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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - UPSC MCQ


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10 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024

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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 1

Consider the following:

  1. India
  2. Sri Lanka
  3. Maldives
  4. Myanmar

How many of the above countries participate in Exercise Dosti?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 1

Indian and Sri Lankan coast guard ships reached the Maldives recently to take part in the trilateral coast guard exercise Dosti 16.

About Exercise Dosti:

  • It is a trilateral coast guard exercise between India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.
  • It is a biennial exercise.
  • It was first conducted in 1991between the Indian and Maldives Coast Guards.
  • Sri Lanka joined the exercise for the first time in 2012. Dosti was last conducted in 2021.
  • The exercises have focused on exercises and drills on providing assistance in sea accidents, eliminating sea pollution, and the coast guard’s procedures and conduct during situations such as oil spills.
  • The aim of the exercise is to further fortify the friendshipenhance mutual operational capability, exercise interoperability and build cooperation between the Coast Guards of India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives. 
  • Dosti 16:
  • It is the 16th edition of the exercise.
  • The Coast Guards of the Maldives, India, and Sri Lanka, along with observers from Bangladesh, is participating in Dosti 16 to enhance collaboration between the forces.
  • India is sending ICGS Samarth (with integral helo), ICGS Abhinav, and ICG Dornier for the exercise.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 2

Which of the following organisations releases the World Tourism Index? 

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 2

The organisation that releases the “World Tourism Index” is the World Economic Forum. They publish the Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Report, which includes the World Tourism Index as a part of their assessment of the competitiveness of countries in the travel and tourism sector. India, with a score of 4.2, ranks 54th out of 117 countries 

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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding Union Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS):

  1. It makes all the important decisions on policy and expenditure related to defence.
  2. It is headed by the Minister of Defence, Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 3

The Cabinet Committee on Security recently cleared the acquisition of over 200 BrahMos extended-range supersonic cruise missiles for deployment on its warships.

About Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS):

  • CCS is headed by the Prime Minister.
  • The Committee discusses, debates, and is the apex body when it comes to the appointments of the officials in the national security bodies.
  • It also makes all the important decisions on defence policy and expenditure and, generally, all matters of India’s security.
  • Members:
  • Prime Minister of India
  • Union Minister of Defence
  • Union Minister of Home Affairs
  • Union Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs
  • Union Minister of External Affairs
  • Functions:
  • The CCS deals with all the issues related to the defence and security of India.
  • The CCS deals with all issues related to the law and order of our country and national security.
  • It discusses different initiatives to take to enhance the national security of India.
  • It also deals with policy matters of foreign affairs which may have a bearing on internal or external security implications, including cases relating to agreements with other countries on security-related issues.
  • The Committee discusses the political issues which can impact the security of our nation.
  • It reviews the conditions and the manpower of the national security bodies and makes the required changes to increase national security.
  • The CCS considers each case that involves a capital expenditure of more than Rs 1,000 crore in respect of the Department of Defence Production and Department of Defence Research and Development.
  • It also deals with every issue related to atomic energy and also considers cases of an increase in the firmed-up cost estimates or revised cost estimates.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 4

Consider the following organisation:

  1. Life Insurance Corporation (LIC)
  2. General Insurance Corporation (GIC)
  3. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) 

Arrange the above organisations chronologically according to their formation:

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 4
  • In 1956, with the enactment of the Life Insurance Corporation of India Act, LIC was founded by merging over 245 insurance companies and provident societies (both Indian and foreign).
  • General Insurance Corporation (GIC) was incorporated on November 22, 1972, under the Companies Act, 1956.
  • Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) was introduced in 1978 after the merger of Deposit Insurance Corporation and Creclit Guarantee Corporation. Its aim is to protect depositors and ensure financial stability so that confidence in the banking system can be enhanced.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 5

What is ‘Tupolev Tu-160M’, recently seen in the news?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 5

The Russian President recently unveiled the newly modernised Tupolev Tu-160M nuclear-capable strategic bomber at Kazan Aviation Plant. 

About Tupolev Tu-160M:

  • The Tu-160M, a modernized version of a Cold War-era bomber that the former Soviet Union would have deployed in the event of nuclear war to deliver weapons at long distances.
  • It is a Russian supersonic variable-sweep wing strategic missile-carrying bomber.
  • It is called "White Swan” in Russia, and is code-named “Blackjacks” by NATO.
  • Russia claims it is the world’s fastest-flying supersonic and heaviest payload-carrying bomber.
  • It is designed to hit targets in remote areas with nuclear and conventional weapons.
  • Features:
  • The Tu-160M, which has a crew of four, is capable of carrying 12 cruise missiles or 12 short-range nuclear missiles.
  • It can fly 12,000km (7,500 miles) non-stop without refueling.
  • It is powered by four afterburning turbofan engines.
  • It has a maximum speed of 2,220 kilometers per hour and ascends to heights of 16,000 meters. 
  • It showcases features like an innovative navigation system, an upgraded radar, and even a refueling probe for in-flight refuelling, which further extends its range. 

Hence option b is the correct answer.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 6

With reference to the Species Diversity, consider the following statements: 

  1. The regions abundant in species diversity are referred to as diversity hotspots.
  2. It encompasses the diversity of ecological processes occurring within each type of ecosystem.
  3. Tropical rainforests are characterised by high species diversity.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 6
  • Statement 1 is correct: Species Diversity  refers to the variety of species. It relates to the number of species in a defined area. The diversity of species can be measured through its richness, abundance and types. Some areas are more rich in species than others. Areas rich in species diversity are called hotspots of diversity.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ecosystem diversity (not species diversity) encompasses the broad differences between ecosystems, and the diversity of the habitats and ecological processes occurring within each ecosystem type. It refers to the presence of different types of ecosystems. For instance, the tropical south India with rich species diversity will have altogether different structure compared to the desert ecosystem which has far less number of plant and animal species.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Tropical rainforests have high species diversity because they have highly developed niche opportunities and habitats. The warm and humid climate offers ideal conditions for a multitude of plant and animal species to flourish. The canopy system of tropical rainforests further increases diversity by creating new niches in the form of new sources of food, new shelters, new hiding places, and new areas for interaction with other species.  
Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding Anti-hydrogen Experiment: Gravity, Interferometry, Spectroscopy (AEgIS):

  1. It is a collaboration of physicists from Europe and India.
  2. Its aim is to measure the Earth's gravitational acceleration on antihydrogen.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 7

In a first, an international team of physicists from the Anti-hydrogen Experiment: Gravity, Interferometry, Spectroscopy (AEgIS) collaboration has achieved a breakthrough by demonstrating the laser cooling of Positronium.

About Anti-hydrogen Experiment: Gravity, Interferometry, Spectroscopy (AEgIS):

  • It is an experiment approved by CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research) with the goal of studying antihydrogen physics.
  • The primary goal of AEgIS is the direct measurement of the Earth's gravitational acceleration, g, on antihydrogen.
  • Once performed this could be the first direct test of the gravitational interaction between matter and antimatter. 
  • AEgIS is a collaboration of physicists from a number of countries in Europe and from India.

What is Antimatter?

  • Antimatter is the same as ordinary matter except that it has the opposite electric charge.
  • It is also known as “mirror” matter.
  • For instance, an electron, which has a negative charge, has an antimatter partner known as a positron. A positron is a particle with the same mass as an electron but a positive charge. 
  • The antimatter particles corresponding to electrons, protons, and neutrons are called positrons, antiprotons, and antineutrons; collectively they are referred to as antiparticles.
  • These anti-particles can combine to form anti-atoms and, in principle, could even form anti-matter regions of our universe.
  • Matter and antimatter cannot coexist at close range for more than a small fraction of a second because they collide with and annihilate each other, releasing large quantities of energy in the form of gamma rays or elementary particles.
  • Antimatter was created along with matter after the Big Bang.
  • Humans have created antimatter particles using ultra-high-speed collisions at huge particle accelerators such as the Large Hadron Collider, which is located outside Geneva and operated by CERN (the European Organization for Nuclear Research).
  • There are also naturally produced antiparticles made sporadically throughout the universe.

Hence both statements are correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 8

With reference to the IUCN threat categories, consider the following statements: 

  1. The IUCN Red List is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of both plant and animal species.
  2. A taxon facing a high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate future is classified in the vulnerable category.
  3. The Indian Flapshell Turtle is categorised as critically endangered by the IUCN.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 8
  • Statement 1 is correct:  The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species. The IUCN Red List Categories define the extinction risk of species assessed. The IUCN Red List is a rich compendium of information on threats, ecological requirements, and habitats of species; and on conservation actions that can be taken to reduce or prevent extinctions. It is based on an objective system for assessing the risk of extinction of a species based on past, present, and projected threats.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the IUCN, a taxon is critically endangered when it is facing high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate future. This designation signifies that the population of the taxon has dwindled to a critical level, and urgent conservation actions are required to prevent its extinction. 
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Indian flapshell turtle is a freshwater species of turtle found in South Asia. The Indian flapshell turtle is characterised by its unique flap-like, hinged shell, which gives it its name. Indian flapshell turtles are omnivorous in nature. It is categorised as Vulnerable by the IUCN.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 9

With reference to Badami Chalukyas, consider the following statements:

  1. They ruled over the central Indian plateau of the Deccan between the 6th and 12th centuries.
  2. They promoted a new style of architecture known as Vesara.
  3. Hiuen-Tsiang, a Chinese traveller, had visited the court of Pulakesi II.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 9

Two Badami Chalukya temples at least 1,300-1,500 years old and a 1,200-year-old label inscription were recently discovered in Mudimanikyam village along the banks of Krishna.

About Chalukya dynasty:

  • The Chalukyas ruled over the central Indian plateau of the Deccan between the sixth and twelfth centuries.
  • During that period, they ruled as three closely related but individual dynasties.
  • The Chalukyas of Badami, who ruled between the sixth and the eighth centuries, and the two sibling dynasties of the Chalukyas of Kalyani, or the Western Chalukyas, and the Chalukyas of Vengi, or the Eastern Chalukyas.

Key Facts about Badami Chalukyas:

  • Origin:
  • Pulakesi I established the Chalukya dynasty around in 550.
  • Pulakesi I took Vatapi (Badami in Bagalkot district, Karnataka) under his control and made it his capital.
  • Historians refer to Pulakesi I and his descendants as the Chalukyas of Badami.
  • They ruled over an empire that comprised the entire state of Karnataka and most of Andhra Pradesh in the Deccan.
  • Pulakesi II had been perhaps the greatest emperor of the Badami Chalukyas.
  • Pulakesi II extended the Chalukya Empire up to the northern extents of the Pallava kingdom and halted the southward march of Harsha by defeating him on the banks of the river Narmada. 
  • He then defeated the Vishnukundins in the southeastern Deccan.
  • Pallava Narasimhavarman reversed that victory by attacking and occupying the Chalukya capital, Vatapi (Badami).
  • Hiuen-Tsiang, a Chinese traveller, had visited the court of Pulakesi II.
  • Later, Persian emperor Khosrau II exchanged ambassadors with Pulakesi II.
  • Art and Architecture:
  • It saw the evolution and proliferation of a new style of architecture known as Vesara, a combination of the South Indian and the North Indian building styles. 
  • The rock-cut temples of Pattadakal, a UNESCO World Heritage SiteBadami, and Aihole constitute their most celebrated monuments.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 10

With reference to the Biological Hotspots, consider the following statements: 

  1. Biodiversity hotspots are regions with a high degree of species endemism.
  2. There are less than five biodiversity hotspots in India.
  3. These hotspots are recognised under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- February 23, 2024 - Question 10

Statement 1 is correct: In 1988, the British biologist Norman Myers introduced the concept of a “biodiversity hotspot”. Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high species richness and a high degree of species endemism.  These regions contain an enumerable number of different flora and fauna. In addition to having a large number of species, biodiversity hotspots are characterised by a significant number of species that are endemic to that specific region. Endemism means that these species are found nowhere else in the world and are uniquely adapted to the particular conditions and ecosystems of the hotspot. 

Statement 2 is correctThere are 4 Biodiversity Hotspots in India: 

  • Himalaya: Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet,  Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar)
  • Indo-Burma: Includes entire North-eastern India, except Assam and Andaman group of  Islands (and Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia and southern China)
  • Sundalands: Includes Nicobar group of Islands (and Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines)
  • Western Ghats and Sri Lanka: Includes entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka)

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Biodiversity hotspots are not recognised under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme. They are designated by Conservation International as areas with high levels of biodiversity and significant threats to that biodiversity. According to Conservation International (CI), to qualify as a hotspot a region must meet two strict criteria:

  • It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the world’s total) as endemic 
  • It has to have lost at least 70% of its original habitat. (It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation).
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