Goa PCS Screening Mock Test- 2 - GPSC (Goa) MCQ

The Congress met at Karachi in March, 1931, to endorse the Gandhi- Irwin or the Delhi Pact. The Karachi Session became memorable for its Resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Even though the Congress had, from its inception, fought for the economic interests, civil liberties and political rights of the people. This was the first time that the Congress defined what Swaraj would mean for the masses.

Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded by Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhiji‘s Harijan campaign included a programme of internal reform by the Harijans: promotion of education, cleanliness and hygiene, giving up the eating of carrion and beef, giving up liquor and the abolition of untouchability among themselves. After the Poona Pact, Gandhiji decided to commence an ̳Untouchability Prevention Movement‘

The poverty of India was not a product of its geography or of the lack of natural resources, or of some „inherent‟ defect in the character and capabilities of the people. Nor was it a remnant of the Mughal period or of the pre-British past. It was mainly a product of the history of the last two centuries.
Before that, India was no more backward than the countries of Western Europe. Nor were the differences in the standards of living at the time very wide among the countries of the world. Precisely during the period that the countries of the West developed and prospered, India was subjected to modern colonialism and was prevented from developing.

The basic fact is that the same social, political and economic processes, that produced industrial development, and social and cultural progress in Britain, also produced, and then maintained economic underdevelopment, and social and cultural backwardness in India. The reason for this is obvious. Britain subordinated the Indian economy to its own economy and determined the basic social trends in India according to her own needs. The result was stagnation of India‘s agriculture and industries.

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy established the “Atmiya Sabha” a precursor organization in the socio-religious reforms in Bengal in the year 1814 in Kolkata.

• It was a philosophical discussion circle where debates and discussions were held leading to the ideas for social reforms.

Statement 3 is Correct. The 1853 Charter Act ended the Company’s patronage, enjoining recruitment to be through an open competition henceforth. But the examination was held in England in English language, based on classical learning of Greek and Latin. The maximum permissible age was gradually reduced from 23 (in 1859) to 22 (in 1860) to 21 (in 1866) and to 19 (1878).

The election of a person as Vice-President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete (i.e., the existence of any vacancy among the members of the electoral college). If the election of a person as Vice-President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated (i.e., they continue to remain in force).

• The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories as socialistic, Gandhian, and liberal-intellectual.

• Gandhian Principles are based on Gandhian ideology. They represent the program of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement. In order to fulfill the dreams of Gandhi, some of his ideas were included as Directive Principles.

  • To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).

  • To promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas (Article 43).

  • To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies (Article 43B).

  • To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).

  • To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47).

  • To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48).

• To secure the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement (Article 41). This is a socialistic directive principle

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Rights are meant to promote political democracy in the country. They prevent the establishment of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country. Also, they protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion by the state.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There have been certain changes in Part III of the Constitution,however the total number of Fundamental Rights have remained the same. Article 31 i.e ‘Right to Property’ was removed and Article 21A i.e’ Right to Education’ was added to the fundamental rights. Hence, there overall number did not change.

KB) According to the Indian Constitution, there are six basic Fundamental Rights of Indian Citizens, which are right to equality, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, right to freedom, right to constitutional remedies and right against exploitation. Article 12 to 35 of the Indian Constitution covers the Fundamental Rights of the citizen of the country. Fundamental Rights enumerated in Part III of the Indian Constitution are categorized under 7 sections apart from the general segment.

Patenting in India

• A patent is an exclusive set of rights granted for an invention, which may be a product or process that provides a new way of doing something or offers a new technical solution to a problem.

• Indian patents are governed by the Indian Patent Act of 1970.

• India became a party to the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.

• India is also a signatory to several IPR-related conventions including:

  • The Berne Convention which governs copyright,

  • The Budapest Treaty,

  • The Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property ○ The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) governs various patent-related matters.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Any member of the Parliament can be appointed to the Council of Ministers, irrespective of whether they are nominated or elected to the Parliament.

Statement 3 is correct. Constitution has put a limit on the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the strength of the House of the People via 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003), the size of the Council of Ministers was determined according to exigencies of time and requirements of the situation.

Union Public service commission (UPSC)

• The Full Form of UPSC is Union Public Service Commission. It was established on October 1, 1926, under the name Public Service Commission. After being reconstructed in 1935 under the Government of India Act 1935, the Commission’s name was changed to Federal Public Service Commission.
• It is an important institution in India that plays a signific ant role in the country’s governance and administration.
• It is responsible for conducting prestigious civil service examinations and selecting candidates for various positions in the government.
• The UPSC ensures a fair and meritbased selection process, aiming to recruit individuals with the necessary skills and knowledge to serve the nation effectively.

Dr BR Ambedkar stated, 'If any functionary under our constitution is to be compared with the US president, he is the Prime Minister and not the president of the Union'.

The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him.

The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

CABINET COMMITTEES

​The following are the features of Cabinet Committees:

• They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment.
• They are of two types–standing and ad hoc.
  • The former is of a permanent nature while the latter is of a temporary nature.
  • The ad hoc committees are constituted from time to time to deal with special problems. They are disbanded after their task is completed.

They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition vary from time to time.

• Their membership varies from three to eight.
  • They usually include only Cabinet Ministers.
  • However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership.
  • They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other senior Ministers
• They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Some times other Cabinet Ministers, particularly the Home Minister or the Finance Minister, also acts as their Chairman.
  • But, in case the Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he invariably presides over it.
• They not only sort out issues and formulate proposals for the consideration of the Cabinet but also take decisions.
  • However, the Cabinet can review their decisions. Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct.
• They are an organisational device to reduce the enormous workload of the Cabinet.
• They also facilitate in-depth examination of policy issues and effective coordination.
• They are based on the principles of division of labour and effective delegation.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 has been enacted for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants against hunting and commercial exploitation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Wildlife Protection Act 1972 (WLPA) prohibits the injuring, destroying and removing any part of a wild animals body WLPA is also against taxidermy, which is the preservation of a dead wild animal as a trophy, or in the form of rugs, preserved skins, antlers, horns, eggs, teeth, and nails.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 has been extended to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Carbon dots are fluorescent nanoparticles that show similar physical and optical properties to the well-known semiconductor quantum dots.

• Statement 3 is correct. However, the building block of carbon dots is made primarily out of carbon, with some doped heteroatoms, creating a nanoparticle that is more biocompatible and less toxic compared with the quantum dots that commonly contain heavy metals.

• Statement 2 is correct. They can be easily prepared via various economical and environmentally friendly approaches, and can be designed with biomolecules to achieve the required biosensing properties. The analytical performance of the nanoprobes can be improved significantly due to the large surface to volume ratio of the carbon dots. The fluorescence serves as a sensing signal, and responds accordingly to the results of the interaction between the carbon dots and the analyte of interest.

• Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct: Organisms occupy a place in the natural surroundings or in a community according to their feeding relationship with other organisms. Based on the source of their nutrition or food, organisms occupy a specific place in the food chain that is known as their trophic level. Producers belong to the first trophic level, herbivores (primary consumer) to the second and carnivores (secondary consumer) to the third.

• The important point to note is that the amount of energy decreases at successive trophic levels. When an organism dies it is converted to detritus or dead biomass that serves as an energy source for decomposers. Organisms at each trophic level depend on those at the lower trophic level for their energy demands.

• Organism: An organism is a fundamental functional unit in ecology because it interacts directly with the environment as well as with other organisms, e.g., a rabbit

• Population: It refers to the organisms of the same species that are in proximity to one another, e.g., a group of rabbits. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• Community: It includes all the populations occupying a given area. The size of a community depends on our scale of reference. The community and the non-living environment together are referred to as an ecological system or ecosystem, e.g., a pond with fish and plants. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Biome: It refers to a large regional or subcontinental ecosystem characterized by similarity in vegetation and climate. It is made of many similar ecosystems. An ecosystem is much smaller than a biome. For example, a grassland biome implies many ecosystems that are similar because grasses are, their principal plants and grazers are their predominant animals. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Bioremediation: The application of biotic agents like microorganisms in the correction and recovery of environmental damage is called as bioremediation. The removal of oil spilled on sea water by the help of bacteria is one example of bioremediation.
• Bioaccumulation: Increase in concentration of a substance within a trophic level in certain tissues of organisms' bodies due to absorption from food and the environment is called bioaccumulation.
• Biomagnification: Increase in concentration of a substance in the bodies of consumers as one moves up the food chain is called biomagnification. For example, when chemicals or pesticides are let into rivers or lakes they are consumed by aquatic organisms like fish, which in turn are consumed by large birds, animals or humans.
• Biopiracy: The practice of commercial exploitation of biochemicals or genetic materials which occur naturally. It is the unethical or unlawful appropriation or commercial exploitation of biological materials
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• An indicator is a substance which changes its colour, odour, properties, etc. when it comes in contact with an acid or a base.
• Litmus is a natural indicator. It is a purple dye which is extracted from a type of plant called ‘lichen’. Blue litmus paper turns red if the substance is acidic.
• Turmeric is an acid-base indicator. When it reacts with bases, it changes color to deep red. This red form of the indicator can change back to yellow when acids are added.
• Methyl orange is a popular pH indicator that is used in titration. The colour of the solution turns red when methyl orange is used as an indicator of acid.
• Vanilla extract has a characteristic pleasant smell. If a basic solution is added to vanilla extract, then we cannot detect the characteristic smell of vanilla extract. An acidic solution does not destroy the smell of vanilla extract. This can be used as a test for acids and bases by a visually impaired student.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Graphene is most simply defined as a single layer of carbon atoms bonded together in a hexagonal, sheetlike structure.
• Advances in graphene technology have the potential to bring artificial devices to their senses — in bionic eyes and ears.
• Graphene is impervious to the harsh ionic solutions found in the human body making it prone to damage. Moreover, graphene's ability to conduct electrical signals means it can interface with neurons and other cells that communicate by a nerve impulse, or action potential.
• Apart from its stability and favorable electronic properties, graphene is also flexible, so it can be wrapped around delicate tissues.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

CERN is the acronym in french language.

Argentina, Bolivia and Chile

• Lithium is a chemical element with the symbol Li and atomic number 3. It is a soft, silvery-white alkali metal.
• Like all alkali metals, lithium is highly reactive and flammable, and must be stored in vacuum, inert atmosphere, or inert liquid such as purified kerosene or mineral oil.
• Chile, Australia, Argentina, Bolivia and China contain most of the reserves discovered so far globally.
• Argentina, Bolivia and Chile are known as the ‘Lithium Triangle’ and contain 54% of the world’s Lithium reserves.

Magnetic field:

• The magnetic field is a quantity that has both direction and magnitude.
• The direction of the magnetic field is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of the compass needle moves inside it. Therefore it is taken by convention that the field lines emerge from the north pole and merge at the south pole.
• Inside the magnet, the direction of field lines is from its south pole to its north pole. Thus the magnetic field lines are closed curves. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines. The field is stronger, that is, the force acting on the pole of another magnet placed is greater where the field lines are crowded. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• No two field lines are found to cross each other. If they did, it would mean that at the poi nt of intersection, the compass needle would point in two directions, which is not possible. Hence statement 3 is correct.

What is 3D Bioprinting?

• 3D Bioprinting is a form of additive manufacturing that uses cells and other biocompatible materials as ―inks‖, also known as bioinks, to print living structures layer-by-layer which mimic the behavior of natural living systems. Hence both statements are correct.
• Bioprinted structures, such as an organ-on-a-chip, can be used to study functions of a human body outside the body (in vitro), in 3D. The geometry of a 3D bioprinted structure is more similar to that of a naturally occurring biological system than an in vitro study performed in 2D and can be more biologically relevant. It‘s used most commonly in the fields of tissue engineering and bioengineering, and materials science. 3D bioprinting is also increasingly used for pharmaceutical development and drug validation, and in the future will be used for medical applications in clinical settings – 3D printed skin grafts, bone grafts, implants, biomedical devices, and even full 3d printed organs are all active topics of bioprinting research.

How does 3D bioprinting work?

• 3D bioprinting starts with a model of a structure, which is recreated layer-by-layer out of a bio-ink either mixed with living cells or seeded with cells after the print is complete. These starting models can come from anywhere – a CT or MRI scan, a computer-generated design (CAD) program, or a file downloaded from the internet.
• That 3D model file is then fed into a slicer – a specialized kind of computer program which analyzes the geometry of the model and generates a series of thin layers, or slices, which form the shape of the original model when stacked vertically. Cura and slic3r are examples of slicers commonly used in 3D printing. Allevi also has a specialized slicer, optimized specifically for bioprinting, built into our Allevi Bioprint software.
• Once a model is sliced, the slices are transformed into path data, stored as a g-code file, which can be sent to a 3D bioprinter for printing. The bioprinter follows instructions in the g-code file in order, including instructions to control for temperature of the extruders, extrusion pressure, bed plate temperature, crosslinking intensity and frequency, and, of course, the 3D movement path generated by the slicer. Once all of the g-code commands are completed, the print is done and can be cultured or seeded with cells as part of a biostudy.

Statement Analysis:

• While ICICI Bank maintains its previous categorization, SBI and HDFC Bank have moved to higher buckets
• About Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
• The BCBS finalized its framework for dealing with D-SIBs in October 2012. The D-SIB framework focuses on the impact that the distress or failure of banks will have on the domestic economy.
• As opposed to the G-SIB framework, D-SIB framework is based on the assessment conducted by the national authorities, who are best placed to evaluate the impact of failure on the local financial system and the local economy.
• The RBI had issued the framework for dealing with D-SIB in 2014. The D-SIB framework requires the Reserve Bank to disclose the names of banks designated as D-SIBs starting from 2015 and place these banks in appropriate buckets depending upon their Systemic Importance Scores (SISs).
• The indicators which are used for assessment are: size, interconnectedness, substitutability and complexity.
• Based on their systemic importance scores in ascending order, banks are plotted into four different buckets and are required to have additional Common Equity Tier 1 Capital (CET1) requirements ranging from 0.20% to 0.80% of risk weighted assets (RWA).
• CET1 is the highest quality of regulatory capital, as it absorbs losses immediately when they occur. It is a capital measure introduced in 2014 globally as a precautionary means to protect the economy from a financial crisis.
• RWA, are used to link the minimum amount of capital that banks must have, with the risk profile of the bank’s lending activities (and other assets).
• In case a foreign bank having branch presence in India is a Global Systemically Important Bank (G-SIB), it has to maintain additional CET1 capital surcharge in India as applicable to it as a G-SIB, proportionate to its Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) in India.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released its list of domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs) for 2023, including the State Bank of India (SBI), HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank.

Reverse Osmosis is a technology that is used to remove a large majority of contaminants from water by pushing the water under pressure through a semi-permeable membrane.

Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in water are some organic and inorganic materials, which include minerals and ions that are dissolved in a particular quantity in water. When water passes through stones, pipes or different surfaces, the particles are absorbed into the water. TDS in water can come from different sources such as minerals in chemicals used for treating water, runoff from the road salts and chemicals or fertilizers from the farms.

Water that has a TDS level of more than 1000mg/L is unfit for consumption. A high level of TDS in water can lead to a number of health problems. The presence of potassium, sodium, chlorides increases the TDS level in the water. However, the presence of toxic ions such as lead, nitrate, cadmium, and arsenic present in water can lead to a number of serious health problems. This is especially important for children because they are much more sensitive to contaminants because their defence systems have not fully developed. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Several types of devices are used to improve the aesthetic qualities of drinking water and to remove chemicals. Activated carbon filters are the most common, they are more effective in removing organic chemicals. They are often used to improve taste, smell and appearance. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

The desalinated water that is demineralized or deionized, is called permeate (or product) water. The water stream that carries the concentrated contaminants that did not pass through the RO membrane is called the reject (or concentrate) stream.

Statement Analysis:
About Reverse Flip

• It is trend of relocation of Indian unicorns, companies valued at over $1 billion, back to their homeland after initially setting up headquarters abroad.

Why the U-turn? The reasons are multifaceted:

• Taxation Advantages: The complex and cumbersome Indian tax system often drives startups offshore to countries with simpler and more favorable tax regimes. However, recent government initiatives like the introduction of Special Economic Zones for startups and reduced capital gains tax are making India a more attractive destination.
• Talent Acquisition: Accessing skilled tech talent remains a challenge for Indian startups. International hubs like Singapore and Dubai offer larger talent pools and easier visa processes, initially tempting companies to set up base there. But with India’s burgeoning tech talent pool and improved visa regulations, the tide is turning.
• Market Proximity: Operating closer to their target market allows for better understanding of customer needs, faster product iteration, and stronger brand resonance. Being physically present in India enables startups to tap into the vast and diverse domestic market more effectively.
• Government Support: Recognizing the importance of startups for economic growth, the Indian government has rolled out various support programs and initiatives like Startup India and Stand-up India. These programs offer funding, incubation facilities, and mentorship, making India a more supportive environment for startup growth.

Benefits of the Reverse Flip:

• Boosts Investor Confidence: The return of established unicorns showcases India’s potential as a startup hub, attracting further investment and fueling the ecosystem’s growth.
• Creates Jobs and Opportunities: Returning startups contribute to job creation, talent development, and overall economic growth within India.
• Fosters Innovation and Knowledge Sharing: The influx of global expertise and experience from returning unicorns can benefit the broader Indian startup community through knowledge sharing and collaboration.
• Strengthens Brand India: The success of Indian-born, globally-competitive startups shines a positive light on India’s entrepreneurial spirit and technological prowess.

Pine Labs, Udaan, Meesho Looking To Move Domicile to India

 Both the statements are not correct.

•  India’s first 3D printed Post Office was inaugurated in Bengaluru’s Cambridge Layout.
•  3D Printing is a process that uses computer-created design to make three-dimensional objects  layer by layer.
• 3D Printing was invented in the 1980s by Charles W. Hull. 
• 3D printers construct the desired object by using a layering method, opposite of the subtractive  manufacturing processes. 

 Here layers of a material like plastic, composites or bio-materials are built up to construct  objects that range in shape, size, rigidity and color