  • In liquid form, it is known as mist and fog.
UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

The zero graduation in a prismatic compass is marked in the,

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Concept:

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 29
Which of the following is one of the factor influencing the provision of camber?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Concept:

Requirements of camber depending on the following:
  1. Type of pavement surface
  2. The amount of rainfall

Other Related Points

A flat camber of 1.7 to 2.0 % is sufficient on relatively impervious pavement surfaces, likewise cement concrete or bituminous concrete.

In pervious surfaces ( likewise water-bound macadam, gravel, or earth road ), which may allow surface water to get into the subgrade soil, steeper camber is required.

Steeper camber is provided in areas of heavy rainfall to enable the surface water to drain off at a rapid rate.

UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 30
Indian Road Congress was formed in the following year
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Explanation:

Indian Road Congress (IRC):

The Indian Roads Congress (IRC) is the premier technical body of Highway Engineers in the country.

It was founded and constituted with Head Quarters at New Delhi by Jayakar Committee in 1934

It publishes various codes standardizing the specifications.

The IRC provides a national forum for sharing of knowledge and pooling of experience on the entire range of subjects dealing with the construction and maintenance of roads and bridges, including technology, equipment, research, planning, finance, taxation, organization and all connected policy issues.

Important Points

1927 → Jayakar committee (Indian road development committee)

1929 → Central Road Fund (CRF)

1943 → Nagpur Road plan

1952 → Central Road Research Institute (CRRI)

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