Daily Current Affairs MCQ - April 24, 2021


10 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly | Daily Current Affairs MCQ - April 24, 2021


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QUESTION: 1

Consider the following statements regarding Sheep Pox:

1. It is also known as hog cholera.

2. The virus of sheep pox is closely related to the virus of lumpy skin disease.

3. The disease is confined to Asia only.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:
  • Sheep Pox is a severe viral disease in Sheep and its virus is closely related to the Goat (capripoxviruses).
    • Classical Swine Fever (CSF) is also known as hog cholera. It is an important disease of pigs. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The virus is also related to the virus of lumpy skin disease. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The disease is very serious, often fatal, characterized by widespread skin eruption.
  • It is confined to parts of southeastern Europe, Africa, and Asia. 
QUESTION: 2

With reference to Malaria, consider the following statements:

1. E-2025 is a program launched by WHO to globally eradicate malaria by 2025.

2. Parasites causing malaria multiply within the liver cells.

3. It is both curable and preventable.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The WHO has also identified 25 countries with the potential to eradicate malaria by 2025 under its ‘E-2025 Initiative’. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    • In 2017, WHO launched the E-2020 initiative to support a group of countries to achieve zero indigenous cases of malaria by 2020.
    • Building on the successes of the E-2020, WHO has identified a new group of 25 countries that have the potential to stamp out malaria within a 5-year timeline.
  • After entering the human body, parasites initially multiply within the liver cells and then attack the Red Blood Cells (RBCs) resulting in their rupture. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It is preventable as well as curable. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
QUESTION: 3

With reference to the Harlequin Ichthyosis disorder, consider the following statements:

1. It is a rare genetic skin disorder to a newborn infant.

2. This disorder affects only male population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Harlequin Ichthyosis is a rare genetic skin disorder to a newborn infant. It’s a type of ichthyosis, which refers to a group of disorders that cause persistently dry, scaly skin all over the body. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.
  • It can be caused by changes (mutations) in the ABCA12 gene.
    • Newborn infants are covered with plates of thick skin that crack and split apart and can restrict breathing and eating.
    • Premature birth is typical, leaving the infants at risk for complications from early delivery.
  • Affected Population:
    • It affects males and females in equal numbers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • It affects approximately one in 5,00,000 persons.
    • There are around 250 such cases across the world.
  • Treatment:
    • A newborn with Harlequin ichthyosis requires neonatal intensive care, which may include spending time in a heated incubator with high humidity.
QUESTION: 4

Consider the following statements:

1. Notre Dame Global Adaptation Initiative (ND-GAIN) is part of the Climate Change Adaptation Program of UNFCCC.

2. ND-GAIN's Country Index shows which countries are best prepared to deal with global changes brought about by overcrowding, resource-constraints and climate disruption.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Notre Dame Global Adaptation Initiative (ND-GAIN) is part of the Climate Change Adaptation Program of the University of Notre Dame's Environmental Change initiative (ND-ECI). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • ND-GAIN's Country Index shows which countries are best prepared to deal with global changes brought about by overcrowding, resource-constraints and climate disruption. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The Country Index uses 20 years of data to rank more than 180 countries annually based on their vulnerability and, uniquely, how ready they are to adapt.
    • Vulnerability is considered in six life-supporting sectors – food, water, health, ecosystem service, human habitat and infrastructure.
    • Overall readiness is measured by considering three components – economic readiness, governance readiness and social readiness.
QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Group – 4’ (G4) nations.

1. G4 nations are group of four countries which support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council.

2. G4 nations includes Brazil, India, Australia and Japan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The G4 nations comprising Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan are four countries which support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council. Unlike the G7, where the common denominator is the economy and long-term political motives, the G4’s primary aim is the permanent member seats on the Security Council.

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements regarding Ocean Energy.

1. Various forms of ocean energy include tidal, wave and ocean thermal energy.

2. Ocean Energy is considered as renewable energy and is eligible for meeting the non-solar Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO).

3. In India, Ocean Energy capacity is installed in Khambat & Kutch regions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has declared Ocean Energy as renewable energy.

The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has clarified to all the stakeholders that energy produced using various forms of ocean energy such as tidal, wave, ocean thermal energy conversion among others shall be considered as renewable energy and shall be eligible for meeting the non-solar Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO).

As of date, there is not any installed Ocean Energy capacity in India.

According to MNRE, the total identified potential of tidal energy is about 12,455 MW, with potential locations identified at Khambat & Kutch regions, and large backwaters, where barrage technology could be used. The total theoretical potential of wave energy in India along the country’s coast is estimated to be about 40,000 MW – these are preliminary estimates. This energy is however less intensive than what is available in more northern and southern latitudes. Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) has a theoretical potential of 180,000 MW in India subject to suitable technological evolution.

QUESTION: 7

Litigants approach Lok Adalats mainly because it is a party-driven process, allowing them to reach an amicable settlement. Which of the following are the attributes of Lak Adalats?

1. Speed of settlement of cases

2. Procedural flexibility

3. Economic affordability

4. Finality of awards

Select the correct answer code:

Solution:

Litigants are forced to approach Lok Adalats mainly because it is a party-driven process, allowing them to reach an amicable settlement. When compared to litigation, and even other dispute resolution devices, such as arbitration and mediation, Lok Adalats offer parties speed of settlement, as cases are disposed of in a single day; procedural flexibility, as there is no strict application of procedural laws such as the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; economic affordability, as there are no court fees for placing matters before the Lok Adalat; finality of awards, as no further appeal is allowed. This prevents delays in settlement of disputes. More importantly, the award issued by a Lok Adalat, after the filing of a joint compromise petition, has the status of a civil court decree.

QUESTION: 8

Who will represent India in the 2021 World Cities Cultural Forum (WCCF)?

Solution:

Arvind Kejriwal, Chief Minister of Delhi will be representing Delhi and India at the World Cities Cultural Forum (WCCF) 2021. The Forum comprises 40 world cities including London, Tokyo and New York.The WCCF 2021 Forum was hosted by London. The theme of WCCF 2021 is "The Future of Culture".

QUESTION: 9

Which is the 1st state/UT in India to draft a Cycling Policy?

Solution:

Chandigarh has released a first of its kind draft cycling policy, this is the first time for a city to draft a cycling policy in India. The draft recognises cycling as one of the environment friendly and quickest modes of transport in urban areas.

QUESTION: 10

Recently the central government promulgated an ordinanceallowing the use of pre-packs as an insolvency resolution mechanism for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) with defaults up to Rs 1 crore, under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. Consider the following statements regarding Pre-packs.

1. A pre-pack is the resolution of the debt of a distressed company through an agreement between creditors and investors wherein creditors will agree to terms with a potential investor and seek approval of the resolution plan from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).

2. A resolution professional takes control of management of the debtor in the case of pre-packs.

3. The pre-pack mechanism allows for a swiss challenge for any resolution plans.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The central government has promulgated an ordinance allowing the use of pre-packs as an insolvency resolution mechanism for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) with defaults up to Rs 1 crore, under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.

A pre-pack is the resolution of the debt of a distressed company through an agreement between secured creditors and investors instead of a public bidding process.

Under the pre-pack system, financial creditors will agree to terms with a potential investor and seek approval of the resolution plan from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).

What are the benefits of pre-packs over the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP)?

  • One of the key criticisms of the CIRP has been the time taken for resolution.  At the end of December 2020, over 86 per cent of the 1717 ongoing insolvency resolution proceedings had crossed the 270-day threshold. One of the key reasons behind delays in the CIRPs are prolonged litigations by erstwhile promoters and potential bidders.
  • The pre-pack in contrast is limited to a maximum of 120 days with only 90 days available to the stakeholders to bring the resolution plan to the NCLT.
  • Another key difference between pre-packs and CIRP is that the existing management retains control in the case of pre-packs while a resolution professional takes control of the debtor as a representative of financial creditors in the case of CIRP.

The pre-pack mechanism allows for a swiss challenge for any resolution plans which proved less than full recovery of dues for operational creditors. Under the swiss challenge mechanism, any third party would be permitted to submit a resolution plan for the distressed company and the original applicant would have to either match the improved resolution plan or forego the investment.