CUET Exam  >  CUET Tests  >  CUET Mock Test Series  >  Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - CUET MCQ

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - CUET MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test CUET Mock Test Series - Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 for CUET 2025 is part of CUET Mock Test Series preparation. The Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the CUET exam syllabus.The Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for CUET 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 below.
Solutions of Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 questions in English are available as part of our CUET Mock Test Series for CUET & Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 solutions in Hindi for CUET Mock Test Series course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for CUET Exam by signing up for free. Attempt Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 | 50 questions in 45 minutes | Mock test for CUET preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study CUET Mock Test Series for CUET Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Pollination through animals is ________

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Zoophily is defined as pollination via animals. Insects are the most important animal pollinators. Birds, snails, bats, etc. also play an important role. Some lizards, lemurs, etc. also have proven to be important for pollination.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Arrange the following events of human embryo development in a correct sequence:

(A) Blastocyst formation

(B) Implantation

(C) Formation of morula

(D) Cleavage in zygote

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Key Points

  • The correct sequence of human embryo development starts with (D) Cleavage in zygote, which is the first step following fertilization. This process involves the division of the zygote into smaller, multicellular stages without the zygote increasing in size.
  • Following cleavage, the zygote develops into (C) the morula, a solid ball of cells.
  • As development continues, the morula transforms into (A) the blastocyst, a hollow ball of cells with an inner cell mass that eventually forms the embryo.
  • The final step in the sequence is (B) implantation, where the blastocyst attaches itself to the wall of the uterus.

The correct answer is option 2: (D), (C), (A), (B).

Additional Information

  • Option 1: (C), (D), (B), (A) is incorrect because it suggests that the morula forms before cleavage, which is not the correct order of development.
  • Option 3: (D), (B), (C), (A) incorrectly places implantation before the formation of the morula and blastocyst, which is not possible as implantation is the final step in this sequence.
  • Option 4: (A), (C), (D), (B) is incorrect as it suggests the blastocyst forms before cleavage and morula formation, which contradicts the actual developmental sequence.
Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Which one is not a barrier method for birth control?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) are not a barrier method for birth control. Barrier methods are designed to prevent sperm from entering the uterus, whereas IUDs work in a different manner.

Key Points

  • Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are all examples of barrier methods. They work by physically blocking sperm from entering the uterus.
  • Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs), on the other hand, are inserted into the uterus and work primarily by altering the uterine and cervical environment, making it inhospitable for sperm and, in some cases, preventing ovulation.

Additional Information

  • Barrier methods are often preferred by individuals looking for non-hormonal forms of birth control.
  • IUDs can be hormonal or non-hormonal (copper IUDs). Both types are highly effective forms of birth control but do not function as barrier methods.
Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 4
Amniocentesis is used to detect the:
Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Amniocentesis is a medical procedure used for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities and fetal infections. It involves extracting a small amount of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal tissues, for analysis.

Key Points

  • Amniocentesis is primarily used to detect the presence of certain genetic disorders. This includes conditions such as Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and spina bifida.

Additional Information

  • Sexually transmitted diseases: Amniocentesis is not typically used to detect sexually transmitted diseases. Such conditions are usually diagnosed through blood tests, urine tests, or swabs of the affected area.
  • Causes of infertility: Amniocentesis cannot be used to determine the causes of infertility. Infertility assessments usually involve a different set of tests for both men and women.
  • Presence of pneumonia germs: Although amniocentesis can detect some infections, it is not specifically used for diagnosing pneumonia in the fetus. Pneumonia diagnosis would typically involve chest X-rays or sputum tests in the suspected individual.
Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 5
What will be the number of genotypes and phenotypes obtained in F2 generation when male parent RRyy is crossed with female parent rrYY?
Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Key Points

  • In a cross between RRyy (round, yellow seeds) and rrYY (wrinkled, green seeds), the F1 generation will all be RrYy, exhibiting the dominant traits (round and green seeds).
  • The F2 generation, obtained by self-pollinating the F1 generation, will show a variety of genotypes due to the independent assortment and segregation of alleles during gamete formation.
  • When considering two traits controlled by two genes, each with two alleles (Rr and Yy), the Punnett square method predicts that 16 different genotypes can be formed in the F2 generation.
  • However, these 16 genotypes will only result in 4 different phenotypes because the traits are independently inherited and express complete dominance (round yellow, round green, wrinkled yellow, wrinkled green).
  • Therefore, the number of genotypes is 9 and the number of phenotypes is 4, which aligns with option 3.

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (16 genotypes and 4 phenotypes) incorrectly suggests a reversal in the number of genotypes and phenotypes.
  • Option 2 (4 genotypes and 16 phenotypes) also incorrectly reverses the numbers, and it is not possible to have more phenotypes than genotypes in this scenario.
  • Options 4 and 5 are not applicable as they either present incorrect combinations or are left blank.
  • The correct understanding of Mendelian genetics and the principles of dominance, segregation, and independent assortment is crucial for predicting the outcomes of genetic crosses.
Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 6
Which of the following genetic disorder is not a type of Mendelian disorder?
Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

Key Points

  • Down's syndrome is not a type of Mendelian disorder. It is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21), which is a type of chromosomal disorder.

Additional Information

  • Colour blindness is a Mendelian disorder linked to the X chromosome. It is commonly a result of the inability to perceive colors correctly, often red and green.
  • Haemophilia is another X-linked Mendelian disorder characterized by the inability of blood to clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding from even minor injuries.
  • Thalassaemia is a Mendelian genetic disorder affecting the blood, where the body makes an abnormal form of hemoglobin, resulting in excessive destruction of red blood cells and anemia.
Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 7
Find the correct pair:
Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

The correct answer is In vitro fertilization­ - Test tube baby

Key Points

  • A large number of couples worldwide, including India, are infertile, i.e., they are unable to produce children despite unprotected sexual cohabitation.
  • Specialized healthcare units (infertility clinics, etc.) could help diagnose and treat some of these disorders and enable these couples to have children.
  • Where such corrections are not possible, the couples could be assisted to have children through certain special techniques commonly known as assisted reproductive technologies (ART).

Explanation-

  • In vitro fertilisation(IVF) - fertilisation outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body.
  • In vivo fertilisation- fusion of gametes within the female.
  • After the fusion of gametes, the zygote is formed which reaches the 32-celled stages within 24 hrs.
  • Now, this embryo is transplanted in the normal uterus of same mother or surrogate mother for further development after the completion of the gestation period a normal child take birth.

Therefore The test-tube baby means fertilization in vitro and then transplantation in the uterus.

Additional Information

ZIFT - (zygote intrafallopian transfer)

  • The zygote or early embryos (with up to 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT–zygote intrafallopian transfer) and embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus (IUT – intrauterine transfer), to complete their further development.

IUD - An intrauterine device

  • An intrauterine device (IUD), also known as an intrauterine contraceptive device, is a small, flexible, plastic device shaped like the letter T.
  • It is inserted into the uterus by a healthcare provider and can remain in place for several years to prevent pregnancy.
  • Types of IUDs:
    • Hormonal IUD: Releases progestogen, which thickens cervical mucus, preventing sperm from reaching the fallopian tubes. It may also partially prevent ovulation.
    • Copper IUD: Contains no hormones but releases copper ions, toxic to sperm. It also causes the uterus and fallopian tubes to produce fluid toxic to sperm.
    • Emergency Contraception: Copper IUDs can be used as emergency contraception within five days of unprotected sex.
Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 8
The cells involved in inflammatory reactions are
Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 8
Key Points
  • Inflammation is a signal when the body sends cells to defend against an irritant, an allergen, or a pathogen.
  • The signs of inflammation include heat, redness in the skin, swelling, pain, etc.
  • It is an important part of the body's immune system defenses.
  • The cells involved in inflammatory reactions are basophils.
  • Basophils are one of the granulocytes of white blood cells.
  • The other two granulocytes are neutrophils and eosinophils.
  • Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory reactions.
  • Basophils contain cytoplasmic granules and the nucleus has two lobes.
  • They play a role in both parasitic infections and allergies.

Additional Information

  • Neutrophils:
    • These are granulocytes, a type of white blood cell.
    • Neutrophils are the most abundant cells (60-65
      percent) of the total WBCs.
    • Neutrophils are phagocytic cells that destroy foreign organisms entering the body.
  • Eosinophils:
    • These are granulocytes, a type of white blood cell.
    • Eosinophils prevent infections and are also associated with allergic reactions.
  • Lymphocytes:
    • These are agranulocytes, a type of white blood cell.
    • Lymphocytes are of two major types - B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes.
    • Both B and T lymphocytes are responsible for the immune responses of the body.

​​Hence, the correct option is (1) Basophils.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 9
The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a particular area are called
Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

The correct answer is Sere.

Key Points

  • The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area is called Sere.
  • The individual transitional communities are termed seral stages or seral communities.
  • In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms, an increase in the number of species and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass.

Important Points

  • Ecological succession:
    • The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession.
    • During succession, some species colonise an area and their populations become more numerous, whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear.
Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Which one of the following will represent low stability and high resilience?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

The correct answer is An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops

  • Low Stability: Stability in an ecosystem refers to its ability to resist change or disturbance. In this case, the ecosystem described can be easily damaged, indicating low stability. This means that even minor disturbances or stresses can disrupt its structure and function.
  • High Resilience: Resilience is the ability of an ecosystem to recover and return to its original state after being disturbed. The ecosystem described in option 1 can recover after some time if the damaging effect stops. This demonstrates high resilience because despite being easily damaged, it has the capacity to bounce back and restore itself.

In summary, option 1 represents an ecosystem that is prone to damage (low stability) but has the ability to recover effectively (high resilience). This combination of characteristics is typical of ecosystems that are subject to frequent disturbances but can adapt and regenerate over time.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

When environmental conditions are favorable, then the population growth curve will be

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

Concept:

  • Growth models help us understand if the growth of any population over time follows a particular pattern or not.
  • This also helps us to understand several other attributes of the population.
  • Growth models explain 2 types of growth curves:
    • Exponential - This takes place when the resources are unlimited and the population keeps growing.
    • Logistic - This is a growth model that takes the limitations of resources into account.

Key Points

  • A 'J-shaped' curve represents an exponential growth curve.
  • Such cases where the population keeps growing exponentially is known as exponential growth.
  • Exponential growth takes place when the environmental conditions are favorable and the resources available are unlimited.
  • Under such ideal conditions, the species are able to realize their full growth potential.
  • This results in an increased reproductive ability leading to exponential growth of the population.
  • When the population density (N) is plotted against time (t), it produces a J-shaped curve for exponential or geometric growth.

It can be denoted by the equation:

where, N = Population Density,

= Rate of change of population density.

Here, 'r' represents the intrinsic rate of natural increase, which is the difference between the per capita birth and death (b-d).

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

What do the Leydig cells secrete?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

The areas on the exterior of the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces, contain small blood vessels and small clusters of big, polygonal cells called Leydig cells or interstitial cells. Leydig cells synthesize and secrete hormones (testicular) called androgens.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Among the following, which one is not included in the female external genitalia?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

The female external genitalia include mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen and clitoris. The vagina is a fibro-muscular tube measuring 7.5-10cm in length, extending from the cervix of the uterus to the vestibule on the outer side.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

What kind of tissue is the mammary gland mainly made of?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

A functional mammary gland is distinctive of all female mammals. The mammary glands are paired structures (breasts) that contains the glandular tissue and variable amounts of fat.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

_______ is one of the most common families that are pollinated by animals.

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Zoophilous flowers are often adapted to be pollinated by particular type of animals. Bees and butterflies pollinate the maximum number of flowering plants. The two common families pollinated by them are Asteraceae and Lamiaceae.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

The growth, maintenance and functioning of secondary sex organs is maintained by the ____

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

The Correct Answer is A: testosterone

Testosterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the growth, maintenance, and functioning of secondary sex organs in males. It is primarily produced by the Leydig cells in the testes.

Testosterone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics such as the growth of facial and body hair, deepening of the voice, and enlargement of the testes and penis during puberty. It also promotes the growth and maintenance of other reproductive structures such as the seminal vesicles, which produce seminal fluid, and the prostate gland.

Additionally, testosterone is involved in regulating sexual function and libido, sperm production, and the overall well-being and vitality of males. It influences the maintenance of muscle mass and bone density and plays a role in red blood cell production.

In summary, testosterone is essential for the growth, maintenance, and functioning of secondary sex organs and is vital for the overall development and reproductive health of males.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair _______

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair. The female external genitalia include mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Glandular tissues contain _____ at the ends.

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

The mammary glands are made of glandular tissue. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters of cells called alveoli.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Pollination by insects is called _____

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Entomophily is a common type of zoophily wherein the pollen grains of mature anthers of a flower are transferred to a mature stigma of another flower through insects like beetles, moths, butterflies, wasps, bees, etc.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Where does the vas deferens emerge from?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

A 40cm long vas deferens emerges from the cauda epididymis on each side and leaves the scrotal sac and enters the abdominal cavity through the inguinal canal.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Finger-like structure above the urethral opening is called ______

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

The clitoris is a tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening. It is erectile and highly sensitive and is equivalent to the male penis.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

What do the alveoli secrete?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

The cells of alveoli secrete milk, which is stored in the cavities (lumens) of alveoli. Bile is secreted by the liver that helps digest lipids. Sweat is secreted by the sweat glands to maintain body temperature.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Which of the following has attractive bracts?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Other parts of the flower become showy when petals aren’t attractive. Bougainvillea is known for its showy bracts, leaves in Euphoria pulcherrima, stamens in mimosa, spathes in aroids, etc.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Why does the end of the vas deferens dilate?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

The vas deferens loops over the urinary bladder where it is joined by duct from the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct. The end of the vas deferens dilates to form a spindle-like ampulla for temporary storage of sperm.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Which of the following is not an example of sub aerial vegetative propagation?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Bulbils, also called vegetative propagation by flower buds is not an example of sub aerial vegetative propagation. It produces multicellular fleshy buds that give rise to new plants. Example, Agave.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

What does the alveoli open into?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

The alveoli open into mammary tubules. The tubules of each lobe join to form a mammary duct. Breasts are made up of glandular tissue.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Which flower has a flytrap mechanism?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Flowers attract insects in different ways. One way is by producing a smell. Pleasant odors and fragrances attract bees and butterflies. Foul smells attract flies and beetles. Rafflesia produces a foul smell which attracts flies. This is also known as the fly trap mechanism.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

The free end of vas deferentia bears?

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

The vas deferens is lined with pseudostratified columnar epithelium. The free end of its cells also bears stereocilia. The muscular wall of the vas deferens is formed of smooth muscles, and the latter’s peristaltic contractions propel the sperms through the vas deferens.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

_______ glands are present on either side of the vaginal orifice.

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

The Bartholin’s glands or Vestibular glands are two bean shaped glands, one on either side of the vaginal orifice. These glands secrete a clear, viscous fluid under sexual excitement.

Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Mammary ducts join and form a wider mammary______

Detailed Solution for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

The alveoli opens into mammary tubules. The tubules of each lobe join to form a mammary duct. Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla which is connected to lactiferous duct through which milk is sucked out.

View more questions
8 docs|148 tests
Information about Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for Biology: CUET Mock Test - 2, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice
Download as PDF