Act And Policies


13 Questions MCQ Test | Act And Policies


Description
This mock test of Act And Policies for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 13 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC Act And Policies (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Act And Policies quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this Act And Policies exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Act And Policies extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1) State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought.
2) Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Explanation:
Environment Protection Act 1986

  • In the wake of the Bhopal tragedy, the government of India enacted the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986.
  • To protect and improve environmental qualities.
  • To establish an authority to study, plan and implement long term requirements of environmental safety.

Section 3: Central Government shall have the power to take all such measures as it deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing, controlling and abating environmental pollution.

The act does not mention about requirement of public participation. Hence option 1 is wrong. (however, sec 3 can be close to option 1 as it empowers central government to do so. Hence need to wait for the official key) Section 3-2 (iv) Central Government may lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources whatsoever. Hence option 2 is correct
Educational Objective: Indian constitution have very few provisions relating to the environment. Hence, all the Environmental legislations of Indian parliament becomes important. One such act is Environmental Protection Act of 1986.

QUESTION: 2

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

Solution:

Explanation:

Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) was constituted under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) as the apex body under the ‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989’ in accordance with the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
Hence answer is option C
About GEAC

  • The ministry’s Special Secretary/Additional Secretary is the Chairman of the GEAC.
  • Currently, the GEAC has twenty-four members and meets once every month to carry out its prescribed activities.

Functions
To appraise activities involving the large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. To appraise proposals relating to release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials. The committee or any persons authorized by it has powers to take punitive action under the Environment Protection Act.
Educational Objective: to have knowledge regarding organisations that deal with Environmental laws. And also to know from where the organisation derive powers from. Whether statutory or executive.

  1. The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
  2.  It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that thewaste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
QUESTION: 3

As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

Explanation:
Solid Waste Management Rules 2016
These rules replace the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000, are now applicable beyond municipal areas and have included urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships etc.
Hence option b is wrong
The new rules have mandated the source segregation of waste in order to channelize the waste to wealth by recovery, reuse and recycle. Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams (hence option a is wrong)- Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector.
Rules specifies criteria for site selection, development of facilities at the sanitary landfills, specifications for land filling operations and closure on completion of land filling, pollution prevention, Closure and Rehabilitation of Old Dumps, specifies Criteria for special provisions for hilly areas. So, C is correct.
There is no mention of district waste management requirement, so D is wrong.
Educational Objective:
To know the provisions of various pollution related rules and laws like plastic waste management rules, construction and demolition waste management rules, e waste management rules etc.

QUESTION: 4

In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

Solution:

Explanation:
E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016

The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change notified the E-Waste Management Rules, 2016 in supersession of the e-waste (Management & Handling) Rules, 2011.
Making the norms stringent, the new E-waste rules included Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamps, as well as other such equipments.
For the first time, the rules brought the producers under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), along with targets. Hence option C is correct.
Producers have been made responsible for collection of E-waste and for its exchange.
Various producers can have a separate Producer Responsibility Organisation (PRO) and ensure collection of E-waste, as well as its disposal in an environmentally sound manner.
Educational Objective: to have knowledge about the highlights of all the waste management Rules like plastic waste, e waste, solid waste, construction and demolition waste  etc.

QUESTION: 5

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
1) Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.
2) Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Explanation:
Article 21 is the most widely interpreted Article in the Indian Constitution.
Supreme Court in number of cases including Menaka Gandhi Case have widened the scope of the article to include many natural rights in it. One such right is Right to healthy Environment. Parliament of India have enacted NGT Act 2010, in order to implement the provisions of this 
article.
Hence option 1 is correct.
Article 275(1) deals with the grants to the states. The funds are released to the State Governments against specific projects for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and   strengthening of administration of tribal areas.
Here Option 2 is correct but NGT ACT IS NOT enacted in consonance with Article 275(1). Hence option 2 in this question is wrong.
Educational Objective: To know about the important legislations relating to the Environment and their relation provisions in the constitution of India.

QUESTION: 6

According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1) Gharial
2) Indian wild ass
3) Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:

Explanation:
All the three animals come under Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972. Hence, these are given absolute protection from hunting, except under some provisions provided by law.
Educational Objective: to have knowledge abot the conservation status of various animals thatare often seen in news.

QUESTION: 7

In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?

Solution:

Explanation:
Wild Life Protection Act (Wpa) – Schedules
Tiger in India is placed under Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.
The act provides for six schedules to regulate the trade on animals.

Educational Objective: To have idea about the degree of protection that various animals enjoy under Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.

QUESTION: 8

Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

Solution:

Explanation:
Forest Rights Act, 2006

The act recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation in Forest land in forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDST) and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD)who have been residing in such forests for generations
It identifies 4 rights

  1. Title rights
  2. Use rights
  3. Relief and development rights
  4. Forest management rights

​Allocation of these rights Gram sabha (full village assembly, NOT the gram panchayat) makes a recommendation – i.e., who has been cultivating land for how long, which minor forest produce is collected, etc. Hence, answer is option D
Educational Objective: Tribes and their rights is one of the hot topics for UPSC. In this regard everything about tribes becomes important fo the exam.

QUESTION: 9

Consider the following statements:
1) The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2) For the first time in India, Biogas has been given Habitat Rights.
3) Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Explanation:
The Critical Wildlife Habitats have been envisaged in Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.Hence option 1 is right.
In a bid to undo historical injustice meted out to primitive tribal communities living in central India, the government of Madhya Pradesh has for the first time recognised the habitat rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baiga.
Baigatribals became India's first community to get habitat rights. ... The tribe numbers only 150,000 people spread over forested areas of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.  For several decades, the Baigas were discriminated against and often evicted from forest areas by government agencies. Option 2 is correct.
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is implementing the ―Scheme of Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). It aims at planning their socio-economic development in a comprehensive manner while retaining the culture and heritage of the community. Hence option 3 is wrong
Educational Objective: Forest Rights Act is one of the landmark legislations in India for granting rights to the tribes. Hence all the provisions of the act are important for the exam.

QUESTION: 10

Consider the following statements:
1) As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on the forest areas.
2) As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3) The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2003 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Explanation:
The Parliament brought an amendment to exclude bamboo from the definition of tree under the Indian Forest Act, claiming it would improve the earnings of tribals and dwellers living around forests.
The amendment permits felling and transit of bamboo grown in non-forest areas. However, bamboo grown on forest lands would continue to be classified as a tree and would be guided by the existing legal restrictions. Hence option 1 is wrong.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers Act, 2003 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers and bamboo is a minor forest produce as per the act. Hence option 2 and 3 is correct.
Educational Objective: To have knowledge about the rights of tribes as per the forest dwellers rights Act and the recent amendment brought to it.

QUESTION: 11

​Consider the following statements:
1) Under Ramsar convention, it is mandatory on the part of the government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2) The wetlands (conservation and management) rules, 2010 were framed by Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar convention.
3) The wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Explanation:
Ramsar Convention It is an international treaty for “the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands”. It is also known as the Convention on Wetlands.
Ramsar philosophy is “wise use” of wetlands.
At the time of joining the Convention, each Contracting Party undertakes to designate at least one wetland site (not all the sites. Hence option 1 is wrong) for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International Importance.
The inclusion of a “Ramsar Site” in the List embodies the government’s commitment to take the steps necessary to ensure that its ecological character is maintained.
The Ministry of Environment and Forests, recognising the importance of having a legal framework for the preservation and management of wetlands in India, drew up a draft Regulatory Framework drawing upon the recommendation of a wide spectrum of experts and stakeholders.
These rules were not based on Ramsar Convention. Hence option 2 is wrong Educational Objective: wetlands are the most important ecosystems that help in large Carbon Sink. Hence conservation efforts towards wetlands both national and international are important for the examination point of view.

QUESTION: 12

If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, howwill it impact the country?
1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste-water.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore- wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government
Select the correct answer using the codes

Solution:

Explanation:
National Water Mission: It is one of the eight missions launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) for combating the threats of global warming.
Objectives of the National Water Mission are, Increase water use efficiency by 20% through regulations, differential entitlements and pricing. A considerable share of water needs of urban areas is to be met through recycling of wastewater. Hence statement 1 is correct
Water requirements of coastal cities are to be met through the adoption of low-temperature desalination technologies. Hence, statement 2 is correct
Consult with states to ensure that basin-level management strategies are made to deal with variability in rainfall and river flows due to climate change.
Enhance storage above and below ground, implement rainwater harvesting.
Adopt large scale irrigation programmes which rely on sprinklers, drip irrigation and ridge and furrow irrigation.
Educational Objective: To know about impact of National Water Mission.

QUESTION: 13

With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:
1) Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2) Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
3) Customs Act, 1962
4) Indian Forest Act, 1927
Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?

Solution:

Explanation:
Totally there 35 Acts that are legislated by the Indian Parliament that deal with Biodiversity in one or the other way. All the above 4 Acts Deal with the conservation of Biodiversity.While Option 2 and 4 are very certain to deal with the biodiversity, the other two options also deal with Biodiversity indirectly. E.g both the acts deal with entering of Alien Species (Invasive Species) from other countries.
Educational Objective: To have knowledge about various Environmental Legislations of Indian Parliament that deals with conservation of Nature.

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