Daily Current Affairs MCQ- May 6, 2022 - UPSC MCQ

On International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking, Prime Minister Narendra Modi Has lauded all those working at the grassroot levels to eliminate the menace of drugs from our society.

• By resolution 42/112 of 7 December 1987, the General Assembly decided to observe 26 June as the International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking.
• The date June 26 is to commemorate Lin Zexu's dismantling of the opium trade in Humen, Guangdong, ending in June 25 1839, just before the First Opium War in China.
• This global observance aims to raise awareness of the major problem that illicit drugs represent to society.
• The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is the nodal agency for observing this day.
• The theme of the 2021 day is Share Facts On Drugs, Save Lives which aims at combating misinformation and promotes sharing the facts on drugs — from health risks and solutions to tackle the world drug problem, to evidence-based prevention, treatment, and care.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune along with High Energy Material Research Laboratory (HEMRL) has made a state-of-the-art Canopy Severance System (CSS), which provides a safe escape path for a pilot operating an aircraft in case of an emergency.

• The escape system has been designed for the indigenously developed Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas and Trainer Aircraft, HJT-36 Aircraft and HTT-40 Aircraft.
• All modern aircraft are equipped with a Canopy Severance System (CSS) for a safe passage by pre-weakening/severing the canopy to facilitate the smooth escape of the pilot in a swift manner.
• The Canopy Severance System (CSS) is a life-saving device that helps in the safe ejection of a fighter aircraft pilot in a time of distress.

Components

• CSS comprises two independent subsystems.
• The first one being the In-flight Egress System (IES) for in-flight emergencies, which is integrated with the seat ejection operation and rescues the pilot in case of emergencies when the aircraft is in flight mode.
• The second one is the Ground Egress System (GES) for on-ground emergencies, which rescues the pilot in case of ground emergencies without initiating the ejection seat.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

DRDO initiates the trials of advanced stealth SWiFT drone

• DRDO has initiated the ground trials of SWiFT, 1-ton All Up Weight (AUW) Technological Demonstrator for the Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (Stealth Bomber).
• The trials will be conducted on the first assembled prototype, which will be involved in a series of a low, medium, and high-speed taxi testing to fathom aircraft’s performance and instrumentation by a ground control station to ascertain the functionality of the unmanned vehicle when it reaches a high speed.
• SWiFT has been powered by an NPO Saturn 36MT turbofan engine, which is manufactured by NPO Saturn Russia, for powering advanced trainers, light attack aircraft, and unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV) that will be later replaced by Gas Turbine Research Establishment’s (GTRE) Small Turbo Fan Engine (STFE).
• SWiFt is an advanced technology project, which prepares the Technology Readiness Levels (TRL) which enables consistent, uniform discussions of technical maturity across different types of technology.
• Additionally, SWift’s validated technologies will be used in India’s Ghatak stealth flying wing combat drone-powered.

Hence both statements are correct.

DRDO is all set for the trails of their new missile ‘Agni Prime’ in the coming days.

• The ‘Agni Prime’ is the advanced version of the ‘Agni-1’ missile.
• The ‘Agni Prime’ is a short-range ballistic missile that will have a range of 1000 km to 1500 km and will have advanced features in agility and road mobility.
• It is a surface to a surface missile that can carry a payload of around 1,000 Kg or a nuclear warhead.
• The double stage missile will be lighter and much sleeker than its predecessor ‘Agni-1’.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) General Bipin Rawat recently chaired a meeting with the Vice Chiefs of the three Services (Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force), Chief of Integrated Defence Staff and representatives from the Ministries of Defence, Home and Finance for the creation of “Integrated Theatre Commands”.

• The three basic components of Indian defence forces are the army, navy and air force, each with its unique fighting profile, separate heads and multiple commands that are vertically split in terms of their command structure.
• The Indian Army and Indian Air Force have seven commands each while the Indian Navy has three commands.
• These commands are scattered across the nation and don’t coincide geographically.
• The proposed four theatre commands: air defence, maritime, integrated eastern and integrated western theatre commands, will promote ‘jointness’ among the three branches of the armed forces.
• It will ensure increased coordination to boost the overall fighting capabilities of the Indian armed forces, create capacities to adapt to the requirements of hybrid warfare along with seamless command centres to meet future challenges.

India’s Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) & Strategic Forces Command (SFC)

• Presently, there are two joint services commands in India, the first one is Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) and the second, being Strategic Forces Command (SFC).
• Based on the principle of theatre command system, ANC is considered to be the only one of its kind in the country that amalgamates the army, navy and air force as SFC takes care of the nuclear assets of India and is not related to any specific theatre of war.
• Set up in 2001, ANC is based in Port Blair and is led by officers of the three services on a rotation basis. The command covers India’s strategic interests in Southeast Asia and the Malacca Strait.

Hence both statements are correct.

According to a report released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), India is among the countries that have witnessed a positive growth rate in FDI equity inflows in 2020 as compared to 2019.

• While major economies like the USA, Singapore, Germany, Brazil, Canada, UAE have seen a negative trend. India has seen a growth of 25 per cent in 2020 as compared to 2019.
• India is the fifth-largest recipient of FDI inflows in the world in the year 2019-20. It comes at a time when global FDI inflows have been badly hit by Covid-19, which declined to $1 trillion in 2020-21 from $1.5 trillion a year ago.
• Despite the disruption caused by the outbreak of the pandemic last year, India attracted the highest ever FDI inflow of $81.72 billion in the entire financial year 2020-21. The total FDI inflows in 2019-20 stood at $74.39 billion.
• India had attracted a total foreign direct investment (FDI) of $6.24 billion in April 2021, up 38 per cent year-on-year, according to data released by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Thursday issued guidelines on the distribution of dividend by non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) to infuse greater transparency and uniformity in the practice.

• The guidelines will be effective for the declaration of dividend from the profits of the financial year ending March 31, 2022, and onwards.
• NPA ratio should be less than 6% for dividend declaration
• The guidelines will be applicable to NFBCs regulated by RBI. As per the prescribed minimum prudential requirements for declaration of dividend, the net NPA ratio of the concerned NBFC should be less than 6 per cent in each of the last three years, including the end of the financial year for which the dividend is proposed to be declared.
• Also, NBFCs should meet the applicable regulatory capital requirement for each of the last three financial years, including the financial year for which the dividend is proposed. The guidelines prescribe a ceiling on the dividend payout ratio for NBFCs.

Dividend payout ratio for different NBFCs

• The dividend payout ratio is the ratio of the total amount of dividends paid to shareholders relative to a company’s net income.
• For an NBFC which is a core investment company, the maximum dividend payout ratio can be 60 per cent. For other NBFCs, the dividend payout ratio can be 50 per cent. However, there is no limit specified for NBFCs that do not accept public funds and do not have a customer interface.
• RBI said the proposed dividend would include both dividend on equity shares and compulsorily convertible preference shares eligible for inclusion in Tier 1 capital.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Central Government has announced tax exemptions to encourage employers and members of the public for assisting those people with COVID-19 treatment expenses and also those who have lost their families to the virus.

• The government said that many taxpayers have received financial help from their employers and well-wishers to meet the cost of treatment of Covid-19. It has declared that there will be no tax liability on such amounts.
• No tax on ex-gratia payment received on account of the family member of the deceased employee due to Covid. Financial help received from relatives and friends will also not attract any tax till the total amount reaches Rs 10 lakh.
• Many people were facing discrepancies in linking their PAN with Aadhaar on the new income tax e-filing portal, therefore, the government has now extended this date from 30 June 2021 to 30 September 2021.
• The deadline for payment (without additional amount) under Vivad Se Vishwas scheme has been extended till August 31 while the last payment date with additional amount has been extended till October 31.
• Tax compliance deadline extended to save capital gains tax. Tax compliance time falling between 1st April 2021 and 29th September 2021 for making an investment, acquisition, deposit, payment, purchase, construction or such other action to save tax under the provisions contained in sections 54 to 54 GB of the Income-tax Act has been extended till 30 September 2021.

Hence both statements are correct.

The Minister of Tribal Affairs inaugurated the Second National Sickle Cell Conclave on ‘Sickle Cell Disease’. The Conclave is being held to mark the World Sickle Cell Day observed on 19thJune 2021 every year.

• It is characterized by a modification in the shape of the red blood cell from a smooth, donut-shape into a crescent or half-moon shape.
• These cells lack plasticity and can block small blood vessels, impairing blood flow. This condition leads to shortened red blood cell survival, and subsequent anaemia, often called sickle-cell anaemia.
• This leads to chronic acute pain syndromes, severe bacterial infections, and necrosis (tissue death). Anaemia is a medical condition in which the red blood cell count or hemoglobin is less than normal. Symtoms of anemia include Fatigue, Shortness of breath, Hair loss etc.
• Regions where it more common: Africa.
• Treatment: It can be managed by simple procedures including:
  • High fluid intake
  • Healthy diet
  • Folic acid/Iron supplementation
  • Pain medication
  • Vaccination and antibiotics for the prevention and treatment of infections
  • A number of other therapeutic measures.
• Indian scenario:
  • Sickle cell disease (SCD), which is the most prevalent inherited blood disorder, is widespread amongst many tribal population groups in India
  • The disease in India is prevalent predominantly in Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, western Odisha, eastern Gujarat and in pockets of the Nilgiri Hills in north Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Hence both statements are correct.

Quality Council of India (QCI) launched Indian Certification of Medical Devices (ICMED) Plus Scheme.

• The Quality Council of India (QCI), and the Association of Indian Manufacturers of Medical Devices (AiMeD) have added further features to the ICMED the Scheme that had been launched for Certification of Medical Devices in 2016.
• The ICMED 13485 PLUS, as the new scheme has been christened, will undertake verification of the quality, safety and efficacy of medical devices.
• Quality Council of India (QCI) was set up in 1997 jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e. ASSOCHAM, CII and FICCI, to establish and operate national accreditation structure.
• The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, is the nodal ministry for QCI.
• The Council is independent and works under the directions of its Governing Body (GB) having equal representation of government, industry and industry associations. It does not get funded by the government and is a self-sustaining non-profit organization with its own Memorandum of Association (MOA) and Rules.
• Headquarters: New Delhi.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.