Civil Engineering (CE) Exam  >  Civil Engineering (CE) Tests  >  UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Civil Engineering (CE) MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test - UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 is part of Civil Engineering (CE) preparation. The UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Civil Engineering (CE) exam syllabus.The UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for Civil Engineering (CE) 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 below.
Solutions of UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 questions in English are available as part of our course for Civil Engineering (CE) & UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 solutions in Hindi for Civil Engineering (CE) course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for Civil Engineering (CE) Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 | 150 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for Civil Engineering (CE) preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for Civil Engineering (CE) Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

The Oath or Affirmations of which of the following office bearers are mentioned in the Third Schedule of Indian Constitution?
I. President of India
II. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

The correct answer is Only II
Explanation

  • The third Schedule contains the “Forms of Oaths or Affirmations” of various constitutional posts.
  • It deals with Articles 75(4), 99, 124(6), 148(2), 164(3), 188, and 219.
  • The rationale for placing a schedule 3 in the constitution of India is to give a detailed account of forms of Oaths or Affirmations of the various constitutional posts which cannot be defined in the respective articles in the constitution due to its detailed nature.
  • The third Schedule contains the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for the following office bearers:
    • Union Ministers of India
    • Union Ministers of a State
    • Parliament Election Candidates
    • Members of Parliament (MPs)
    • Supreme Court Judges
    • Comptroller and Auditor General
    • State Ministers
    • State Legislature Elections‘ Candidates
    • State Legislature Members
    • High Court Judges. Hence option II is the correct answer.
  • Article 60 : Oath or affirmation by the President
    • Every President and every person acting as President or discharging the functions of the President s hall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe in the presence of the Chief Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court available an oath or affirmayion.
  • Article 69: Oath or affirmation by the Vice-President
    • Every Vice-President shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe before the President, or some person appointed in that behalf by him, an oath or affirmation.
  • There is no separate oath for the speaker.
    • He/She takes the oath as the Member of the Parliament when elected.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

The editor of the paper "Hindu Patriot" Sri Harish Chandra Mukherjee was known to have helped the:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

The correct answer is Indigo revolt.
Explanation

  • Indigo as the natural dye for textile, emerged as one of the most important cash crops for British traders.
  • The ryots (cultivators) were entered into contracts for compulsory indigo cultivation which was then purchased at rate much lower than the market rate.
  • The subsequent exploitation of indigo planter for more profit gave birth to the Indigo revolt.
  • Newspapers like the 'Hindoo Patriot 'under Harish Chandra Mukherjee and reports of a journalist like Sisir Kumar Ghose published and defended the cause of peasants while exposing the exploitation of Indigo planters.
  • Neel Darpan by Deen Bandhu MitraThe play was essential to Nil Vidroha, better known as the Indigo Revolt of February - March 1859 in Bengal, when farmers refused to sow indigo in their fields to protest against exploitative farming under the British Raj.

Some of the Peasant movements are:

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

1. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed the Office in the year 1977.

2. Only six people became Prime Ministers after being Chief Ministers of States so far.

3. Only three Prime Ministers were members of the Rajya Sabha so far.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

The correct answer is 1 and 2.

Explanation

  • Prime Minister:
    • The Prime Minister of India is the head of the government. He is appointed by the Indian President after the political party wins a general election and nominates a candidate for the post.
    • Morarji Desai was selected by the Janata alliance, later Janata Party as their parliamentary leader, and thus became the first non-Congress Prime Minister of India in 1977. Hence statement 1 is Correct.
    • Six people became Prime Ministers after being Chief Ministers of their respective States.
      1. Morarji Desai (Bombay)
      2. Charan Singh (Uttar Pradesh)
      3. V.P. Singh (Uttar Pradesh)
      4. P.V. Narasimha Rao (Andhra Pradesh)
      5. H.D. Deve Gowda (Karnataka)
      6. Narendra Modi (Gujarat). Hence statement 2 is Correct.
    • Narendra Modi is the 15th Prime Minister of India (excluding the re-elected PMs). He is the 4th Prime Minister of India who would serve two consecutive terms as the Indian Prime Minister and the first Non-Congress Party Prime Minister who would complete two consecutive terms.
      1. Jawaharlal Nehru (1947-64)
      2. Indira Gandhi (1966-1977)
      3. Manmohan Singh (2004-2014)
      4. Narendra Modi (2014-Incumbent)
    • Constitutionally, the Prime Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of parliament. For example, four Prime Ministers, Indira Gandhi (1966), Deve Gowda (1996), IK Gujral (1997) and Manmohan Singh (2004), were members of the Rajya Sabha. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Which of the statement is correct about the impact of climate change?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

The correct answer is D. All of the above

Climate change significantly impacts agricultural productivity by altering crop yields and the types of crops suitable for various regions. Factors such as water availability, solar radiation, and pest prevalence are affected, leading to varied outcomes across different areas. Moderate warming, specifically an increase of 1 to 3°C, is anticipated to enhance crop yields in temperate regions. Conversely, in lower latitudes, particularly in seasonally dry tropics, even slight increases in temperature (1 to 2°C) could adversely affect major cereal crops. Additionally, a rise in temperature exceeding 3°C is projected to negatively influence production across all regions, confirming that all statements are correct.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is correct as moderate warming (1 to 3°C) may indeed benefit crop yields in temperate climates, but it does not encompass the broader implications of climate change.
  • B: This statement is accurate, indicating that moderate temperature increases in lower latitudes can harm major cereal crops, but it is only part of the overall impact of climate change.
  • C: This statement is also correct since warming beyond 3°C is expected to negatively affect production universally, but it fails to capture the complexities presented in the other options.

Conclusion:

Option: D, as the most comprehensive choice, encapsulates the effects of climate change on agriculture, highlighting the significance of all provided statements. Thus, All of the above is the correct choice.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 5
What is the theme for World Population Day 2024?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

The correct answer is C. Leave No One Behind, Count Everyone

World Population Day, celebrated on July 11, aims to raise awareness about global population growth and its implications for development and sustainability. The theme for 2024, "Leave No One Behind, Count Everyone," emphasizes the necessity of including everyone in population counts to foster sustainable development.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect as "Population and Sustainability" does not convey the specific focus on inclusivity that the chosen theme emphasizes.
  • B: This option is less appropriate because "Future of Population Growth" does not directly address the need for counting every individual, which is central to the 2024 theme.
  • D: This option is incorrect since "Health and Population Awareness" does not capture the critical aspect of ensuring that all individuals are counted for sustainable development.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant choice, stands out for its focus on inclusivity in population counting, which is essential for sustainable development. Thus, Leave No One Behind, Count Everyone is the correct choice.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा शब्द प्रत्यय युक्त है?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

'सजावट' शब्द प्रत्यय युक्त शब्द है

  • 'सजावट' में 'आवट' प्रत्यय का प्रयोग हुआ है।

मुख्य बिंदु
'प्रत्यय'-

  • शब्द के 'अंत' में लगकर उनका अर्थ बदल देते है।
  • जैसे- 'माननीय' शब्द में 'अनीय' प्रत्यय का प्रयोग हुआ है।

अन्य विकल्प में 'उपसर्ग' का प्रयोग हुआ है।

  • निवास= 'नि' उपसर्ग तथा मूल शब्द 'वास' है।
  • 'अन्वेषण'= 'अनु' उपसर्ग तथा मूल शब्द 'एषण' है।
  • 'संकल्प'= 'सम' उपसर्ग तथा मूल शब्द 'कल्प' है।

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु'उपसर्ग'-

  • शब्द के 'आगे' में लगकर उनका अर्थ बदल देते है।
  • जैसे- 'प्रत्येक' में उपसर्ग 'प्रति' तथा मूल शब्द 'एक' है।

अन्य महत्वपूर्ण 'उपसर्ग-प्रत्यय' युक्त शब्द -

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

निम्नलिखित में से किस शब्द की वर्तनी गलत है ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

शब्द की वर्तनी गलत है - सहस्त्र

व्याख्या

  • अशुद्ध शब्द - 'सहस्त्र', शुद्ध शब्द - 'सहस्र'
  • 'सहस्र' का अर्थ - जो गिनती में दस सौ हो, हज़ार।
  • वर्तनी - भाषा के किसी शब्द को को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के सही क्रम को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

निम्नलिखित में से तालव्य व्यंजन का चयन कीजिए -

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

च, छ, ज, झ, ञ, य, श तालव्य व्यंजन है।
व्याख्या

  • तालव्य वर्ण- जिन वर्णों का उच्चारण तालु से होता है, उसे तालव्य वर्ण कहते हैं।
  • उदाहरण- इ, च, छ, ज, झ, य, और श आदि।
  • अन्य विकल्प-

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु
स्पर्श व्यंजन:-

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

निम्नलिखित विलोमार्थी युग्म में कौन सा शुद्ध है ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

विलोमार्थी युग्म में कौन सा शुद्ध है - संपन्न - विपन्न

  • आयोग ने इस प्रश्न का सही उत्तर विकल्प -1 को माना गया है, जो की गलत है,
  • इस प्रश्न का सही उत्तर विकल्प - 4 (संपन्न - विपन्न) होगा।

व्याख्या

  • 'संपन्न' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'विपन्न' होगा।
  • 'संपन्न' का अर्थ - अमीर, धनी, धनवान्।
  • 'विपन्न' का अर्थ - गरीब, असहाय, दरिद्र।
  • विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-


अन्य संबंधित बिंदु कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a type of solar collector?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Solar collectors are devices that absorb solar energy and convert it into heat.
The three main types are:

  1. Low-temperature solar collectors (e.g., swimming pool heaters).
  2. Medium-temperature solar collectors (e.g., flat-plate collectors for water heating).
  3. High-temperature solar collectors (e.g., parabolic troughs and solar power plants).​

Option (d) is incorrect because "Nuclear-temperature solar collectors" do not exist. Nuclear energy is a separate field from solar energy collection.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 11
What rare astronomical event, known as the "Sturgeon Moon," occurred on August 19, 2024?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

The correct answer is Super Blue Moon

In News

  • The Super Blue Moon, a rare astronomical event, was visible on August 19, 2024, marking the first occurrence in nearly a year.

Explanation

  • A supermoon happens when the full Moon coincides with its closest approach to Earth, appearing larger and brighter in the sky.
  • The Blue Moon refers to a second full Moon in a calendar month, a rare event occurring about once every two to three years.
  • The combination of a supermoon and a blue moon is uncommon, with such events happening approximately once every ten years.
  • The next Super Blue Moon will not occur until 2037.
  • The moon was observed rising over iconic landmarks worldwide, including the Christ the Redeemer statue in Brazil and the Colosseum in Rome.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 12
How does Web 3.0 differ from Web 2.0?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

The correct answer is B. It allows peer-to-peer transactions without intermediaries.

Web 3.0, often referred to as the decentralized web, represents a shift from the centralized systems of Web 2.0. This new model emphasizes direct interactions between users, enabling peer-to-peer transactions without intermediaries. By utilizing technologies like blockchain, Web 3.0 enhances security, privacy, and trust in online activities. Unlike its predecessor, which relies on centralized servers, Web 3.0 distributes control across various nodes, fostering a more resilient and user-centric internet.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because Web 3.0 seeks to reduce centralized control, promoting a decentralized approach instead.
  • C: This option is incorrect as both Web 2.0 and Web 3.0 require internet connectivity for functionality; Web 3.0 does not eliminate this need.
  • D: This option is incorrect because Web 3.0 inherently supports blockchain technology, which is crucial for its decentralized framework.

Conclusion:

Option: B, as the most accurate and relevant option, stands out for its emphasis on enabling direct transactions between users, clearly differentiating it from the other options. Thus, it allows peer-to-peer transactions without intermediaries is the correct choice.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Which of the following is extensive property?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Intensive Property: These are the properties of the system which are independent of mass under consideration. For e.g. Pressure, Temperature, density
Extensive Properties: The properties which depend on the mass of the system under consideration.For e.g Internal
Energy, Enthalpy, Volume, Entropy
Note: All specific properties are intensive properties. For e.g. specific volume, specific entropy etc.

External energy required to increase the temperature of a solid mass is known as the material’s heat capacity. It is defined as its ability to absorb heat energy.

Heat capacity has units as J/K. Heat capacity is not an intrinsic property i.e. it changes with material volume/mass.
Specific heat, c, is heat capacity per unit mass (J/kg-K). It is an intensive property.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

The absolute temperature (K) scale needs only one fixpoint, which is the

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Explanation:
Absolute zero temperature:

  • Absolute zero temperature is the lower limit of the thermodynamic temperature scale, a state at which the enthalpy and entropy of a cooled ideal gas reach its minimum value, taken as 0.
  • It is 0 K i.e. −273.15° C or −459.67° F.
  • It is impossible to reach zero temperature.
  • In practice, work can never achieve absolute zero temperature because it is impossible to have a source to supply an infinite amount of work.
  • The absolute temperature (K) scale needs only one fixpoint, which is the triple point of water.

Other Related Points

  • Triple point: The temperature and pressure at which the solid, liquid, and vapor phase of a pure substance coexists in equilibrium are called the triple point.​
  • The triple point is merely the point of intersection of the sublimation and vaporization curves.
  • It has been found that on a ‘p-T’ diagram the triple point is represented by a point and on a ‘p-v’ diagram it is a line, and on a ‘u-v’ diagram it is a triangle.
  • In the case of ordinary water, the triple point is at a pressure of 4.58 mm Hg and a temperature of 0.01°C.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Choose the correct code for the following statements being correct or incorrect.

Statement I : Intellectual Property (IP) is a category of property that includes intangible creations of the human intellect.

Statement II : IPR does not include trade secrets and moral rights.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Statement I: Intellectual Property (IP) is a category of property that includes intangible creations of the human intellect.

Explanation:

  1. Intellectual property (IP) refers to creations of the mind, such as inventions; literary and artistic works; designs; and symbols, names, and images used in commerce.
  2. Intellectual property is an umbrella term for a set of intangible assets or assets that are not physical in nature.
  3. Intellectual property (IP) is a category of property that includes intangible creations of the human intellect.
  4. There are many types of intellectual property, and some countries recognize more than others.
  5. The most well-known types are copyrights, patents, trademarks, and trade secrets. Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II: IPR does not include trade secrets and moral rights.

Explanation:

Intellectual property can consist of many types of intangibles, and some of the most common are listed below:

  1. Trademarks: Trademarks are the names, phrases, and symbols that differentiate your brand from others in your industry. They must be distinctive and used in commerce to sell or promote a product or service.
  2. Copyrights: A copyright grants legal rights to anything you create that expresses or embodies an idea. It gives you exclusive rights to copy, distribute, reproduce, display, and license the work.
  3. Patents: Patents are granted for new, useful inventions, and they will give you the right to prevent others from making, using, or selling your invention.
  4. Trade Secrets: A trade secret is a piece of confidential business information whose secrecy gives you an advantage over your competitors.
  5. Moral Rights: Moral rights are personal legal rights belonging to the creator of copyright works and not be transferred, assigned, or sold. Moral in other words-“Moral rights are the rights individual creators have in relation to copyright works or films they have created.
  6. Franchise: A franchise is a license that a company, individual, or party–called the franchisee–purchases allowing them to use a company's–the franchisor–name, trademark, proprietary knowledge, and processes.

Thus, statement II is incorrect.

Option 3 is the correct answer.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

Which one of the following is a four-wheeled vehicle used for material handling ________?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 16
  • A four-wheel vehicle used for material handling is the industrial fork lift.
  • Gasoline, propane or electric engines provide power to it.
  • Heavy counter weights are fitted to the rear of the units.
  • The front of the machine has two steel lifting arms or forks. The forks are spaced to balance the loads and are adjustable.
  • It is used for lifting loads and shifting them to different places in a factory.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 17
Which of the following decision making style encourages creative thinking?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

The correct answer is D. Conceptual Style

The conceptual decision-making style is characterized by its emphasis on creativity and innovation. Unlike other styles, it encourages thinking outside the box and exploring various possibilities. This approach is particularly valuable in situations where traditional methods may fall short, as it fosters collaboration and considers multiple perspectives, leading to more inventive solutions.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: The analytical style is focused on thorough examination and data analysis before making decisions. While it values logical reasoning, it does not inherently promote creative thinking.
  • B: The behavioral style emphasizes team dynamics and the emotional aspects of decision-making. Although it values group welfare, it may limit creativity by prioritizing consensus over innovative ideas.
  • C: The directive style relies on established facts and rules for decision-making. It tends to be quick and efficient but often stifles creativity due to its rigid structure and preference for clear-cut solutions.

Conclusion:

Option: D, stands out as the most relevant choice due to its focus on fostering creativity and collaboration, which are essential for innovative problem-solving. Thus, Conceptual Style is the correct choice.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 18
Why is it important to consider both macro and micro climates in building design?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Explanation:

Considering macro climate helps in addressing regional issues like monsoons, snowfall, or desert heat.
Understanding micro climate ensures that the building design adapts to localized factors like:

  • Sunlight exposure.
  • Wind patterns.
  • Surrounding vegetation and terrain.

Example in Practice:

A house in a hilly area would require proper insulation for macro climate cold weather and positioning to shield against micro climate winds.
Solar panels could be installed in south-facing directions to maximize energy efficiency.
This approach balances environmental sustainability with human comfort, aligning with green building practices.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 19
What is the most common security stance employed on firewalls ?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

The correct answer is option 4.

Concept:

A firewall is a network security device that analyses incoming and outgoing network traffic and determines whether specific traffic should be allowed or blocked based on a set of security rules. For more than 25 years, firewalls have served as the first line of defense in network security. Denying by default, allowing by exception is the most common security stance employed on firewalls

Firewall Features:

  • Network Threat Prevention
  • Application and Identity-Based Control
  • Hybrid Cloud Support
  • Scalable Performance
  • Network Traffic Management and Control
  • Access Validation
  • Record and Report on Events

Hence the correct answer is denying by default, allowing by exception.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

The range of inaccuracy which can be tolerated in measurements is said to be______________________.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Explanation:
Tolerance

  • Tolerance is defined as the total permissible variation of size. In other words, is a range of inaccuracies can be tolerated in measurement.
  • It is the difference between the maximum limit and the minimum limit of size.
  • the tolerances determined so that it doesn't affect other factors or the outcome of a process.

Limit

  • Two extreme permissible sizes of a part between which the actual size is contained are called limits.
  • Ex. Suppose the diameter of the shaft is 10± o.5 mm then, the limit is ± 0.5, the maximum limit of size is + 0.5 mm, The minimum limit of size is - 0.5 mm
  • Upper deviation: The difference between the maximum limit of size and the corresponding basic size. (10 + 0.5 = 10.5 mm)
  • Lower deviation: The difference between the minimum limit of size and the corresponding basic size. (10 - 0.5 = 9.5 mm)

Fit

  • The relationship existing between two parts which are to be assembled with respect to the difference in their sizes before assembly is called a fit.
  • The fit signifies the range of tightness or looseness which may result from the application of a specific combination of allowances and tolerances in the design of mating parts.
  • There are three general types of fit between the mating parts
    • Clearance fit: A clearance fit is one having limits of size so prescribed that a clearance always results when mating parts are assembled. Ex. The hole is larger than the shaft. (Easy rotation possible)
    • Transition fit: A transition fit is one having limits of size so prescribed that either a clearance or interference may always result when mating parts are assembled. Ex. The hole is fractionally smaller than the shaft. (medium forced required0)
    • Interference fit: An interference fit is one having limits of size so prescribed that an interference always results when mating parts are assembled. Ex. The hole is smaller than the shaft. ( high force required and friction will be there)

Fig: Hole Basis System
Accuracy

  • Accuracy of the instrument may be defined as its ability to respond to a true value of a measured variable under reference conditions.
  • In other words, it can also be explained as the closeness with which an instrument reading approaches the true value of the quantity being measured.
  • The accuracy of measurement means conformity to the truth.
  • The accuracy of an instrument may be expressed in different ways, viz, in terms of the measured variable itself, a span of the instrument, upper-range value, percent of scale length of actual output reading.
  • Overall Accuracy For the instruments composed of separate physical units like primary; secondary, manipulation, etc.
  • Overall accuracy is expressed by combining individual accuracies of different elements.
  • For pressure spring thermometer having an accuracy of the bulb-capillary system as ±0.5% and accuracy of Bourdon pressure gauge as ±1 %.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 21
In the context of Genetic Algorithms, which of the following selection methods is most likely to select the best individuals multiple times?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

The correct answer is Elitism

Explanation

  • Elitism: In Genetic Algorithms, elitism refers to a selection method where a certain number of the best individuals (elite individuals) are guaranteed to survive to the next generation. This ensures that the best solutions found so far are retained and can continue to contribute to the population in future generations. By directly copying the best individuals to the next generation, elitism increases the chances of selecting the best individuals multiple times, as they are preserved regardless of the performance of other individuals.
  • Tournament selection: In tournament selection, a subset of individuals is chosen randomly, and the best individual from this subset is selected. While it can increase the chances of selecting better individuals, it does not guarantee multiple selections of the best individuals.
  • Roulette wheel selection: Also known as fitness-proportionate selection, this method selects individuals based on their relative fitness. While it gives higher chances to fitter individuals, it does not guarantee multiple selections of the best individuals.
  • Rank selection: Rank selection assigns selection probabilities based on the rank of individuals rather than their absolute fitness values. It can help in maintaining diversity but does not ensure multiple selections of the best individuals.

Therefore, elitism is the method most likely to select the best individuals multiple times by ensuring their preservation across generations.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Name the tool, which is used to lift or move heavy loads by leverage effect

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Hoisting tool:

  • Hoisting devices are mainly used for lifting the loads with the help of chains, ropes etc.

Crowbars:

  • Crowbars are the lifting devices which lift the loads using the leverage effect

Forklifts:

  • The forklift is a small 4 -wheeled vehicle used for lifting loads and then shifting them to other locations in a factory
  • The front of the machine has two steel lifting arms or forks
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 23
Which of the following energy conversion devices is used to convert electrical energy into thermal energy?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Explanation:

A Resister is an electrical component that dissipates electrical energy as heat when current flows through it.

Other Related Points

  • Transformer converts electrical energy to electrical energy at a different voltage level.

  • Heat Exchanger is used for thermal energy transfer, not electrical to thermal conversion.

  • Solar Sail converts electromagnetic radiation to mechanical energy, making it incorrect.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 24
Which among the following is important to have a good to be successful in your career?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

The correct answer is ​Attitude.

  • ​Attitude is important to have a good to be successful in your career.
  • Our attitude defines and delimits our level of success.
  • A positive attitude means being optimistic about situations, interactions, and yourself.
  • People with positive attitudes can remain hopeful and see the best even in difficult situations.
  • Attitudes have a powerful influence over behaviour.

Explanation

"Attitude is internal whereas Behaviour is external".

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

What is not to be used to put off fire from burning liquids?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 25


For Class B fire, the aim is to cover the entire surface of the burning liquid. This has the effect of cutting off the supply of oxygen to the fire.
Water should never be used on burning liquids.
Also, Foam or liquid (e.g. water) extinguishers must not be used on electrical equipment under any circumstances.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 26
The LIGO-India Project is related to the detection of:
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

The correct answer is C. Gravitational Waves

The LIGO-India Project aims to detect gravitational waves, which are disturbances in spacetime produced by significant cosmic events, such as the collision of black holes or neutron stars. This advanced observatory will be part of a global network, enhancing our ability to observe these phenomena. Gravitational waves were first theorized by Albert Einstein in 1915 within his General Theory of Relativity. The existing LIGO detectors have successfully identified gravitational waves since their first detection in 2015, marking a significant milestone in astrophysics.

Details on Other Options:

  • A: This option is incorrect because exoplanets are planets located outside our solar system, and their detection is unrelated to gravitational wave observatories.
  • B: This option is incorrect as neutrinos are subatomic particles with very little mass and are primarily studied through different experimental setups, not gravitational wave detectors.
  • D: This option is incorrect since cosmic rays are high-energy particles from space that interact with the Earth's atmosphere, which is not the focus of the LIGO-India Project.

Conclusion:

Option: C, as the most accurate and relevant choice, highlights the project's focus on detecting gravitational waves, distinguishing it clearly from the other options. Thus, Gravitational Waves is the correct choice.

UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 27
Under TRIPS protection for copyrights is for
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

The correct answer is 'option 4'

  • Article 7(1) of the Berne Convention (Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works on September 9, 1886) as incorporated into the TRIPS Agreement, the term of protection shall be the life of the author and 50 years after his death.

Therefore, the correct answer is '50 years after the death of the author'

Other Related Points

  • Paragraphs 2 through 4 of Article 7 specifically allow shorter terms in certain cases.
  • These provisions are supplemented by Article 12 of the TRIPS Agreement, which provides that whenever the term of protection of a work, other than a photographic work or a work of applied art, is calculated on a basis other than the life of a natural person, such term shall be no less than 50 years from the end of the calendar year of authorized publication, or, failing such authorized publication within 50 years from the making of the work, 50 years from the end of the calendar year of making.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Determine the efficiency of applied water using the following data:

A field measures 60 hectare. When 6 cumec of water was supplied for 12 hours to this field, 216mm of water was stored in root zone.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Concept:

1. Water Application efficiency

ηa = (Ws/Wf) × 100

Where Ws = Water Stored in root zone

Wf = Water delivered to the field

2. Water Conveyance efficiency

ηc = (Wf/Wr) × 100

Where Wf = Water delivered to the field

Wf = Water delivered from the reservoir (it includes losses from canals in form of seepage, evaporation etc.

3. Water Use efficiency

ηu = (Wu/Wf) × 100

Where Wu = Consumptive use of water

Wf = Water delivered to the field

4. Water storage efficiency

ηs = (Ws/Wfc) × 100

Where Ws’ = Actual water Stored in root zone

Wfc = Water needed to be stored to bring the water content up to the field capacity.

Calculation:

Water stored in the root zone = 216 mm

Area of field = 60 hectares = 600000 m2

Water supplied = 6 cumecs

Duration = 12 hours

Volume of water supplied = 12 × 6 × 3600 = 259200 m3

Water supplied (in cm) = (259200/600000) = 0.432 m = 432 mm

ηa = (Ws/Wf) × 100

ηa = (216/432) × 100 = 50 %
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 29
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a mechatronics system?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Explanation:

The mechatronics systems have many advantages:

  • High levels of integration
  • Increased functionality and better design(Flexibility)
  • More use of electronics and software instead of mechanical function
  • Assumes responsibility for process and operation with little interference of operators
  • Uses artificial intelligence and intelligent process control
  • Multisensory and programs environment
  • High reliability and safety
  • Improved and less expensive controls

The mechatronics systems have the following disadvantages:

  • The initial cost is very high.
  • The complicated design and system.
  • The repair and maintenance is complex as a result specific problems of various systems have to be addressed separately and properly
  • Its replacement is difficult, that is it is difficult to change old systems to new systems.
UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

A bar chart is drawn for

Detailed Solution for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Explanation:
Bar chart:

  • The bar chart is the technique of project management. It consists of two co-ordinate axes in which the time required for the completion of the activity is marked on the X-axis and actively involved in its execution of the project is marked on Y-axis in form of bars.
  • A bar chart consists of a number of vertically or horizontally placed bars and the length of the bars defines the relative magnitude of the values. It uses rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent. A Gantt chart is a horizontal bar chart used for project management

Characteristics of a bar chart:

  • The start and endpoints of the bar indicate the time of the finish and start time of the activity.
  • The length of the bar represents the time required for the completion of an activity.
  • The width of the bar does not signify anything i.e. it can be of any size.

Gantt Chart:

  • Gantt charts are mainly used to allocate resources to activities.
  • The resources allocated to activities include staff, hardware, and software. Gantt charts are useful for resource planning.
  • A Gantt chart is a special type of bar chart where each bar represents an activity.
  • This chart lists the tasks to be performed on the vertical axis, and time intervals on the horizontal axis.
  • The bars are drawn along a timeline. The length of each bar is proportional to the duration of time planned for the corresponding activity.
  • With the use of this chart, we can check the progress of the project with
    • A visual display of the whole project,
    • Timelines and deadlines of all tasks,
    • Relationships and dependencies between the various activities,
    • Project phases

View more questions
Information about UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for UPPSC AE Civil Prelims Mock Test - 2, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice
Download as PDF