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General Awareness Test - 5 - Bank Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test IBPS RRB Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2026 - General Awareness Test - 5

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General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 1

Which of the following committees were related with the reforms in Banking sector in India?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 1

The correct option Narasimham Committee

Key Points

  • Raja Chelliah Committee was also formed post-1991 reform for reforms in tax administration (Direct tax).
  • Dr. K Kasturirangan Committee was formed to draft a New Education Policy. India adopted the National Education Policy, 2020, the first since the National Policy on Education,1986.
  • As part of the economic reforms post-1991, M. Narasimham headed the Committee on Banking Sector Reforms (1991) was formed to reform public sector dominated Indian Banking. Again, Narsimham-2 committee in 1998 was formed to review so far and recommend further recommendations.
  • Uday Kotak Committee was a committee on Corporate Governance formed by SEBI in 2017.

General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 2

Who re-designated Siddhartha Mohanty as Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO), effective from June 30, 2024?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 2

The correct answer is LIC Board of Directors

In News

  • Siddhartha Mohanty, who was previously serving as the Chairman of LIC, has been re-designated as the Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC). T
  • his change took effect from June 30, 2024, as per an exchange filing. Mohanty's tenure as MD & CEO is scheduled until June 7, 2025.

Key Points

  • New RBI Executive Directors:
  • Arnab Kumar Chowdhury and Charulatha S Kar have assumed their roles as Executive Directors (EDs) at the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  • As ED, Chowdhury will oversee the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation, Foreign Exchange, and International Department.
  • Kar's responsibilities include managing the Department of Communication, Human Resource, and serving as the First Appellate Authority for Right to Information matters within the central bank.

Additional Information

  • The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) holds a significant place in India's financial landscape.
  • Establishment: LIC was established on September 1, 1956, under the Life Insurance of India Act. This legislation nationalized the insurance industry in India, merging over 245 insurance companies and provident societies into a single entity.
  • Ownership and Control: LIC is owned by the Government of India and operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance. It is headquartered in Mumbai, India.
  • Scale and Operations: As of March 2024, LIC is India's largest life insurance company and also the country's largest institutional investor. It manages total assets worth ₹52.52 trillion (approximately US$630 billion).
  • Policyholders and Operations: LIC reported having 290 million policyholders as of 2019. The company manages a substantial life fund of ₹28.3 trillion and has a strong track record of settling claims, having processed 26 million claims in the fiscal year 2018–19.
  • Global Recognition: LIC has been recognized globally for its scale and operations. It ranked 98th on the 2022 Fortune Global 500 list, with significant revenues and profits contributing to its stature in the global insurance market.

General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 3

PNB, IIFCL signed pact for financing infrastructure projects. Who is the CEO of Punjab National Bank (PNB)?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 3

The correct answer is Atul Kumar Goel

In News

  • Punjab National Bank (PNB) and India Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd (IIFCL) signed an agreement on June 3, 2024, to offer long-term financial assistance to viable infrastructure projects.

Key Points

  • The collaboration will allow both institutions to fund infrastructure projects, participating under consortium or multiple lending arrangements to provide financial support to prospective borrowers, subject to due diligence on a case-by-case basis.
  • The signing ceremony for the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was attended by Atul Kumar Goel, MD & CEO of PNB, and Padmanabhan Raja Jaishankar, MD of IIFCL.
  • The MoU aims to find new avenues of lending to infrastructure projects in the country, with assured full participation from both sides.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 4
What is the revised GDP growth forecast for India by the IMF for FY25?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 4

The correct answer is 7%

In News

  • The IMF has revised India’s GDP growth forecast for FY25 upward by 20 basis points to 7%.

Key Points

  • This increase reflects better consumption prospects, especially in rural areas.
  • The growth forecast for the next financial year (FY26) is retained at 6.5%.
  • India's economy is expected to expand by 7%, up from the previous forecast of 6.8% in April 2024.
  • Emerging markets and developing economies are seeing upward growth revisions, primarily driven by China and India.
  • Global growth projections remain stable at 3.2% for 2024 and 3.3% for 2025.
  • Services price inflation is impacting monetary policy, contributing to risks of higher interest rates.
  • The IMF advises careful sequencing of policy mixes to maintain price stability and support growth.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 5

Which platform has the World Health Organization (WHO) introduced to provide global open access information on medical devices?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 5

The correct answer is MeDevIS.
Key Points

  • MeDevIS stands for Medical Devices Information System.
  • The platform is the first global open access clearinghouse for information on medical devices.
  • MeDevIS includes 2301 types of medical devices used for a wide range of health issues, including reproductive, maternal, newborn and child health, noncommunicable diseases, and infectious diseases.
  • The platform supports governments, regulators, and users in decision-making on the selection, procurement, and use of medical devices.

Additional Information

  • MedTech Global: Not related to the WHO's new platform.
  • HealthInfoSys: Not mentioned in the context of the article.
  • MedAccessNet: Another hypothetical name not mentioned in the context of the article.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 6

_________ is a large sum of new money that is printed and distributed among the public, to stimulate the economy during a recession or when interest rates fall to zero?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 6

The Correct Answer is Helicopter Money.
Key Points

  • Helicopter Money is a large sum of new money that is printed and distributed among the public, to stimulate the economy during a recession or when interest rates fall to zero.
  • This is an unconventional monetary policy tool aimed at bringing a flagging economy back on track or it basically means non-repayable money transfers from the central bank to the government.
  • American economist Milton Friedman coined the term Helicopter Money.

Additional Information
Money Earned by illicit activities and Money on which tax is not paid is called Black Money.

General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 7
Since the launch of which scheme in October 2017, 2.86 crore households have been electrified as per ECONOMIC SURVEY 2023-24?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 7

The correct answer is Saubhagya

In News

  • India's power grid is now one of the largest unified electricity grids globally, operating on a single frequency with an inter-regional transmission capacity of 118,740 megawatts (MW).
  • By March 31, 2024, the grid’s transmission infrastructure expanded to 485,544 circuit kilometers of lines and 1,251,080 mega volt amp (MVA) of transformation capacity.
  • As per the Economic Survey, a total of 2.86 crore households have been electrified since the launch of the Saubhagya in October 2017 under various schemes.

Key Points

  • Since the launch of the Saubhagya scheme in October 2017, a total of 2.86 crore households have been electrified, showcasing significant progress in electricity access.
  • Peak electricity demand in FY24 increased by 13% to 243 gigawatts (GW), with the highest growth in electricity generation coming from renewable energy resources.
  • As of March 31, 2024, India has installed 190.57 GW of renewable energy capacity, which constitutes 43.12% of the total installed generation capacity.
  • The clean energy sector attracted ₹8.5 lakh crore in investments from 2014 to 2023 and is projected to draw about ₹30.5 lakh crore between 2024 and 2030, indicating substantial future growth and economic opportunities.
  • The National Electricity Plan anticipates that non-fossil fuel-based capacity will grow from 203.4 GW (46% of total capacity) in 2023-24 to 500.6 GW (64.4%) by 2029-30, reflecting a major shift towards renewable energy sources.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 8
In which Indian state is the Charaideo Maidam, nominated for UNESCO World Heritage Site status, located?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 8

The correct answer is Assam

In News

  • Charaideo Maidam, located about 30 km from Sibsagar in Assam, has been nominated by India for inclusion in the UNESCO World Heritage Site list.

Key Points

  • The site, known as the "Pyramids of Assam," is significant for housing over 90 royal burial mounds of the Ahom dynasty.
  • Charaideo, the first capital of the Ahom kingdom founded by Chao Lung Siukapha in 1253, symbolizes the Ahom power and is considered a sacred site for their ancestral gods.
  • Currently, only 30 of the burial mounds are protected by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), while the rest are in poor condition due to neglect and human encroachment.
  • If Charaideo Maidam is selected as a World Heritage Site, Assam will join Kaziranga National Park and Manas National Park as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
  • Visitors are encouraged to explore Charaideo Maidam and the surrounding monuments in Sibsagar, which is rich in royal heritage.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 9
Which organization launched the Advanced Frigate 'Triput,' the first of two advanced frigates being constructed for the Indian Navy?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 9

The correct answer is Goa Shipyard Limited

In News

  • The first of two Advanced Frigates, named Triput, was launched at Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) on July 23, 2024. The event was attended by Mrs. Rita Sreedharan and Goa Governor P. S. Sreedharan Pillai.

Key Points

  • The Triput is designed for combat operations against enemy surface ships, submarines, and aircraft. It features stealth capabilities, advanced weapons, sensors, and platform management systems.
  • The Triput class ships are 124.8 meters long, 15.2 meters wide, with a draught of 4.5 meters, and a displacement of about 3,600 tonnes. They can achieve speeds of up to 28 knots.
  • The Triput class is being built at GSL as a follow-on to the Teg and Talwar class ships. This is the first time these frigates are being constructed indigenously by an Indian shipyard.
  • The project aligns with the ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative, featuring a significant proportion of indigenous equipment, including weapons and sensors. This approach supports domestic defense production, employment generation, and capability enhancement.
  • The contract for the two Triput class frigates was signed between the Ministry of Defence and GSL on January 25, 2019.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 10

Who has been appointed as Director in the Ministry of Ayush as announced on May 3, 2024?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 10

The correct answer is Subodh Kumar (IAS)
In News

  • Subodh Kumar, an IAS officer from the 2010 batch of the Tamil Nadu cadre, has been appointed as Director in the Ministry of Ayush.

Key Points

  • The official announcement of his appointment was made on May 3, 2024, according to an order issued by the Department of Personnel (DoPT).
  • Prior to this appointment, Kumar was on 'Compulsory wait' in the Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
  • The order explicitly requested his immediate release from his previous position so he could assume his new role in the Ministry of Ayush.
  • His tenure as Director is specified to last until October 8 or until further orders are issued, whichever occurs first.
  • Additionally, there's a clause regarding his involvement in election-related duties, stating that if he is on such duty, he should be relieved after obtaining clearance from the Election Commission of India.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 11
Which city is not among the venues hosting matches for the 133rd Durand Cup?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 11

The correct answer is Chennai.

In News

  • Event: 133rd edition of the IndianOil Durand Cup football tournament, scheduled from July 27 to August 31, 2024.

Key Points

  • Venues: Kolkata (Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan), Kokrajhar, Shillong, and Jamshedpur will host matches.
  • Teams: 24 teams will participate, including Indian Super League, I-League teams, and teams from the Armed Forces.
  • New Host Cities: Jamshedpur and Shillong added alongside Kolkata and Kokrajhar, expanding the tournament's reach into East and North-east India.
  • Format: Matches to be played in a round-robin league-cum-knockout format with 43 matches in total.
  • Defending Champions: Mohun Bagan Super Giant, aiming to defend their title after winning the tournament a record 17 times.
  • Broadcast: All matches will be broadcast live on Sony Sports Network (SSN) and streamed on SonyLiv OTT platform.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 12
Who has been appointed as the Government Nominee Director on the Board of Shipping Corporation of India (SCI)?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 12

Correct Answer: R Lakshmanan

In News

  • R Lakshmanan has been appointed as the Government Nominee Director on the Board of Shipping Corporation of India (SCI).

Key Points

  • The appointment was approved by the Ministry of Port, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW).
  • R Lakshmanan is currently serving as Joint Secretary in MoPSW.
  • The approval was conveyed through an order issued on June 13, 2024.
  • This information was shared by SCI in a regulatory filing to the stock exchanges.

Additional Information

  • Deepinder Goyal: Not related to this appointment; he is the CEO of Zomato.
  • Shipping Corporation of India (SCI): A Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Port, Shipping and Waterways.
  • Government Nominee Director: A director appointed by the government to represent its interests on the board of a public sector undertaking.
  • Shipping Corporation of India headquarters: Mumbai
  • Founded: 2 October 1961
  • Chairman & MD: Binesh Kumar Tyagi
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 13
Who is the author of the book Call of the Gir, praised by PM Modi for its focus on Asiatic lions and conservation?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 13

The correct answer is Parimal Nathwani

In News

  • On July 31, 2024, Rajya Sabha MP Parimal Nathwani presented the first copy of his book "Call of the Gir" to Prime Minister Narendra Modi during a private family gathering at the PM's residence.

Key Points

  • The book is dedicated to PM Modi for his role as a visionary behind Project Lion and Lion@2047: Vision for Amrit Kaal.
  • The PM praised the book and engaged in a discussion about the status of tourism in Gir, stressing the importance of enhancing infrastructure to attract foreign tourists.
  • Modi also emphasized the need for increased forestation around the Gir sanctuary.
  • "Call of the Gir" is Nathwani’s second coffee-table book, following "Gir Lions: Pride of Gujarat," published in 2017.
  • The new book, published by QUIGNOG, features photography and narratives showcasing Gir’s landscapes and Asiatic lions.
  • The book aims to highlight the urgent need for conservation efforts for the Asiatic lions and their habitat.

General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 14

Which statutory body of the Government of India has launched the Digital Shakti Center to combat cyber crimes against women?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 14

The correct answer is National Commission for Women (NCW).

Key Points

  • The National Commission for Women (NCW) inaugurated the Digital Shakti Center to combat cyber crimes against women.
  • The center was officially inaugurated by NCW Chairperson Rekha Sharma.
  • The Digital Shakti Center aims to raise awareness about cyber crimes targeting women and provide technical support for registering and addressing complaints.
  • This initiative builds on the success of the NCW's Digital Shakti campaign, which was launched in 2018 and has reached millions of women.

Additional Information

  • National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): A statutory public body constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India.
  • National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR): A statutory body established under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005, to ensure that all laws, policies, programs, and administrative mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective.
  • Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): The premier investigating agency of India, operating under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, tasked with investigating a variety of crimes including corruption and high-profile cases.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 15
The new campus of Nalanda University was inaugurated by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi at __________, Bihar. The campus is conceived as a collaboration between India and East Asia Summit (EAS) countries and features a Net Zero Energy, Net Zero Emission, Net Zero Water, and Net Zero Waste model.
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 15

The correct answer is Rajgir.

In News

  • The new campus of Nalanda University was inaugurated by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi at Rajgir, Bihar.

Key Points

  • The campus is conceived as a collaboration between India and East Asia Summit (EAS) countries.
  • The new campus aims to modernize the education system and revitalize India's rich educational heritage.
  • The campus features a Net Zero Energy, Net Zero Emission, Net Zero Water, and Net Zero Waste model.
  • The revival of Nalanda University symbolizes India's capabilities and commitment to sustainability and global collaboration.

Additional Information

  • Nalanda University Campus
    • Includes two academic blocks with 40 classrooms and a total seating capacity of around 1900.
    • Features a student hostel with a capacity of around 550 students and various other facilities like an International Centre, an Amphitheater, a Faculty Club, and a Sports Complex.
  • Net Zero Model
    • Ensures sustainability by incorporating solar plants, water treatment and recycling plants, and environment-friendly facilities.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding the benefits available after being designated as a National Party in India:
1. A National Party receives dedicated broadcast time on state-run television and radio channels during elections.
2. A National Party can propose amendments to the electoral rolls directly through the Election
Commission of India.
3. A National Party is eligible for office space in state capitals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 16

The correct answer is option A.
In News

  • Indian EXPRESS: The Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs allotted a Type-VII bungalow to the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) as its national party office.

Key Points

  • The Election Commission of India allocates specific broadcast time to recognized National and State Parties on state-run television (Doordarshan) and radio (All India Radio) during the elections. This is intended to ensure a fair and balanced exposure for all major political parties. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • National Parties, like any other political parties or individuals, cannot propose amendments to the electoral rolls directly. The process of amending the electoral rolls is managed by the Election Commission of India, which conducts regular revisions and updates to ensure accuracy.Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • National Parties are provided with office space in the state capitals, subject to availability and regulatory guidelines. This provision helps National Parties establish a permanent presence in key locations, enhancing their ability to manage party activities and coordinate election campaigns. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information
National Party:

  • Definition and Criteria:
    • Recognized if it secures 6% votes in 4+ states and wins 4 Lok Sabha seats, or wins 2% of Lok Sabha seats in 3 states.
  • Representation:
    • Significant presence and influence across multiple states.
  • Symbol and Recognition:
    • Unique election symbol used nationwide.
  • Funding and Resources:
    • Privileges like free airtime, office space, and access to electoral rolls.
  • Examples:
    • Includes BJP, INC, CPI, CPI-M, BSP, NCP.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 17
Which portal will Energy Efficiency Services Ltd (EESL) use to offer UJALA products and services in Rajasthan?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 17

The correct answer is e-Mitra.

Key Points

  • Energy Efficiency Services Ltd (EESL) has partnered with RajCOMP Info Services Ltd (RISL) to promote energy efficiency in Rajasthan.
  • EESL will offer UJALA products and services on the e-Mitra portal.
  • This collaboration aims to leverage the extensive e-Mitra network to enhance public service delivery throughout the state.
  • By utilizing the widespread presence of the e-Mitra network, energy-efficient solutions will be made accessible even in remote corners of Rajasthan.

Important Points

  • RISL will create awareness among e-Mitra kiosks about the availability of EESL services on the platform.
  • Energy-efficient solutions such as LED lighting and efficient cooling systems will help reduce energy consumption and lower electricity bills.
  • The collaboration is expected to contribute to a greener environment and generate new employment opportunities.
  • EESL's online marketplace, EESLMart, will also be promoted through affiliate links and QR codes on RISL's website and applications.

Additional Information

  • RajNet: RajNet is another digital initiative by the Government of Rajasthan aimed at providing internet connectivity in rural areas, but it is not used for offering EESL products.
  • Rajasthan e-Services: This is a general term for various online services provided by the Rajasthan government, but not specifically related to EESL's collaboration.
  • RISL Direct: RISL Direct does not exist as a separate portal; it refers to the direct services provided by RajCOMP Info Services Ltd.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 18

Which nuclear power plant of India has received permission for the "First Approach to Criticality" of the 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) from Atomic Energy Regulatory Board?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 18

The correct answer is Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant.
In News

  • AERB approved Criticality of India’s 1st Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor.

Key Points

  • The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) granted permission for the "First Approach to Criticality" of the 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu.
  • This milestone includes the loading of fuel into the reactor core and the initiation of "Low Power Physics Experiments."
  • The PFBR is India's first indigenous Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor.
  • This authorization marks a significant step in advancing India's nuclear energy capabilities.

Important Points

  • The AERB conducted a thorough multi-tier safety review, including phased core loading activities and stringent oversight.
  • The final stage involves introducing fuel sub-assemblies into the reactor core to achieve a sustained nuclear fission chain reaction.
  • Once criticality is achieved, a series of low power physics experiments will be conducted to assess reactor behavior.
  • The PFBR is commissioned by Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI) and is a crucial component of India's nuclear power program.

Additional Information

  • Option D (Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant): This option is incorrect as the PFBR is not located at Kudankulam.
  • Option B (Tarapur Atomic Power Station): This option is incorrect as the PFBR is not located at Tarapur.
  • Option C (Kakrapar Atomic Power Station): This option is incorrect as the PFBR is not located at Kakrapar.
  • The PFBR at Kalpakkam represents a major advancement in India's pursuit of self-reliance in nuclear energy technology.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 19
Who has been appointed as the Festival Director for the 55th and 56th editions of the International Film Festival of India (IFFI)? (July 2024)
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 19

The correct answer is ​Shekhar Kapur

In News

  • Shekhar Kapur has been appointed as the Festival Director for the 55th and 56th editions of the International Film Festival of India (IFFI) in Goa.

Key Points

  • The appointment was announced by the Information and Broadcasting Ministry.
  • Kapur, known for films like "Mr India," "Bandit Queen," and "Elizabeth," expressed his honor and commitment towards the role.
  • He previously served as the chairperson of the international competition Jury at the 54th IFFI.
  • Kapur has also been a prominent figure at the Film and Television Institute of India, where he was chairperson from 2020 to 2023.
  • His recent work includes directing the British comedy "What's Love Got to Do with It?".
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 20

Consider the following statements with respect to government securities (G-sec) :

1. It is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government only.

2. They can be both short-term and long-term.

3. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 20

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

  • Government securities (G-sec) -
    • A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments.
      • Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
    • It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation.
      • Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • Such securities are short-term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long-term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with an original maturity of one year or more).
      • Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
    • G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 21

Consider the following statements about IndusInd Bank’s entry into the mutual fund business:
1.IndusInd Bank has received approval from the RBI to set up a mutual fund subsidiary.
2. The bank's new subsidiary will handle asset management for the mutual fund business.
3. IndusInd Bank needs to file an application with SEBI before launching the mutual funds business.
Which of the following options is correct?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 21

The correct answer is All 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
In News

  • IndusInd Bank has received RBI approval to set up a mutual fund subsidiary.

Key Points

  • IndusInd Bank's subsidiary will handle asset management for mutual funds.
  • The bank will infuse equity capital in the asset management subsidiary.
  • IndusInd Bank needs to apply to SEBI before launching the mutual funds business.
  • This new venture strengthens IndusInd Bank’s position in financial services.

Additional Information

  • IndusInd Bank
    • Founded in 1994.
    • Headquartered in Mumbai.
    • Offers a wide range of financial services including banking, loans, and insurance.
  • Mutual Funds
    • A mutual fund pools money from many investors to invest in securities.
    • They are regulated by SEBI in India.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 22
Sberbank is the largest Bank in Central and Eastern Europe and one of the leading international financial institutions. The Sberbank is majorly owned by_______.
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 22

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

  • The Sberbank is majorly owned by Russia.
  • It is a Russian majority state-owned banking and financial services company.
  • The majority shareholder of Sberbank is the Russian National Wealth Fund which is managed by the Government of Russia.
  • It was established in 1841.
  • Its headquarter is located in Moscow.
  • It was founded under the Central Bank of the Russian Federation.

Important Points

  • ​Russia (The Russian Federation) is the world's largest country.
  • Russia is the only country in the world that is a transcontinental nation that spread in both Asia and Eastern Europe continent.
    • Capital: Moscow
    • President: Vladimir Putin
    • Prime minister: Mikhail Mishustin
    • Population: 14.34 crores
    • Currency: Russian Ruble
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 23
Which insurance company launched the 'Sampoorna Raksha Promise' product offering a ₹3 lakh instant payout on death claim intimation?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 23

The correct answer is Tata AIA Life Insurance.

In News

  • Tata AIA Life Insurance launched 'Sampoorna Raksha Promise' with a feature of ₹3 lakh instant payout.

Key Points

  • Sampoorna Raksha Promise provides immediate financial support with a ₹3 lakh payout.
  • The policyholder can defer premium payments for 12 months in case of terminal illness.
  • The plan also includes coverage up to 100 years with two plan options: Life Promise and Life Promise Plus.
  • It offers a Payor Accelerator Benefit, paying 50% of the base sum assured in the case of terminal illness.

Additional Information

  • LIC is India's largest life insurance company, offering a wide range of policies since its establishment in 1956.
  • HDFC Life provides term and investment-linked insurance products.
  • ICICI Prudential is known for offering comprehensive insurance and savings plans.
  • Max Life Insurance offers individual and group insurance solutions to meet various financial goals.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 24
Which Indian research institute partnered with Hindustan Zinc Ltd in August 2024 to scale up zinc-ion battery technologies?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 24

The correct answer is the Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR).

In News

  • Hindustan Zinc Ltd signed an MoU with JNCASR to collaborate on developing zinc-ion battery technologies.

Key Points

  • The collaboration will focus on creating new variants of zinc materials for batteries.
  • Zinc-ion batteries are seen as a sustainable alternative to lithium-ion batteries.
  • JNCASR will assist Hindustan Zinc Ltd in scaling up the technology for commercial use.
  • This partnership is aligned with India’s Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative to promote indigenous manufacturing.

Additional Information

  • JNCASR: A multidisciplinary research institute under the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India, focused on advanced scientific research.
  • Zinc-Ion Batteries: Batteries that use zinc as an anode material; seen as more sustainable than lithium-ion due to abundant zinc supply and safety advantages.
  • Hindustan Zinc Ltd: India’s largest integrated producer of zinc, lead, and silver; involved in sustainable energy solutions.
  • Aatmanirbhar Bharat: A government initiative aimed at promoting self-reliance and indigenous production across various sectors.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 25

With reference to the gold bond scheme, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 25

The correct answer is option A.

  • Gold bond scheme:
    • Under the Government Securities (GS) Act of 2006, Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock.
    • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issues these on behalf of the Indian government. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
    • The gold bonds come with a maturity period of eight years, with an option to exit the investment after the first five years. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
    • The scheme has a fixed rate of 2.5 per cent per year that is paid semi-annually. The interest on Gold Bonds is taxable according to the Income Tax Act of 1961. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
    • The bonds are restricted for sale to resident individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), trusts, universities, and charitable institutions. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
    • The upper limit for retail (individual) investors and HUFs is 4 kilograms (4,000 units) each per financial year.
    • For trusts and similar entities, an upper limit of 20 kilograms per financial year is applicable.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 26
Who was appointed as the president-designate of NASSCOM in August 2024, succeeding Debjani Ghosh?
Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 26

The correct answer is Rajesh Nambiar.

In News

  • Rajesh Nambiar was appointed as president-designate of NASSCOM in August 2024, succeeding Debjani Ghosh.

Key Points

  • Nambiar has previously served as Chairperson of NASSCOM’s Executive Council and as Chairman of Cognizant India.
  • His appointment marks a significant leadership change for India’s IT sector.

Additional Information

  • NASSCOM: The National Association of Software and Service Companies is a trade body and chamber of commerce of the Tech industry in India.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 27

Consider the following statements about National Forest Martyrs Day:
1. It is observed annually on September 11 in India.
2. The day honors those who sacrificed their lives protecting the nation's forests and wildlife.
3. It was first observed in 2005.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 27

In News
National Forest Martyrs Day is observed on September 11 each year to pay tribute to forest personnel who sacrificed their lives.

Key Points

  • It commemorates sacrifices made by forest personnel for wildlife and environmental protection.
  • The first official observance occurred in 2013.
  • Statement 1 and 2 are correct, but Statement 3 is incorrect as the day was not observed in 2005.

Additional Information

  • International Forest Day: Celebrated on March 21 globally, focusing on the importance of forests.
  • Environmental Conservation: The significance of preserving biodiversity and ecosystems globally.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 28

Which country topped the TIME Magazine’s World’s Best Companies of 2024 with a score of 97.75?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 28

In News
TIME Magazine released its World’s Best Companies 2024 list, with Apple from the United States securing the top rank.

Key Points

  • Apple scored 97.75, followed closely by Accenture and Microsoft.
  • The United States dominated the list with several companies in the top 10.
  • Apple was recognized for its significant influence in IT, electronics, and hardware.
  • The ranking highlights innovation and business growth on a global scale.

Additional Information

  • Accenture
    • Ranked 2nd in the list with a score of 97.70
    • Headquarters in Dublin, Ireland
  • Microsoft
    • Ranked 3rd with a score of 97.65
    • Headquarters in Redmond, United States
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 29

Who won the gold medal in Men’s Javelin Throw F64 at the 2024 Paris Paralympics?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 29

In News
Sumit Antil won the gold medal in the Men’s Javelin Throw F64 event at the 2024 Paris Paralympics.

Key Points

  • Sumit Antil set a new Paralympic record in the F64 category.
  • He is a reigning world champion and a dominant figure in javelin throw for para-athletes.
  • The F64 category is for athletes with limb deficiencies competing with prostheses.
  • Antil's victory contributed to India’s overall medal tally at the 2024 Paralympics.

Additional Information

  • Sumit Antil: A para-athlete from India specializing in the javelin throw.
  • F64 category: This category is for athletes with limb deficiencies who compete using prosthetics.
  • Antil had previously won gold at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics.
  • India won a total of 7 gold medals at the 2024 Paris Paralympics.
General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 30

Novak Djokovic, a 24-time Grand Slam champion, has surpassed Roger Federer’s record to become the oldest World No. 1 at 36 years and 321 days old. Which country does Novak Djokovic belong to?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test - 5 - Question 30

In News

  • Novak Djokovic has set a new record by becoming the oldest player to be ranked No. 1 in the ATP Tour's history. At 36 years and 321 days, Djokovic surpassed Roger Federer’s previous record. Federer had held the record for being the oldest No. 1 at 36 years and 320 days.
  • Additionally, Rohan Bopanna of India made headlines by becoming the oldest-ranked men’s doubles player at 43 years old last year, and this year, he reclaimed the No. 1 rank in doubles at the age of 44. Meanwhile, Iga Swiatek of Poland continues to hold the top position in the WTA singles rankings.
  • The ATP (Association of Tennis Professionals) introduced the computerized ranking system on August 23, 1973. This system ranks players based on their performance in various tournaments. The ATP updates these rankings every week. The ranking system for men’s doubles was introduced in 1976. Ilie Nastase from Romania was the first player to be ranked No. 1 in the ATP men's singles.

Additional Information

  • Djokovic first reached the No. 1 ranking on July 4, 2011, at the age of 24. He has held the top spot for a record 410 weeks, surpassing Federer’s previous record of 310 weeks. Djokovic also became the first male player to win 24 Grand Slam singles titles, tying with Margaret Court of Australia for the most titles. He has appeared in 36 Grand Slam finals and has won each of the four Grand Slam titles multiple times: 10 Australian Open titles, 3 French Open titles, 7 Wimbledon titles, and 4 US Open titles.
  • In addition to his Grand Slam success, Djokovic has won 98 ATP Tour events. He is the only player to have held all four Grand Slam singles titles simultaneously since Rod Laver's Grand Slam calendar in 1969. Djokovic has also achieved the milestone of winning 40 ATP Masters 1000 titles and has been ranked world No. 1 eight times. His record for winning 7 ATP Finals surpasses Roger Federer’s record of 6 titles. Djokovic further set a record by becoming the oldest player to win an ATP final at the 2023 ATP Finals.
  • The ATP, which was established during the US Open in 1972, manages the world men’s tennis tour, including the ATP Tour, Challenger Tour, and second-tier tournaments. However, it does not organize Grand Slam events, which are managed by the International Tennis Federation and national tennis bodies. The ATP’s headquarters are located in London, United Kingdom.
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