Banking Exams  >  IBPS Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers  >  IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 Download as PDF

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5


Test Description

100 Questions MCQ Test IBPS Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers | IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 for Banking Exams 2022 is part of IBPS Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers preparation. The IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Banking Exams exam syllabus.The IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 MCQs are made for Banking Exams 2022 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 below.
Solutions of IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 questions in English are available as part of our IBPS Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers for Banking Exams & IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 solutions in Hindi for IBPS Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for Banking Exams Exam by signing up for free. Attempt IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 | 100 questions in 60 minutes | Mock test for Banking Exams preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study IBPS Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers for Banking Exams Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you?
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

A passage has been given below. Read the following carefully and answer the questions that follow. Some words and phrases have been highlighted to help you find the same while answering certain questions:

Absenteeism, low employee morale, low productivity, high staff turnover, high medical claims, excessive sick leaves have all contributed to the worrying scenario experienced by most companies. Encountering stress at the workplace has become a common phenomenon and the biggest human resource challenge. Research in the current year has shown that (10)-(20) percent of any workforce works at only 15-20% capacity due to personal difficulties. Moreover, while in the United States, is spent per person per annum on health-related services, adopting a programme to provide the solution called cut down costs to almost $418 per person, per annum.

India is one of the most unfortunate countries in the world as far as health is concerned. “It may be a financial problem for most corporations but more importantly it is also the approach towards generating better employee health.” “The employer today thinks that he has accomplished a feat in providing adequate health care facilities for his workforce. While every company continues to face a variety of human resource challenges that affect employees’ productivity and, thus, ultimately company profits, little has been done to address the issue. A comprehensive range of services that optimize and maintain the psychological and social health of the company’s human infrastructure has been missing in most corporations, he added. Over two-thirds of office visits to physicians were due to stress. “Every day we have 150 new patients who are developing heart related afflictions, all due to the high stress at the workplace.”

At times like this, “one should not go by the rule book alone, one has to pay need to one’s conscience, if the company is earning profits, plough some of that back to the employees. An eight to nine hour working day was termed a good day at work at present a 12 to 16 hour working day “leaves one feeling unsatisfied. Many organizations find their very existence to be in doubt and numerous voluntary retirement schemes from 1944 onwards is a pointer to this.” It was pointed out that while management staff problems were more related to wrong eating habits, lack of exercise, overweight, blood pressure and ulcers, workmen had problems more related to their living conditions, poor hygienic habits, financial and family problems.

Q. What accounts as a worrying scenario in the corporate world?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 1 Reading the first few lines of the passage; ‘Encountering stress at the workplace has become a common phenomenon and the biggest human resource challenge’ will clarify the first option to be the correct answer.

Options (b), (c) and (d) are components of (a) only so that is the clear answer.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

A passage has been given below. Read the following carefully and answer the questions that follow. Some words and phrases have been highlighted to help you find the same while answering certain questions:

Absenteeism, low employee morale, low productivity, high staff turnover, high medical claims, excessive sick leaves have all contributed to the worrying scenario experienced by most companies. Encountering stress at the workplace has become a common phenomenon and the biggest human resource challenge. Research in the current year has shown that (10)-(20) percent of any workforce works at only 15-20% capacity due to personal difficulties. Moreover, while in the United States, is spent per person per annum on health-related services, adopting a programme to provide the solution called cut down costs to almost $418 per person, per annum.

India is one of the most unfortunate countries in the world as far as health is concerned. “It may be a financial problem for most corporations but more importantly it is also the approach towards generating better employee health.” “The employer today thinks that he has accomplished a feat in providing adequate health care facilities for his workforce. While every company continues to face a variety of human resource challenges that affect employees’ productivity and, thus, ultimately company profits, little has been done to address the issue. A comprehensive range of services that optimize and maintain the psychological and social health of the company’s human infrastructure has been missing in most corporations, he added. Over two-thirds of office visits to physicians were due to stress. “Every day we have 150 new patients who are developing heart related afflictions, all due to the high stress at the workplace.”

At times like this, “one should not go by the rule book alone, one has to pay need to one’s conscience, if the company is earning profits, plough some of that back to the employees. An eight to nine hour working day was termed a good day at work at present a 12 to 16 hour working day “leaves one feeling unsatisfied. Many organizations find their very existence to be in doubt and numerous voluntary retirement schemes from 1944 onwards is a pointer to this.” It was pointed out that while management staff problems were more related to wrong eating habits, lack of exercise, overweight, blood pressure and ulcers, workmen had problems more related to their living conditions, poor hygienic habits, financial and family problems.

Q. What is true as per the context of the passage?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 2 All the correct statements can be found in;

‘Research in the current year has shown that (10)-(20) percent of any workforce works at only 15-20% capacity due to personal difficulties. Moreover, while in the United States, is spent per person per annum on health-related services, adopting a programme to provide the solution called cut down costs to almost $418 per person, per annum.’

Over two-thirds of office visits to physicians were due to stress.

None of the given statements is correct as per the given content.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

A passage has been given below. Read the following carefully and answer the questions that follow. Some words and phrases have been highlighted to help you find the same while answering certain questions:

Absenteeism, low employee morale, low productivity, high staff turnover, high medical claims, excessive sick leaves have all contributed to the worrying scenario experienced by most companies. Encountering stress at the workplace has become a common phenomenon and the biggest human resource challenge. Research in the current year has shown that (10)-(20) percent of any workforce works at only 15-20% capacity due to personal difficulties. Moreover, while in the United States, is spent per person per annum on health-related services, adopting a programme to provide the solution called cut down costs to almost $418 per person, per annum.

India is one of the most unfortunate countries in the world as far as health is concerned. “It may be a financial problem for most corporations but more importantly it is also the approach towards generating better employee health.” “The employer today thinks that he has accomplished a feat in providing adequate health care facilities for his workforce. While every company continues to face a variety of human resource challenges that affect employees’ productivity and, thus, ultimately company profits, little has been done to address the issue. A comprehensive range of services that optimize and maintain the psychological and social health of the company’s human infrastructure has been missing in most corporations, he added. Over two-thirds of office visits to physicians were due to stress. “Every day we have 150 new patients who are developing heart related afflictions, all due to the high stress at the workplace.”

At times like this, “one should not go by the rule book alone, one has to pay need to one’s conscience, if the company is earning profits, plough some of that back to the employees. An eight to nine hour working day was termed a good day at work at present a 12 to 16 hour working day “leaves one feeling unsatisfied. Many organizations find their very existence to be in doubt and numerous voluntary retirement schemes from 1944 onwards is a pointer to this.” It was pointed out that while management staff problems were more related to wrong eating habits, lack of exercise, overweight, blood pressure and ulcers, workmen had problems more related to their living conditions, poor hygienic habits, financial and family problems.

Q. Which of the following is/are correct?

A. Wrong eating habits affect workmen

B. Employee productivity and company profit are co-related

C. Medical-aid claims have shot up

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 3 Towards the end of the passage it is given that, wrong eating habits is one of the causes of the management staff problems so this cancels out option A. B and C have been rightly given.

Hence correct option is (d)

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 4

A passage has been given below. Read the following carefully and answer the questions that follow. Some words and phrases have been highlighted to help you find the same while answering certain questions:

Absenteeism, low employee morale, low productivity, high staff turnover, high medical claims, excessive sick leaves have all contributed to the worrying scenario experienced by most companies. Encountering stress at the workplace has become a common phenomenon and the biggest human resource challenge. Research in the current year has shown that (10)-(20) percent of any workforce works at only 15-20% capacity due to personal difficulties. Moreover, while in the United States, is spent per person per annum on health-related services, adopting a programme to provide the solution called cut down costs to almost $418 per person, per annum.

India is one of the most unfortunate countries in the world as far as health is concerned. “It may be a financial problem for most corporations but more importantly it is also the approach towards generating better employee health.” “The employer today thinks that he has accomplished a feat in providing adequate health care facilities for his workforce. While every company continues to face a variety of human resource challenges that affect employees’ productivity and, thus, ultimately company profits, little has been done to address the issue. A comprehensive range of services that optimize and maintain the psychological and social health of the company’s human infrastructure has been missing in most corporations, he added. Over two-thirds of office visits to physicians were due to stress. “Every day we have 150 new patients who are developing heart related afflictions, all due to the high stress at the workplace.”

At times like this, “one should not go by the rule book alone, one has to pay need to one’s conscience, if the company is earning profits, plough some of that back to the employees. An eight to nine hour working day was termed a good day at work at present a 12 to 16 hour working day “leaves one feeling unsatisfied. Many organizations find their very existence to be in doubt and numerous voluntary retirement schemes from 1944 onwards is a pointer to this.” It was pointed out that while management staff problems were more related to wrong eating habits, lack of exercise, overweight, blood pressure and ulcers, workmen had problems more related to their living conditions, poor hygienic habits, financial and family problems.

Q. What is needed to meet the human resource challenge?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 4 All the above mentioned points have been given in the passage. So, all are correct.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

A passage has been given below. Read the following carefully and answer the questions that follow. Some words and phrases have been highlighted to help you find the same while answering certain questions:

Absenteeism, low employee morale, low productivity, high staff turnover, high medical claims, excessive sick leaves have all contributed to the worrying scenario experienced by most companies. Encountering stress at the workplace has become a common phenomenon and the biggest human resource challenge. Research in the current year has shown that (10)-(20) percent of any workforce works at only 15-20% capacity due to personal difficulties. Moreover, while in the United States, is spent per person per annum on health-related services, adopting a programme to provide the solution called cut down costs to almost $418 per person, per annum.

India is one of the most unfortunate countries in the world as far as health is concerned. “It may be a financial problem for most corporations but more importantly it is also the approach towards generating better employee health.” “The employer today thinks that he has accomplished a feat in providing adequate health care facilities for his workforce. While every company continues to face a variety of human resource challenges that affect employees’ productivity and, thus, ultimately company profits, little has been done to address the issue. A comprehensive range of services that optimize and maintain the psychological and social health of the company’s human infrastructure has been missing in most corporations, he added. Over two-thirds of office visits to physicians were due to stress. “Every day we have 150 new patients who are developing heart related afflictions, all due to the high stress at the workplace.”

At times like this, “one should not go by the rule book alone, one has to pay need to one’s conscience, if the company is earning profits, plough some of that back to the employees. An eight to nine hour working day was termed a good day at work at present a 12 to 16 hour working day “leaves one feeling unsatisfied. Many organizations find their very existence to be in doubt and numerous voluntary retirement schemes from 1944 onwards is a pointer to this.” It was pointed out that while management staff problems were more related to wrong eating habits, lack of exercise, overweight, blood pressure and ulcers, workmen had problems more related to their living conditions, poor hygienic habits, financial and family problems.

Q. Which of the following words can replace the word “need” as highlighted above?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 5 ‘One should not go by the rule book alone, one has to pay Heed to one’s conscience’ ⊗ the statement talks about paying attention to one's conscience so the best word that brings out this meaning would be ‘heed: to pay attention or notice’.

All other options are superfluous as they neither fill grammatically nor contextually.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

A passage has been given below. Read the following carefully and answer the questions that follow. Some words and phrases have been highlighted to help you find the same while answering certain questions:

Absenteeism, low employee morale, low productivity, high staff turnover, high medical claims, excessive sick leaves have all contributed to the worrying scenario experienced by most companies. Encountering stress at the workplace has become a common phenomenon and the biggest human resource challenge. Research in the current year has shown that (10)-(20) percent of any workforce works at only 15-20% capacity due to personal difficulties. Moreover, while in the United States, is spent per person per annum on health-related services, adopting a programme to provide the solution called cut down costs to almost $418 per person, per annum.

India is one of the most unfortunate countries in the world as far as health is concerned. “It may be a financial problem for most corporations but more importantly it is also the approach towards generating better employee health.” “The employer today thinks that he has accomplished a feat in providing adequate health care facilities for his workforce. While every company continues to face a variety of human resource challenges that affect employees’ productivity and, thus, ultimately company profits, little has been done to address the issue. A comprehensive range of services that optimize and maintain the psychological and social health of the company’s human infrastructure has been missing in most corporations, he added. Over two-thirds of office visits to physicians were due to stress. “Every day we have 150 new patients who are developing heart related afflictions, all due to the high stress at the workplace.”

At times like this, “one should not go by the rule book alone, one has to pay need to one’s conscience, if the company is earning profits, plough some of that back to the employees. An eight to nine hour working day was termed a good day at work at present a 12 to 16 hour working day “leaves one feeling unsatisfied. Many organizations find their very existence to be in doubt and numerous voluntary retirement schemes from 1944 onwards is a pointer to this.” It was pointed out that while management staff problems were more related to wrong eating habits, lack of exercise, overweight, blood pressure and ulcers, workmen had problems more related to their living conditions, poor hygienic habits, financial and family problems.

Q. What has the research in the current year proven?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 6 The following lines in the second paragraph help us infer option (d).

Little has been done to address the issue. A comprehensive range of services that optimize and maintain the psychological and social health of the company’s human infrastructure has been missing in most corporate’

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

A passage has been given below. Read the following carefully and answer the questions that follow. Some words and phrases have been highlighted to help you find the same while answering certain questions:

Absenteeism, low employee morale, low productivity, high staff turnover, high medical claims, excessive sick leaves have all contributed to the worrying scenario experienced by most companies. Encountering stress at the workplace has become a common phenomenon and the biggest human resource challenge. Research in the current year has shown that (10)-(20) percent of any workforce works at only 15-20% capacity due to personal difficulties. Moreover, while in the United States, is spent per person per annum on health-related services, adopting a programme to provide the solution called cut down costs to almost $418 per person, per annum.

India is one of the most unfortunate countries in the world as far as health is concerned. “It may be a financial problem for most corporations but more importantly it is also the approach towards generating better employee health.” “The employer today thinks that he has accomplished a feat in providing adequate health care facilities for his workforce. While every company continues to face a variety of human resource challenges that affect employees’ productivity and, thus, ultimately company profits, little has been done to address the issue. A comprehensive range of services that optimize and maintain the psychological and social health of the company’s human infrastructure has been missing in most corporations, he added. Over two-thirds of office visits to physicians were due to stress. “Every day we have 150 new patients who are developing heart related afflictions, all due to the high stress at the workplace.”

At times like this, “one should not go by the rule book alone, one has to pay need to one’s conscience, if the company is earning profits, plough some of that back to the employees. An eight to nine hour working day was termed a good day at work at present a 12 to 16 hour working day “leaves one feeling unsatisfied. Many organizations find their very existence to be in doubt and numerous voluntary retirement schemes from 1944 onwards is a pointer to this.” It was pointed out that while management staff problems were more related to wrong eating habits, lack of exercise, overweight, blood pressure and ulcers, workmen had problems more related to their living conditions, poor hygienic habits, financial and family problems.

Q. Which of the following will be the same in meaning as ‘feat’ as used in the passage?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 7 The employer has accomplished a feat ⊗ means the employers think that it is their achievement that they have been able to provide for health care services for their work force. Hence, option (d) is the best answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Direction: A part of the following sentence is given within brackets. Choose the option that improves the bracketed part of the sentence:

Q. After reaching Banaras, Pritham (bathed) in the Ganges to cleanse his sins.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 8 ’Bathed’ is not a word in English. ‘Had a bath’ is the correct expression. Therefore, option C is the right answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

Direction: A part of the following sentence is given within brackets. Choose the option that improves the bracketed part of the sentence:

Q. Dinesh told me that he would have reacted differently (were) he been in my place.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 9 The sentence deals with a hypothetical stance. Therefore, ‘had he been’ is the correct form. The usage of ‘been’ suggests that a ‘have’ verb must take up the place.

Hence, option A is the right answer.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

Direction: A part of the following sentence is given within brackets. Choose the option that improves the bracketed part of the sentence:

Q. He led a simple life (though) being insanely rich.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 10 ’inspite of’ or ‘despite’ must be used. The sentence intends to convey that although the person was rich, he led a simple life. ‘Despite’ is the correct term and hence, option D is the right answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 11

Direction: A part of the following sentence is given within brackets. Choose the option that improves the bracketed part of the sentence:

Q. The essay written by Ramu was (better than) as the one written by Prabhu.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 11 The given sentence is in positive degree. Therefore, the word used for comparing the 2 essays must be inline with the degree of comparison of the sentence. We can rule out 'as better', 'tougher' and 'as best'. The correct form is 'as good as'. Therefore, option A is the right answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

Direction: A part of the following sentence is given within brackets. Choose the option that improves the bracketed part of the sentence:

Q. After the failure of the recent product, the team decided to go back to the (living room).

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 12 'Go back to the drawing room' is an idiom which means to start again from scratch. Therefore, option C is the right answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

Direction: A part of the following sentence is given within brackets. Choose the option that improves the bracketed part of the sentence:

Q. Fathima tried to (warp her head around) relativity theory.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 13 'Wrap one's head around something' is an idiom that means to try to understand something complicated. Fathima tried to understand the relativity theory. Therefore, option E is the right answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

Direction: A part of the following sentence is given within brackets. Choose the option that improves the bracketed part of the sentence:

Q. After a long and tiring day, Suresh decided to hit the (wall).

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 14 'Hit the sack' means to get some sleep. From the sentence, it is clear that Suresh decided to get some sleep after a long and tiring day. Therefore, option B is the right answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

Direction: A part of the following sentence is given within brackets. Choose the option that improves the bracketed part of the sentence:

Q. Banu warned her sub-ordinate to get his (mind) together soon.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 15 'Get one's act together' means to organize oneself so as to improve productivity. Banu warned her subordinate to work more productively. Therefore, option D is the right answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

Direction: A part of the following sentence is given within brackets. Choose the option that improves the bracketed part of the sentence:

Q. Shalini told me that she was on leave since she was feeling under the (Sun) that day.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 16 'Feeling under the weather' means to 'feel sick'. Shalini was on leave since she was sick. Therefore, option A is the right answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

Direction: A part of the following sentence is given within brackets. Choose the option that improves the bracketed part of the sentence:

Q. When Rajesh was about to perform, Vikram wished him luck by saying “(Break a leg), Rajesh”.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 17 From the sentence, it is clear that Vikram wished Rajesh luck. 'Break a leg' means 'good luck'. Therefore, no correction is required and hence, option E is the right answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words given in the options in order to make them complete and meaningful.

As a large number of COVID-19 cases are _______ being reported in Kerala, the team will _______ the state’s ongoing efforts in COVID-19 management

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 18 Options (d) and (e) will be ruled out simply because the options for the second blank are illogical. Out of (a) and (b), aid in (b) will take the second blank more logically. So, using options elimination method, (b) is the justified choice.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words given in the options in order to make them complete and meaningful.

Q. The actress called Simone a ‘_____ model’ and thanked her for normalizing _______ mental health first.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 19 Almost all the options’ first words will fit the first blank but contextually only ‘role’ makes sense. So, other options can be ruled out.

Now, the sentence says that it is appreciable that Simone is giving priority to her mental health first. For this, the word ‘putting’ will be a better choice.

Simone has made putting mental health before everything else normal

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words given in the options in order to make them complete and meaningful.

Q. This assessment policy was _______ after several _______ of consultations with various stakeholders.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 20 The first words in options (c) and (e) eliminate those options as they are a misfit for the sentence.

We don’t have meet ups of consultations so option (d) is also eliminated.

We don’t even have meetings of consultations; ‘meetings of consultants’ would still have been correct. So, option (a) as well is unfit.

Option (b) hence is the right answer.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words given in the options in order to make them complete and meaningful.

Q. Naturally, _______ of these women has built a reputation all her own, and each is deserving ______ praise for their accomplishments.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 21 We have got the verb ‘has’ following the first blank that in itself is a hint that the blank must contain a singular subject. This eliminates all options other than (a) and (c). Also, ‘every of’ is wrong usage but ‘each of’ is the correct usage so, option (c) is the correct choice.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

Direction: Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word.

During the reign of Simeon, second son of Boris, which lasted from 893 to 927, Bulgaria reached a very high level of power and prosperity. Simeon, called the Great, is looked on by Bulgarians as their most _______ (1) ________ monarch and his reign as the most brilliant period of their history. He had spent his childhood at Constantinople and been educated there, and he became such an admirer of Greek civilization that he was nicknamed Hèmiargos. His instructors had done their work so well that Simeon remained _________ (2) _______ by the glamour of Constantinople throughout his life, and, although he might have laid the foundations of a solid empire in the Balkans, his one ambition was to conquer Byzantium and to be recognized as basileus—an ambition which was not to be fulfilled. His first campaign against the Greeks was not very fruitful, because the latter summoned the Magyars, already settled in Hungary, to their aid and they attacked Simeon from the north. Simeon in return called the Pechenegs, another _______ (3) ______ Tartar tribe, to his aid, but this merely resulted in their definite establishment in Rumania. During the twenty years of peace, which strange to say filled the middle of his reign (894-913), the internal development of Bulgaria made great ________ (4) ________. The administration was properly organized, commerce was _________ (5) ________, and agriculture flourished. In the wars against the Greeks which occupied his last years he was more successful, and _______ (6) ______ a severe defeat on them at Anchialo (the modern Ahiolu) in 917; but he was still unable to get from them what he wanted, and at last, in 921, he was ________ (7) ______ to proclaim himself basileus and autocrat of all Bulgars and Greeks, a title which nobody else recognized. He reappeared before Constantinople the same year, but effected nothing more than the customary devastation of the suburbs. The year 923 witnessed a solemn ________ (8) ______ between Rome and Constantinople; the Greeks were clever enough to prevent the Roman legates visiting Bulgaria on their return journey, and thereby administered a _______ (9) ______ to Simeon, who was anxious to see them and enter into direct relations with Rome. In the same year Simeon tried to make an _______ (10) ________ with the Arabs, but the ambassadors of the latter were intercepted by. the Greeks, who made it worth their while not to continue the journey to Bulgaria.

Q. What will come at a place of ___1___.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 22 Reading the paragraph till the blank, we see that the monarch is represented in good light and the tone is positive. Hence, the word 'capable', fits the blank correctly. Option D is the correct answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Direction: Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word.

During the reign of Simeon, second son of Boris, which lasted from 893 to 927, Bulgaria reached a very high level of power and prosperity. Simeon, called the Great, is looked on by Bulgarians as their most _______ (1) ________ monarch and his reign as the most brilliant period of their history. He had spent his childhood at Constantinople and been educated there, and he became such an admirer of Greek civilization that he was nicknamed Hèmiargos. His instructors had done their work so well that Simeon remained _________ (2) _______ by the glamour of Constantinople throughout his life, and, although he might have laid the foundations of a solid empire in the Balkans, his one ambition was to conquer Byzantium and to be recognized as basileus—an ambition which was not to be fulfilled. His first campaign against the Greeks was not very fruitful, because the latter summoned the Magyars, already settled in Hungary, to their aid and they attacked Simeon from the north. Simeon in return called the Pechenegs, another _______ (3) ______ Tartar tribe, to his aid, but this merely resulted in their definite establishment in Rumania. During the twenty years of peace, which strange to say filled the middle of his reign (894-913), the internal development of Bulgaria made great ________ (4) ________. The administration was properly organized, commerce was _________ (5) ________, and agriculture flourished. In the wars against the Greeks which occupied his last years he was more successful, and _______ (6) ______ a severe defeat on them at Anchialo (the modern Ahiolu) in 917; but he was still unable to get from them what he wanted, and at last, in 921, he was ________ (7) ______ to proclaim himself basileus and autocrat of all Bulgars and Greeks, a title which nobody else recognized. He reappeared before Constantinople the same year, but effected nothing more than the customary devastation of the suburbs. The year 923 witnessed a solemn ________ (8) ______ between Rome and Constantinople; the Greeks were clever enough to prevent the Roman legates visiting Bulgaria on their return journey, and thereby administered a _______ (9) ______ to Simeon, who was anxious to see them and enter into direct relations with Rome. In the same year Simeon tried to make an _______ (10) ________ with the Arabs, but the ambassadors of the latter were intercepted by. the Greeks, who made it worth their while not to continue the journey to Bulgaria.

Q. What will come in a place of ___2___.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 23 On reading the sentences preceding the blank, we see that Simeon was impressed by Constantinople. The blank is "_______ by the glamour of Constantinople throughout his life". The word 'spellbound' fits it both grammatically and contextually. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

Direction: Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word.

During the reign of Simeon, second son of Boris, which lasted from 893 to 927, Bulgaria reached a very high level of power and prosperity. Simeon, called the Great, is looked on by Bulgarians as their most _______ (1) ________ monarch and his reign as the most brilliant period of their history. He had spent his childhood at Constantinople and been educated there, and he became such an admirer of Greek civilization that he was nicknamed Hèmiargos. His instructors had done their work so well that Simeon remained _________ (2) _______ by the glamour of Constantinople throughout his life, and, although he might have laid the foundations of a solid empire in the Balkans, his one ambition was to conquer Byzantium and to be recognized as basileus—an ambition which was not to be fulfilled. His first campaign against the Greeks was not very fruitful, because the latter summoned the Magyars, already settled in Hungary, to their aid and they attacked Simeon from the north. Simeon in return called the Pechenegs, another _______ (3) ______ Tartar tribe, to his aid, but this merely resulted in their definite establishment in Rumania. During the twenty years of peace, which strange to say filled the middle of his reign (894-913), the internal development of Bulgaria made great ________ (4) ________. The administration was properly organized, commerce was _________ (5) ________, and agriculture flourished. In the wars against the Greeks which occupied his last years he was more successful, and _______ (6) ______ a severe defeat on them at Anchialo (the modern Ahiolu) in 917; but he was still unable to get from them what he wanted, and at last, in 921, he was ________ (7) ______ to proclaim himself basileus and autocrat of all Bulgars and Greeks, a title which nobody else recognized. He reappeared before Constantinople the same year, but effected nothing more than the customary devastation of the suburbs. The year 923 witnessed a solemn ________ (8) ______ between Rome and Constantinople; the Greeks were clever enough to prevent the Roman legates visiting Bulgaria on their return journey, and thereby administered a _______ (9) ______ to Simeon, who was anxious to see them and enter into direct relations with Rome. In the same year Simeon tried to make an _______ (10) ________ with the Arabs, but the ambassadors of the latter were intercepted by. the Greeks, who made it worth their while not to continue the journey to Bulgaria.

Q. What will come in a place of ___3___.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 24 Simeon called a tribe for help in fighting a war. The blank is "another _______ (3) ______ Tartar tribe". Thus, he would have called a 'fierce' tribe as it was for a war. Option C fits the blank correctly.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

Direction: Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word.

During the reign of Simeon, second son of Boris, which lasted from 893 to 927, Bulgaria reached a very high level of power and prosperity. Simeon, called the Great, is looked on by Bulgarians as their most _______ (1) ________ monarch and his reign as the most brilliant period of their history. He had spent his childhood at Constantinople and been educated there, and he became such an admirer of Greek civilization that he was nicknamed Hèmiargos. His instructors had done their work so well that Simeon remained _________ (2) _______ by the glamour of Constantinople throughout his life, and, although he might have laid the foundations of a solid empire in the Balkans, his one ambition was to conquer Byzantium and to be recognized as basileus—an ambition which was not to be fulfilled. His first campaign against the Greeks was not very fruitful, because the latter summoned the Magyars, already settled in Hungary, to their aid and they attacked Simeon from the north. Simeon in return called the Pechenegs, another _______ (3) ______ Tartar tribe, to his aid, but this merely resulted in their definite establishment in Rumania. During the twenty years of peace, which strange to say filled the middle of his reign (894-913), the internal development of Bulgaria made great ________ (4) ________. The administration was properly organized, commerce was _________ (5) ________, and agriculture flourished. In the wars against the Greeks which occupied his last years he was more successful, and _______ (6) ______ a severe defeat on them at Anchialo (the modern Ahiolu) in 917; but he was still unable to get from them what he wanted, and at last, in 921, he was ________ (7) ______ to proclaim himself basileus and autocrat of all Bulgars and Greeks, a title which nobody else recognized. He reappeared before Constantinople the same year, but effected nothing more than the customary devastation of the suburbs. The year 923 witnessed a solemn ________ (8) ______ between Rome and Constantinople; the Greeks were clever enough to prevent the Roman legates visiting Bulgaria on their return journey, and thereby administered a _______ (9) ______ to Simeon, who was anxious to see them and enter into direct relations with Rome. In the same year Simeon tried to make an _______ (10) ________ with the Arabs, but the ambassadors of the latter were intercepted by. the Greeks, who made it worth their while not to continue the journey to Bulgaria.

Q. What will come in a place of ___4___.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 25 The sentence immediately after the blank mentions that the nation made progress and agriculture flourished. Hence, the blank "development of Bulgaria made great ________ (4) ________" should be filled with the word 'strides'. Hence, option E is the correct answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

Direction: Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word.

During the reign of Simeon, second son of Boris, which lasted from 893 to 927, Bulgaria reached a very high level of power and prosperity. Simeon, called the Great, is looked on by Bulgarians as their most _______ (1) ________ monarch and his reign as the most brilliant period of their history. He had spent his childhood at Constantinople and been educated there, and he became such an admirer of Greek civilization that he was nicknamed Hèmiargos. His instructors had done their work so well that Simeon remained _________ (2) _______ by the glamour of Constantinople throughout his life, and, although he might have laid the foundations of a solid empire in the Balkans, his one ambition was to conquer Byzantium and to be recognized as basileus—an ambition which was not to be fulfilled. His first campaign against the Greeks was not very fruitful, because the latter summoned the Magyars, already settled in Hungary, to their aid and they attacked Simeon from the north. Simeon in return called the Pechenegs, another _______ (3) ______ Tartar tribe, to his aid, but this merely resulted in their definite establishment in Rumania. During the twenty years of peace, which strange to say filled the middle of his reign (894-913), the internal development of Bulgaria made great ________ (4) ________. The administration was properly organized, commerce was _________ (5) ________, and agriculture flourished. In the wars against the Greeks which occupied his last years he was more successful, and _______ (6) ______ a severe defeat on them at Anchialo (the modern Ahiolu) in 917; but he was still unable to get from them what he wanted, and at last, in 921, he was ________ (7) ______ to proclaim himself basileus and autocrat of all Bulgars and Greeks, a title which nobody else recognized. He reappeared before Constantinople the same year, but effected nothing more than the customary devastation of the suburbs. The year 923 witnessed a solemn ________ (8) ______ between Rome and Constantinople; the Greeks were clever enough to prevent the Roman legates visiting Bulgaria on their return journey, and thereby administered a _______ (9) ______ to Simeon, who was anxious to see them and enter into direct relations with Rome. In the same year Simeon tried to make an _______ (10) ________ with the Arabs, but the ambassadors of the latter were intercepted by. the Greeks, who made it worth their while not to continue the journey to Bulgaria.

Q. What will come in a place of ___5___.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 26 The blank is "commerce was _________ (5) ________," continuing with the positive tone of the sentence, the word 'encouraged' fits the blank contextually. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

Direction: Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word.

During the reign of Simeon, second son of Boris, which lasted from 893 to 927, Bulgaria reached a very high level of power and prosperity. Simeon, called the Great, is looked on by Bulgarians as their most _______ (1) ________ monarch and his reign as the most brilliant period of their history. He had spent his childhood at Constantinople and been educated there, and he became such an admirer of Greek civilization that he was nicknamed Hèmiargos. His instructors had done their work so well that Simeon remained _________ (2) _______ by the glamour of Constantinople throughout his life, and, although he might have laid the foundations of a solid empire in the Balkans, his one ambition was to conquer Byzantium and to be recognized as basileus—an ambition which was not to be fulfilled. His first campaign against the Greeks was not very fruitful, because the latter summoned the Magyars, already settled in Hungary, to their aid and they attacked Simeon from the north. Simeon in return called the Pechenegs, another _______ (3) ______ Tartar tribe, to his aid, but this merely resulted in their definite establishment in Rumania. During the twenty years of peace, which strange to say filled the middle of his reign (894-913), the internal development of Bulgaria made great ________ (4) ________. The administration was properly organized, commerce was _________ (5) ________, and agriculture flourished. In the wars against the Greeks which occupied his last years he was more successful, and _______ (6) ______ a severe defeat on them at Anchialo (the modern Ahiolu) in 917; but he was still unable to get from them what he wanted, and at last, in 921, he was ________ (7) ______ to proclaim himself basileus and autocrat of all Bulgars and Greeks, a title which nobody else recognized. He reappeared before Constantinople the same year, but effected nothing more than the customary devastation of the suburbs. The year 923 witnessed a solemn ________ (8) ______ between Rome and Constantinople; the Greeks were clever enough to prevent the Roman legates visiting Bulgaria on their return journey, and thereby administered a _______ (9) ______ to Simeon, who was anxious to see them and enter into direct relations with Rome. In the same year Simeon tried to make an _______ (10) ________ with the Arabs, but the ambassadors of the latter were intercepted by. the Greeks, who made it worth their while not to continue the journey to Bulgaria.

Q. What will come in a place of ___6___.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 27 The blank is "In the wars against the Greeks which occupied his last years he was more successful, and _______ (6) ______ a severe defeat on them at Anchialo". Hence, it is clear that he did not suffer a defeat but defeated them. The word 'inflicted' conveys this meaning. Hence, option E is the correct answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

Direction: Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word.

During the reign of Simeon, second son of Boris, which lasted from 893 to 927, Bulgaria reached a very high level of power and prosperity. Simeon, called the Great, is looked on by Bulgarians as their most _______ (1) ________ monarch and his reign as the most brilliant period of their history. He had spent his childhood at Constantinople and been educated there, and he became such an admirer of Greek civilization that he was nicknamed Hèmiargos. His instructors had done their work so well that Simeon remained _________ (2) _______ by the glamour of Constantinople throughout his life, and, although he might have laid the foundations of a solid empire in the Balkans, his one ambition was to conquer Byzantium and to be recognized as basileus—an ambition which was not to be fulfilled. His first campaign against the Greeks was not very fruitful, because the latter summoned the Magyars, already settled in Hungary, to their aid and they attacked Simeon from the north. Simeon in return called the Pechenegs, another _______ (3) ______ Tartar tribe, to his aid, but this merely resulted in their definite establishment in Rumania. During the twenty years of peace, which strange to say filled the middle of his reign (894-913), the internal development of Bulgaria made great ________ (4) ________. The administration was properly organized, commerce was _________ (5) ________, and agriculture flourished. In the wars against the Greeks which occupied his last years he was more successful, and _______ (6) ______ a severe defeat on them at Anchialo (the modern Ahiolu) in 917; but he was still unable to get from them what he wanted, and at last, in 921, he was ________ (7) ______ to proclaim himself basileus and autocrat of all Bulgars and Greeks, a title which nobody else recognized. He reappeared before Constantinople the same year, but effected nothing more than the customary devastation of the suburbs. The year 923 witnessed a solemn ________ (8) ______ between Rome and Constantinople; the Greeks were clever enough to prevent the Roman legates visiting Bulgaria on their return journey, and thereby administered a _______ (9) ______ to Simeon, who was anxious to see them and enter into direct relations with Rome. In the same year Simeon tried to make an _______ (10) ________ with the Arabs, but the ambassadors of the latter were intercepted by. the Greeks, who made it worth their while not to continue the journey to Bulgaria.

Q. What will come in a place of___7___.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 28 On reading the sentences preceding the blank, we see that he was not able to conquer Constantinople. The sentence containing the blank is "at last, in 921, he was ________ (7) ______ to proclaim himself ". The word 'obliged' fits the blank correctly. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

Direction: Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word.

During the reign of Simeon, second son of Boris, which lasted from 893 to 927, Bulgaria reached a very high level of power and prosperity. Simeon, called the Great, is looked on by Bulgarians as their most _______ (1) ________ monarch and his reign as the most brilliant period of their history. He had spent his childhood at Constantinople and been educated there, and he became such an admirer of Greek civilization that he was nicknamed Hèmiargos. His instructors had done their work so well that Simeon remained _________ (2) _______ by the glamour of Constantinople throughout his life, and, although he might have laid the foundations of a solid empire in the Balkans, his one ambition was to conquer Byzantium and to be recognized as basileus—an ambition which was not to be fulfilled. His first campaign against the Greeks was not very fruitful, because the latter summoned the Magyars, already settled in Hungary, to their aid and they attacked Simeon from the north. Simeon in return called the Pechenegs, another _______ (3) ______ Tartar tribe, to his aid, but this merely resulted in their definite establishment in Rumania. During the twenty years of peace, which strange to say filled the middle of his reign (894-913), the internal development of Bulgaria made great ________ (4) ________. The administration was properly organized, commerce was _________ (5) ________, and agriculture flourished. In the wars against the Greeks which occupied his last years he was more successful, and _______ (6) ______ a severe defeat on them at Anchialo (the modern Ahiolu) in 917; but he was still unable to get from them what he wanted, and at last, in 921, he was ________ (7) ______ to proclaim himself basileus and autocrat of all Bulgars and Greeks, a title which nobody else recognized. He reappeared before Constantinople the same year, but effected nothing more than the customary devastation of the suburbs. The year 923 witnessed a solemn ________ (8) ______ between Rome and Constantinople; the Greeks were clever enough to prevent the Roman legates visiting Bulgaria on their return journey, and thereby administered a _______ (9) ______ to Simeon, who was anxious to see them and enter into direct relations with Rome. In the same year Simeon tried to make an _______ (10) ________ with the Arabs, but the ambassadors of the latter were intercepted by. the Greeks, who made it worth their while not to continue the journey to Bulgaria.

Q. What will come in a place of___8___.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 29 The blank is "witnessed a solemn ________ (8) ______ between Rome and Constantinople". The word 'solemn' indicates that the event was a formal and dignified one. Hence, the blank should be filled with the word 'reconciliation'. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

Direction: Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word.

During the reign of Simeon, second son of Boris, which lasted from 893 to 927, Bulgaria reached a very high level of power and prosperity. Simeon, called the Great, is looked on by Bulgarians as their most _______ (1) ________ monarch and his reign as the most brilliant period of their history. He had spent his childhood at Constantinople and been educated there, and he became such an admirer of Greek civilization that he was nicknamed Hèmiargos. His instructors had done their work so well that Simeon remained _________ (2) _______ by the glamour of Constantinople throughout his life, and, although he might have laid the foundations of a solid empire in the Balkans, his one ambition was to conquer Byzantium and to be recognized as basileus—an ambition which was not to be fulfilled. His first campaign against the Greeks was not very fruitful, because the latter summoned the Magyars, already settled in Hungary, to their aid and they attacked Simeon from the north. Simeon in return called the Pechenegs, another _______ (3) ______ Tartar tribe, to his aid, but this merely resulted in their definite establishment in Rumania. During the twenty years of peace, which strange to say filled the middle of his reign (894-913), the internal development of Bulgaria made great ________ (4) ________. The administration was properly organized, commerce was _________ (5) ________, and agriculture flourished. In the wars against the Greeks which occupied his last years he was more successful, and _______ (6) ______ a severe defeat on them at Anchialo (the modern Ahiolu) in 917; but he was still unable to get from them what he wanted, and at last, in 921, he was ________ (7) ______ to proclaim himself basileus and autocrat of all Bulgars and Greeks, a title which nobody else recognized. He reappeared before Constantinople the same year, but effected nothing more than the customary devastation of the suburbs. The year 923 witnessed a solemn ________ (8) ______ between Rome and Constantinople; the Greeks were clever enough to prevent the Roman legates visiting Bulgaria on their return journey, and thereby administered a _______ (9) ______ to Simeon, who was anxious to see them and enter into direct relations with Rome. In the same year Simeon tried to make an _______ (10) ________ with the Arabs, but the ambassadors of the latter were intercepted by. the Greeks, who made it worth their while not to continue the journey to Bulgaria.

Q. What will come in a place of___9___.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 30 The sentence before the blank mentions "Greeks were clever enough". Also, from the passage we know that the Greeks were his enemy. Thus, the blank has to be filled with the word 'rebuff'. Option E is the correct answer.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 31

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

The given table chart shows the number of birds in four different forests i.e. A, B, C and D and also given the sum of the number of birds and reptiles in four different forests and the ratio of the number of birds to mammals in four different forests.

Note: The total animal populations = The number of birds + The number of mammals + The number of reptiles

Q. Find the difference between the total number of reptiles and mammals in forest D and the number of mammals in forest A?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 31 Forest A

The number of reptiles = 410 – 250 = 160

The number of mammals = 250 * 4/5 = 200

The total animal populations = 250 + 160 + 200 = 610

Forest B:

The number of reptiles = 350 – 160 = 190

The number of mammals = 160 * 3/2 = 240

The total animal populations = 160 + 190 + 240 = 590

Forest C:

The number of reptiles = 510 – 300 = 210

The number of mammals = 300 * 7/6 = 350

The total animal populations = 300 + 210 + 350 = 860

Forest D:

The number of reptiles = 320 – 220 = 100

The number of mammals = 220 * 3/4 = 165

The total animal populations = 220 + 100 + 165 = 485

The total number of reptiles and mammals in forest D = 100 + 165 = 265

Required difference = 265 – 200 = 65

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 32

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

The given table chart shows the number of birds in four different forests i.e. A, B, C and D and also given the sum of the number of birds and reptiles in four different forests and the ratio of the number of birds to mammals in four different forests.

Note: The total animal populations = The number of birds + The number of mammals + The number of reptiles

Q. If the total animal population in forest E is equal to 75% of the total population in forest C and the ratio of the number of birds, reptiles and mammals in forest E is 3:7:5 respectively, then the number of birds in forest E?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 32 Forest A

The number of reptiles = 410 – 250 = 160

The number of mammals = 250 * 4/5 = 200

The total animal populations = 250 + 160 + 200 = 610

Forest B:

The number of reptiles = 350 – 160 = 190

The number of mammals = 160 * 3/2 = 240

The total animal populations = 160 + 190 + 240 = 590

Forest C:

The number of reptiles = 510 – 300 = 210

The number of mammals = 300 * 7/6 = 350

The total animal populations = 300 + 210 + 350 = 860

Forest D:

The number of reptiles = 320 – 220 = 100

The number of mammals = 220 * 3/4 = 165

The total animal populations = 220 + 100 + 165 = 485

The total animal population in forest E = 860 * 75/100 = 645

The number of birds in forest E = 645 * 3/(3 + 7 + 5) = 645 * 3/15 = 129

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 33

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

The given table chart shows the number of birds in four different forests i.e. A, B, C and D and also given the sum of the number of birds and reptiles in four different forests and the ratio of the number of birds to mammals in four different forests.

Note: The total animal populations = The number of birds + The number of mammals + The number of reptiles

Q. Find the ratio of the total animal population in forest D to the number of mammals in forest C?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 33 Forest A

The number of reptiles = 410 – 250 = 160

The number of mammals = 250 * 4/5 = 200

The total animal populations = 250 + 160 + 200 = 610

Forest B:

The number of reptiles = 350 – 160 = 190

The number of mammals = 160 * 3/2 = 240

The total animal populations = 160 + 190 + 240 = 590

Forest C:

The number of reptiles = 510 – 300 = 210

The number of mammals = 300 * 7/6 = 350

The total animal populations = 300 + 210 + 350 = 860

Forest D:

The number of reptiles = 320 – 220 = 100

The number of mammals = 220 * 3/4 = 165

The total animal populations = 220 + 100 + 165 = 485

Required ratio = 485:350 = 97:70

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 34

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

The given table chart shows the number of birds in four different forests i.e. A, B, C and D and also given the sum of the number of birds and reptiles in four different forests and the ratio of the number of birds to mammals in four different forests.

Note: The total animal populations = The number of birds + The number of mammals + The number of reptiles

Q. The total number of mammals in forest B is what percentage of the total number of reptiles in forests B and C together?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 34 Forest A

The number of reptiles = 410 – 250 = 160

The number of mammals = 250 * 4/5 = 200

The total animal populations = 250 + 160 + 200 = 610

Forest B:

The number of reptiles = 350 – 160 = 190

The number of mammals = 160 * 3/2 = 240

The total animal populations = 160 + 190 + 240 = 590

Forest C:

The number of reptiles = 510 – 300 = 210

The number of mammals = 300 * 7/6 = 350

The total animal populations = 300 + 210 + 350 = 860

Forest D:

The number of reptiles = 320 – 220 = 100

The number of mammals = 220 * 3/4 = 165

The total animal populations = 220 + 100 + 165 = 485

The total number of reptiles in forests B and C together = 210 + 190 = 400

Required percentage = 240/400 * 100 = 60%.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 35

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

The given table chart shows the number of birds in four different forests i.e. A, B, C and D and also given the sum of the number of birds and reptiles in four different forests and the ratio of the number of birds to mammals in four different forests.

Note: The total animal populations = The number of birds + The number of mammals + The number of reptiles

Q. If the ratio of the number of reptiles to fishes in forest A is 4:9, then the total number of birds and mammals in forest A is what percentage more than the number of fishes in forest A?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 35 Forest A

The number of reptiles = 410 – 250 = 160

The number of mammals = 250 * 4/5 = 200

The total animal populations = 250 + 160 + 200 = 610

Forest B:

The number of reptiles = 350 – 160 = 190

The number of mammals = 160 * 3/2 = 240

The total animal populations = 160 + 190 + 240 = 590

Forest C:

The number of reptiles = 510 – 300 = 210

The number of mammals = 300 * 7/6 = 350

The total animal populations = 300 + 210 + 350 = 860

Forest D:

The number of reptiles = 320 – 220 = 100

The number of mammals = 220 * 3/4 = 165

The total animal populations = 220 + 100 + 165 = 485

The number of fishes in forest A = 160 * 9/4 = 360

The total number of birds and mammals in forest A = 250 + 200 = 450

Required percentage = (450 – 360)/360 * 100 = 90/360 * 100 = 25%

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 36

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

68, 71, 65, 74, 62, ?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 36 The series follows the following pattern

68 + 3 = 71

71 - 6 = 65

65 + 9 = 74

74 - 12 = 62

62 + 15 = 77

Hence, the correct option is (E).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 37

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

63, 80, 99, ?, 143, 168

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 37 The series follows the following pattern

82 – 1 = 63

92 – 1 = 80

102 – 1 = 99

112 – 1 = 120

122 – 1 = 143

132 – 1 = 168

Hence, the correct option is (E).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 38

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

12, 15, 24, 39, 60, ?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 38 The series follows the following pattern

12 + 3 = 15

15 + 9 = 24

24 + 15 = 39

39 + 21 = 60

60 + 27 = 87

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 39

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

7, 8, 17, 52, ?, 1046

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 39 The series follows the following pattern

7 × 1 + 1 = 8

8 × 2 + 1 = 17

17 × 3 + 1 = 52

52 × 4 + 1 = 209

209 × 5 + 1 = 1046

Hence, the correct option is (A).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 40

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

16, 160, 281, 381, ?, 526

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 40 The series follows the following pattern

16 + 144 = 160

160 + 121 = 281

281 + 100 = 381

381 + 81 = 462

462 + 64 = 526

Hence, the correct option is (C).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 41

Jar A contains (x+15) liters of milk and x liters of water and jar B contains 75 liters of the mixture of milk and water which contain x liters of water. If the mixture of both jars is mixed, then the ratio of milk to water becomes 3:1. Find the initial quantity of mixture in jar A?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 41 Let the quantity of water in jar B = x

And the quantity of milk in jar B = 75 – x

The initial quantity of the mixture in jar A = x + 15 + x = 2x + 15

(x + 15 + 75 – x)/(x + x) = 3/1

90 = 3 * 2x

x = 90/6

x = 15

The initial quantity of mixture in jar A = 2 * 15 + 15 = 30 + 15 = 45 liters

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 42

A boat covers 60 km against the stream and 200 km along with stream in 25 hours. If the speed of the stream is 2/3rd of the speed of the boat in still water, then find the time taken by the boat to cover 48 km in still water?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 42 Let the speed of the boat in still water = 3x

And the speed of the stream = 2x

200/(3x + 2x) + 60/(3x – 2x) = 25

200/5x + 60/1x = 25

40 + 60 = 25 * x

x = 100/25

x = 4

The speed of the boat in still water = 3 * 4 = 12 km/hr

Required time = 48/12 = 4 hours

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 43

A bike starts from Delhi to Mumbai at the speed of x km/hr at 6 am and the car starts from Mumbai to Delhi at the speed of (x+30) km/hr at 7 am. If they meet at 10 am and the total distance between Delhi to Mumbai is 510 km, then find the speed of the car?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 43 Let the speed of the bike = x km/hr

And the speed of the car = (x + 30) km/hr

510 = x * (10.00 – 6.00) + (x + 30) * (10.00 – 7.00)

510 = x * 4 + (x + 30) * 3

510 = 4x + 3x + 90

7x = 420

x = 60

The speed of the car = 60 + 30 = 90 km/hr

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 44

The number of boys in school A is 60% of the total number of students in that school and the ratio of the number of girls in school A to school B is 3:2. Find the ratio of the total number of students in school A to school B, if the number of boys in schools A and B are equal?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 44 Let the total number of students in school A = 5x

The number of boys in school A = 5x * 60/100 = 3x

The number of girls in school A = 5x – 3x = 2x

The number of boys in school B = 3x

The number of girls in school B = 2x * 2/3 = 4x/3

The total number of students in school B = 3x + 4x/3 = 9x/3 + 4x/3 = 13x/3

Required ratio = 5x:(13x/3) = 15:13

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 45

A box contains 20 blue balls, m yellow balls and n green balls and the probability of selecting a yellow ball is 1/2 and the probability of selecting a green ball is 1/6. Find 75% of the total number of balls in the box?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 45 The total number of balls in the box = 20 + m + n

mC1/(20 + m + n)C1 = ½

2m = 20 + m + n

m = 20 + n ---(1)

nC1/(20 + m + n)C1 = ⅙

6n = 20 + m + n ---(2)

From (1) and (2),

6n = 20 + 20 + n + n

6n – 2n = 40

4n = 40

n = 10

m = 20 + 10

m = 30

The total number of balls in the box = 20 + 30 + 10 = 60

75% of the total number of balls in the box = 60 * 75/100 = 45

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 46

The speed of a boat along with the current and against the current is 16 km/hr and 12 km/hr respectively. What is the speed of the boat (in km/hr) in still water?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 46 Let the speed of the boat in still water be u and the speed of current be v.

Speed of boat along the stream = u + v = 16 km/hr

Speed of boat against the stream = u - v = 12 km/hr

Speed of boat in still water = (½)×[(u+v)+(u−v)]=(1/2)×28

∴ Speed of boat in still water = 14 km/hr

Hence, the correct option is (C).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 47

Four friends rented a house. Kamal used the house for 3 months, Vibhor used it for 5 months, Hari for 8 months, and Kishor for 2 months. Find the rent of the house if Kamal’s share of rent is Rs. 3,000.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 47 Given

Kamal used a house for 3 months.

Vibhor used a house for 5 months.

Hari and Kishor used a house for 2 months.

Share of Kamal’s rent = Rs. 3,000

Ratio of share of Kamal, Vibhor, Hari and Kishor = 3 : 5 : 8 : 2

Let the rent of the house is Rs. x.

According to question:

⇒ 3x/18 = 3000

⇒ x = (3000×18)/3

⇒ x = 18,000

∴ Rent is Rs.18,000.

Hence, the correct option is (E).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 48

A man can travel 50 km in 2.5 hours and 200 km in 4 hours. Find his average speed.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 48 Given: Time taken to travel 50 km = 2.5 hours

Time taken to travel 200 km = 4 hours

Average speed = Total distance/total time = (250/6.5) km/hr

Average speed = 38.46 km/hr

∴ The average speed is 38.46 km/hr.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 49

The average of 12 numbers is 35. The average of the first nine numbers is 40. The average of the last two numbers is 25. Find the tenth number.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 49 Given

Average of 12 numbers = 35

Average of first nine numbers = 40

Average of last two numbers = 25

Formula: Average = sum of all item/number of item

Sum of 12 numbers = (35 × 12) = 420

⇒ Sum of 9 numbers = (40 × 9) = 360

⇒ Sum of last two numbers = (25 × 2) = 50

∴ Value of 10th number = 420 – 360 – 50 = 10

Hence, the correct option is (B).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 50

If the difference between C.I. and S.I. for 2 years is Rs. 16 and the rate of interest is 10%, then find the time if the simple interest on the same principal amounts to Rs. 640?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 50 Let the principle is P.

For 2 years, S.I. - C.I. = Rs. 16

Rate of Interest = 10%

Simple interest = (P×R×T)/100

Difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years = P × (R/100)2

⇒ P × 102/1002 = 16

⇒ P = Rs. 1600

Simple interest = (P×R×T)/100

⇒ 640 = (1600×10×T)/100

⇒ T = 4 years

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 51

A mixture of 20 litres of alcohol and water contains 15% of alcohol. How much alcohol should be added to the mixture so that the mixture contains 20% of alcohol.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 51 Given

Quantity of mixture = 20 litres

Quantity of alcohol in mixture = 15%

Let x litres of alcohol is added to mixture.

Quantity of alcohol in 20 litres = 15% of 20 = 20×(15/100) = 3 litres

As per question,

⇒ (3+x)/ (20+x) = 20/100

⇒ 5(3 + x) = 20 + x

⇒ 4x = 5

⇒ x = 1.25 litres

∴ 1.25 litres of alcohol is added in the mixture to make 20% alcohol in mixture.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 52

Three years ago, Anuj’s age was 3 times the age of Raman and the sum of their ages were 96 years. Find the present age of Raman.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 52 Given

Anuj’s age = 3(Raman’s age)

Anuj’s age + Raman age = 96

Let the Raman’s age three years ago was x years.

Anuj’s age = 3x

⇒ 3x + x = 96

⇒ x = 24

∴ Present age of Raman = 24 + 3 = 27 years

Hence, the correct option is (B).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 53

Mr. Y works as four times as fast as Mr. Z and takes 12 days less than to do a piece of work than Mr. Z. Find out in how many days Mr. Z can complete a work.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 53 Given

Mr. Y efficiency = 4(Mr. Z efficiency)

Let the Mr. Z completes a work in x days.

Then, Y completes in (x/4) days

According to question:

⇒ x – (x4)/ = 12

⇒ (3x/4) = 12

⇒ x = 16 days

∴ Z completes a work in 16 days.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 54

Tap A can fill a tank in 5 hours and Tap B can empty a tank in 8 hours. Both the taps are open together. In how much time tank is filled?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 54 Given

Tap A filled tank = 5 hours

Tap B empty a tank = 8 hours

Tap A filled a tank in 1 hour = ⅕

Tap B empty a tank in 1 hour = ⅛

Time required to filled a tank = 1/5 – ⅛

= 3/40 = 40/3 hours

∴ Time required to fill a tank is 40/3 hours.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 55

A dice is rolled once. Find the probability of getting a prime even number on a dice.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 55 Given: A dice is rolled once

Probability = (Number of favorable outcomes)/(Total number of outcomes)

Total number of outcomes = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

The only prime and even number is 2.

∴ Required Probability = 1/6

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 56

What approximate value should come in the place of (?) in the following questions?

215.84 ÷√36.12 * √? = 11.98 * 15.23

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 56 215.84 ÷√36.12 * √? = 11.98 * 15.23

216 ÷√36 * √? = 12 * 15

216 ÷ 6 * √? = 180

36 * √? = 180

√? = 5

? = 25

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 57

What approximate value should come in the place of (?) in the following questions?

12.04% of 1499.90 + ? = 900.12 ÷ 3.90

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 57 12.04% of 1499.90 + ? = 900.12 ÷ 3.98

12 * 1500/100 + ? = 900 ÷ 4

180 + ? = 225

? = 45

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 58

What approximate value should come in the place of (?) in the following questions?

(340.25 + √399) ÷ ? = 209.90 ÷ 7.09

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 58 (340.25 + √399) ÷ ? = 209.90 ÷ 7.09

(340 + √400) ÷ ? = 210 ÷ 7

(340 + 20) ÷ ? = 30

360 ÷ ? = 30

? = 12

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 59

What approximate value should come in the place of (?) in the following questions?

178.09 + 12.082 – 209.05 - ? = 8.752

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 59 178.09 + 12.082 – 209.05 - ? = 8.752

178 + 144 – 209 - ? = 81

113 = ? + 81

? = 113 – 81

? = 32

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 60

What approximate value should come in the place of (?) in the following questions?

24.87% of 599.89 - 10.09% of 749.78 = ? ÷ 1.98

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 60 24.87% of 599.89 - 10.09% of 749.78 = ?÷ 1.98

150 – 75 = ? ÷ 2

? = 75 * 2

? = 150

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 61

What value should come in the place of (?) in the following questions.

4? × (225)1/2 = 248 ÷ 8 + 929

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 61 4x × (225)1/2 = 248 ÷ 8 + 929

4x * 15 = (248/8) + 929

4x = (31 + 929)/15

4x = 64

4x = 43

x = 3

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 62

What value should come in the place of (?) in the following questions.

450 ÷ 15 + 208 ÷ 8 - 16 = ?2 - 41

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 62 450 ÷ 15 + 208 ÷ 8 - 16 = x2 - 41

(450/15) + (208/8) - 16 + 41 = x2

30 + 26 - 16 + 41 = x2

x2 = 81

x = 9

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 63

What value should come in the place of (?) in the following questions.

256(1/8) * 642 = 16a

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 63 256(1/8) * 642 = 16a

44/8 * 43 * 2 = 42a

1/2 + 6 = 2a

13/4 = a

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 64

Jaya bought a hair dryer for Rs.x and she sold it to Prabhu at a profit of 10%. Prabhu sold it to Keerthi at a loss of 10% and Keerthi sold it to Preethi at a profit of 20% and the amount paid by Preethi is Rs. (x + 470). Find the amount paid by Jaya.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 64 x * 110/100 * 90/100 * 120/100 = x + 470

x * 11/10 * 9/10 * 6/5 = x + 470

594x/500 = x + 470

594x = 500x + 235000

94x = 235000

x = Rs.2500

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 65

If the diameter of a circle is equal to the side of a square having perimeter 280 cm, then find the difference between the area of the square and that of the circle?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 65 Let us take, diameter = d, radius = r and side of square = a.

Perimeter of square = 4a = 280

a=280/4 = 70cm

d=a = 70cm

r = d/2 =35

Area of square = a2 = 70 * 70 = 4900 cm2

Area of circle = πr2 = 22/7 * 35* 35 = 3850 cm2

Required difference = 4900 – 3850 = 1050 cm2

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 66

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table and facing inside the circle, but not necessarily in the same order.

Q sits second to the left of P. Two persons sit between P and S who sits adjacent to U.R sits third to the right of U and three persons sit between R and T. V sits second to the left of T. Four persons sit between W and V when counted from the left of W.

Q. Who among the following person sits to the immediate left of Q?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 66 Final arrangement

We have,

  • Q sits second to the left of P.
  • Two persons sit between P and S.

From the above condition, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • S sits adjacent to U.
  • R sits third to the right of U.
  • Three persons sit between R and T.

Again we have,

  • V sits second to the left of T.
  • Four persons sit between W and V when counted from the left of W.

So Case1 gets eliminated. HenceCase2 becomes the final arrangement.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 67

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table and facing inside the circle, but not necessarily in the same order.

Q sits second to the left of P. Two persons sit between P and S who sits adjacent to U.R sits third to the right of U and three persons sit between R and T. V sits second to the left of T. Four persons sit between W and V when counted from the left of W.

Q. How many persons sit between P and S when counted from the left of P?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 67 Final arrangement

We have,

  • Q sits second to the left of P.
  • Two persons sit between P and S.

From the above condition, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • S sits adjacent to U.
  • R sits third to the right of U.
  • Three persons sit between R and T.

Again we have,

  • V sits second to the left of T.
  • Four persons sit between W and V when counted from the left of W.

So Case1 gets eliminated. Hence Case2 becomes the final arrangement.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 68

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table and facing inside the circle, but not necessarily in the same order.

Q sits second to the left of P. Two persons sit between P and S who sits adjacent to U.R sits third to the right of U and three persons sit between R and T. V sits second to the left of T. Four persons sit between W and V when counted from the left of W.

Q. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Find the one who doesn’t belong to that group.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 68 Final arrangement

We have,

  • Q sits second to the left of P.
  • Two persons sit between P and S.

From the above condition, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • S sits adjacent to U.
  • R sits third to the right of U.
  • Three persons sit between R and T.

Again we have,

  • V sits second to the left of T.
  • Four persons sit between W and V when counted from the left of W.

So Case1 gets eliminated. Hence Case2 becomes the final arrangement.

(Except d, the first person sits second to the right of the second person)

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 69

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table and facing inside the circle, but not necessarily in the same order.

Q sits second to the left of P. Two persons sit between P and S who sits adjacent to U.R sits third to the right of U and three persons sit between R and T. V sits second to the left of T. Four persons sit between W and V when counted from the left of W.

Q. If W is related to Q and T is related to S in a certain way. Then, P is related to who among the following persons?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 69 Final arrangement

We have,

  • Q sits second to the left of P.
  • Two persons sit between P and S.

From the above condition, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • S sits adjacent to U.
  • R sits third to the right of U.
  • Three persons sit between R and T.

Again we have,

  • V sits second to the left of T.
  • Four persons sit between W and V when counted from the left of W.

So Case1 gets eliminated. Hence Case2 becomes the final arrangement.

(Except d, the first person sits second to the right of the second person)

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 70

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table and facing inside the circle, but not necessarily in the same order.

Q sits second to the left of P. Two persons sit between P and S who sits adjacent to U.R sits third to the right of U and three persons sit between R and T. V sits second to the left of T. Four persons sit between W and V when counted from the left of W.

Q. Who among the following pair of persons sit adjacent to V?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 70 Final arrangement

We have,

  • Q sits second to the left of P.
  • Two persons sit between P and S.

From the above condition, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • S sits adjacent to U.
  • R sits third to the right of U.
  • Three persons sit between R and T.

Again we have,

  • V sits second to the left of T.
  • Four persons sit between W and V when counted from the left of W.

So Case1 gets eliminated. Hence Case2 becomes the final arrangement.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 71

Directions: In the question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements and select the appropriate option.

Statements:

1. Some P are D.

2. All C are A.

3. No P is A.

Conclusions:

I. No C is P.

II. No C is D.

III. Some A are definitely D.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 71

From all the diagrams we can see that all C are A and No P is A so no C is P.

From all the diagrams we can see that Some C maybe D.

From all the diagrams we can see that Some A may/may not D.

So, we can say that only I conclusion follow.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 72

Directions: In the question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements and select the appropriate option.

Statements:

1. All C are X.

2. All X are P.

3. No Q is C.

Conclusions:

I. Some X are not Q.

II. Some Q may be both X and P.

III. Some P are not Q.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 72

From all the diagrams we can see that all C those are part of X and P can’t be Q so conclusions I, III follows.

From all the diagrams we can see that Some Q may be both X and P.

So, we can say that only all I, II, III conclusion follows.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 73

Directions: In the question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements and select the appropriate option.

Statements:

1. No F is E.

2. No E is C.

3. No Y is E.

Conclusions:

I. Some F are C.

II. Some Y are F.

III. Some C are Y.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 73

From both the diagrams, we can see that Some F may/may not be C.

From both the diagrams, we can see that Some Y may/may not be F.

From both the diagrams, we can see that Some C may/may not be Y.

So, we can say that no conclusion follows.

Hence, the correct option is (E).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 74

Directions: In the question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements and select the appropriate option.

Statements:

1. All P are T.

2. Some T are J.

3. Some X are J.

Conclusions:

I. Some X may be P.

II. No J is p.

III. Some X may be both J and T.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 74

From all the diagrams we can see that Some X may be P.

From all the diagrams we can see that Some J may be P.

From all the diagrams we can see that Some X may be both J and T.

So, we can say that only I, III conclusion follows.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 75

Directions: In the question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements and select the appropriate option.

Statements:

1. All H are E.

2. All E are D.

3. All D are M.

Conclusions:

I. Some M are not H.

II. Some D are not H.

III. Some E are not M.

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 75

We can see from the diagram that when all H, E, D, M congruent then no conclusion follows.

Hence, the correct option is (E).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 76

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Point M is 12m to the west of point N which is 18m to the north of point O. Point Q is 24m to the north of point P which is 10m to the east of point O. Point R is 5m to the west of point Q. Point T is 15m to the east of point S which is 12m to the south of point R.

Q. If point U is north of point P and east of point S, then what is the shortest distance between Point R and Point U?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 76 Final Arrangement

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 77

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Point M is 12m to the west of point N which is 18m to the north of point O. Point Q is 24m to the north of point P which is 10m to the east of point O. Point R is 5m to the west of point Q. Point T is 15m to the east of point S which is 12m to the south of point R.

Q. What is the direction of Point T with respect to Point O?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 77 Final Arrangement

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 78

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Point M is 12m to the west of point N which is 18m to the north of point O. Point Q is 24m to the north of point P which is 10m to the east of point O. Point R is 5m to the west of point Q. Point T is 15m to the east of point S which is 12m to the south of point R.

Q. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Find the one which doesn’t belong to that group?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 78 Final Arrangement

(All the options except option D, the direction of the second person is Southwest of the first person)

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 79

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

8 persons Amar, Bikram, Charan, Deepak, Edward, Flint, Gautham and Hari are sitting in 2 parallel rows. Both the rows are facing the north and 4 persons are sitting in each of the rows. The rows are arranged such that exactly one person from the second row sits behind a person from the first row. Each one of them likes a different colour among yellow, blue, orange, red, green, white, black and cyan. Further, the following information is known about them.

Amar sits behind the person who likes yellow. The person who likes blue is sitting to the left of Bikram and he is the only neighbour of Bikram. Amar and Bikram are not sitting in the same row. The person who likes yellow is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Amar is sitting adjacent to the person who likes green. The person who likes green is not sitting behind the person who likes blue. Charan is sitting behind the person who likes cyan. Charan does not like green. The persons who like red and orange are sitting adjacent to each other. None of them is a neighbour of the person who likes green. Charan does not like red. Deepak likes white. Flint is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Edward does not like red but he is a neighbour of Amar. Gautham does not like blue.

Q. Who likes red?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 79 The person who likes blue is the only neighbour of Bikram and he is sitting to the left of Bikram. Therefore, Bikram must be sitting at the right corner. Bikram and Amar are not sitting in the same row. Therefore, Amar must be sitting in row 2. Amar sits behind the person who likes yellow. The person who likes yellow is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue.

Amar is sitting adjacent to the person who likes green. The person who likes green is not sitting behind the person who likes blue. Therefore, the person who likes green must be sitting at the left corner of row 2. Charan is sitting behind the person who likes cyan. Charan does not like green. Therefore, Charan must be sitting behind B and B must be liking cyan.

The persons who like red and orange are sitting adjacent to each other. None of them is a neighbour of the person who likes green. Therefore, Charan and his neighbour must be liking red and orange. Charan does not like red. Therefore, Charan must be liking orange and his neighbour must be liking red. Deepak likes white. Therefore, Deepak must be sitting at the left corner of row 1. Amar must be liking black.

Flint is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Therefore, Flint must be liking yellow. Edward does not like red but he is a neighbour of A. Therefore, Edward must be liking green. Gautham does not like blue. Therefore, Gautham must be liking red and Harish must be liking blue. The final arrangement is as follows:

Gautham likes red.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 80

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

8 persons Amar, Bikram, Charan, Deepak, Edward, Flint, Gautham and Hari are sitting in 2 parallel rows. Both the rows are facing the north and 4 persons are sitting in each of the rows. The rows are arranged such that exactly one person from the second row sits behind a person from the first row. Each one of them likes a different colour among yellow, blue, orange, red, green, white, black and cyan. Further, the following information is known about them.

Amar sits behind the person who likes yellow. The person who likes blue is sitting to the left of Bikram and he is the only neighbour of Bikram. Amar and Bikram are not sitting in the same row. The person who likes yellow is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Amar is sitting adjacent to the person who likes green. The person who likes green is not sitting behind the person who likes blue. Charan is sitting behind the person who likes cyan. Charan does not like green. The persons who like red and orange are sitting adjacent to each other. None of them is a neighbour of the person who likes green. Charan does not like red. Deepak likes white. Flint is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Edward does not like red but he is a neighbour of Amar. Gautham does not like blue.

Q. Who is sitting behind Flint?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 80 The person who likes blue is the only neighbour of Bikram and he is sitting to the left of Bikram. Therefore, Bikram must be sitting at the right corner. Bikram and Amar are not sitting in the same row. Therefore, Amar must be sitting in row 2. Amar sits behind the person who likes yellow. The person who likes yellow is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue.

Amar is sitting adjacent to the person who likes green. The person who likes green is not sitting behind the person who likes blue. Therefore, the person who likes green must be sitting at the left corner of row 2. Charan is sitting behind the person who likes cyan. Charan does not like green. Therefore, Charan must be sitting behind B and B must be liking cyan.

The persons who like red and orange are sitting adjacent to each other. None of them is a neighbour of the person who likes green. Therefore, Charan and his neighbour must be liking red and orange. Charan does not like red. Therefore, Charan must be liking orange and his neighbour must be liking red. Deepak likes white. Therefore, Deepak must be sitting at the left corner of row 1. Amar must be liking black.

Flint is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Therefore, Flint must be liking yellow. Edward does not like red but he is a neighbour of A. Therefore, Edward must be liking green. Gautham does not like blue. Therefore, Gautham must be liking red and Harish must be liking blue. The final arrangement is as follows:

Amar is sitting behind Flint.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 81

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

8 persons Amar, Bikram, Charan, Deepak, Edward, Flint, Gautham and Hari are sitting in 2 parallel rows. Both the rows are facing the north and 4 persons are sitting in each of the rows. The rows are arranged such that exactly one person from the second row sits behind a person from the first row. Each one of them likes a different colour among yellow, blue, orange, red, green, white, black and cyan. Further, the following information is known about them.

Amar sits behind the person who likes yellow. The person who likes blue is sitting to the left of Bikram and he is the only neighbour of Bikram. Amar and Bikram are not sitting in the same row. The person who likes yellow is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Amar is sitting adjacent to the person who likes green. The person who likes green is not sitting behind the person who likes blue. Charan is sitting behind the person who likes cyan. Charan does not like green. The persons who like red and orange are sitting adjacent to each other. None of them is a neighbour of the person who likes green. Charan does not like red. Deepak likes white. Flint is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Edward does not like red but he is a neighbour of Amar. Gautham does not like blue.

Q. What colour does the person sitting behind the person who likes white like?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 81 The person who likes blue is the only neighbour of Bikram and he is sitting to the left of Bikram. Therefore, Bikram must be sitting at the right corner. Bikram and Amar are not sitting in the same row. Therefore, Amar must be sitting in row 2. Amar sits behind the person who likes yellow. The person who likes yellow is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue.

Amar is sitting adjacent to the person who likes green. The person who likes green is not sitting behind the person who likes blue. Therefore, the person who likes green must be sitting at the left corner of row 2. Charan is sitting behind the person who likes cyan. Charan does not like green. Therefore, Charan must be sitting behind B and B must be liking cyan.

The persons who like red and orange are sitting adjacent to each other. None of them is a neighbour of the person who likes green. Therefore, Charan and his neighbour must be liking red and orange. Charan does not like red. Therefore, Charan must be liking orange and his neighbour must be liking red. Deepak likes white. Therefore, Deepak must be sitting at the left corner of row 1. Amar must be liking black.

Flint is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Therefore, Flint must be liking yellow. Edward does not like red but he is a neighbour of A. Therefore, Edward must be liking green. Gautham does not like blue. Therefore, Gautham must be liking red and Harish must be liking blue. The final arrangement is as follows:

Edward is the person sitting behind the person who likes white. Edward likes green.

Hence, the correct option is (E).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 82

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

8 persons Amar, Bikram, Charan, Deepak, Edward, Flint, Gautham and Hari are sitting in 2 parallel rows. Both the rows are facing the north and 4 persons are sitting in each of the rows. The rows are arranged such that exactly one person from the second row sits behind a person from the first row. Each one of them likes a different colour among yellow, blue, orange, red, green, white, black and cyan. Further, the following information is known about them.

Amar sits behind the person who likes yellow. The person who likes blue is sitting to the left of Bikram and he is the only neighbour of Bikram. Amar and Bikram are not sitting in the same row. The person who likes yellow is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Amar is sitting adjacent to the person who likes green. The person who likes green is not sitting behind the person who likes blue. Charan is sitting behind the person who likes cyan. Charan does not like green. The persons who like red and orange are sitting adjacent to each other. None of them is a neighbour of the person who likes green. Charan does not like red. Deepak likes white. Flint is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Edward does not like red but he is a neighbour of Amar. Gautham does not like blue.

Q. Who likes cyan?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 82 The person who likes blue is the only neighbour of Bikram and he is sitting to the left of Bikram. Therefore, Bikram must be sitting at the right corner. Bikram and Amar are not sitting in the same row. Therefore, Amar must be sitting in row 2. Amar sits behind the person who likes yellow. The person who likes yellow is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue.

Amar is sitting adjacent to the person who likes green. The person who likes green is not sitting behind the person who likes blue. Therefore, the person who likes green must be sitting at the left corner of row 2. Charan is sitting behind the person who likes cyan. Charan does not like green. Therefore, Charan must be sitting behind B and B must be liking cyan.

The persons who like red and orange are sitting adjacent to each other. None of them is a neighbour of the person who likes green. Therefore, Charan and his neighbour must be liking red and orange. Charan does not like red. Therefore, Charan must be liking orange and his neighbour must be liking red. Deepak likes white. Therefore, Deepak must be sitting at the left corner of row 1. Amar must be liking black.

Flint is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Therefore, Flint must be liking yellow. Edward does not like red but he is a neighbour of A. Therefore, Edward must be liking green. Gautham does not like blue. Therefore, Gautham must be liking red and Harish must be liking blue. The final arrangement is as follows:

Bikram likes cyan.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 83

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

8 persons Amar, Bikram, Charan, Deepak, Edward, Flint, Gautham and Hari are sitting in 2 parallel rows. Both the rows are facing the north and 4 persons are sitting in each of the rows. The rows are arranged such that exactly one person from the second row sits behind a person from the first row. Each one of them likes a different colour among yellow, blue, orange, red, green, white, black and cyan. Further, the following information is known about them.

Amar sits behind the person who likes yellow. The person who likes blue is sitting to the left of Bikram and he is the only neighbour of Bikram. Amar and Bikram are not sitting in the same row. The person who likes yellow is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Amar is sitting adjacent to the person who likes green. The person who likes green is not sitting behind the person who likes blue. Charan is sitting behind the person who likes cyan. Charan does not like green. The persons who like red and orange are sitting adjacent to each other. None of them is a neighbour of the person who likes green. Charan does not like red. Deepak likes white. Flint is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Edward does not like red but he is a neighbour of Amar. Gautham does not like blue.

Q. What colour does Amar like?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 83 The person who likes blue is the only neighbour of Bikram and he is sitting to the left of Bikram. Therefore, Bikram must be sitting at the right corner. Bikram and Amar are not sitting in the same row. Therefore, Amar must be sitting in row 2. Amar sits behind the person who likes yellow. The person who likes yellow is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue.

Amar is sitting adjacent to the person who likes green. The person who likes green is not sitting behind the person who likes blue. Therefore, the person who likes green must be sitting at the left corner of row 2. Charan is sitting behind the person who likes cyan. Charan does not like green. Therefore, Charan must be sitting behind B and B must be liking cyan.

The persons who like red and orange are sitting adjacent to each other. None of them is a neighbour of the person who likes green. Therefore, Charan and his neighbour must be liking red and orange. Charan does not like red. Therefore, Charan must be liking orange and his neighbour must be liking red. Deepak likes white. Therefore, Deepak must be sitting at the left corner of row 1. Amar must be liking black.

Flint is sitting adjacent to the person who likes blue. Therefore, Flint must be liking yellow. Edward does not like red but he is a neighbour of A. Therefore, Edward must be liking green. Gautham does not like blue. Therefore, Gautham must be liking red and Harish must be liking blue. The final arrangement is as follows:

Amar likes black.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 84

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight Patrol vessels- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were decommissioned in eight different Months- March, April, May, June, July, August, September and October of the same year but not necessarily in the same order.

Vessel A was decommissioned in the month having an even number of days. Vessel F was decommissioned three months after A. Vessel C was decommissioned before F but not in the month having an odd number of days. Only three vessels were decommissioned between C and D. Vessel D was decommissioned five months after G. Vessel B was decommissioned after E but not after H, where none of these vessels were decommissioned in the month having an even number of days.

Q. How many vessels were decommissioned between G and the vessel which was decommissioned in July?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 84 Final arrangement

We have,

  • Vessel A was decommissioned in the month having even number of days.
  • Vessel F was decommissioned three months after A.

From the above conditions, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • Vessel C was decommissioned before F but not in the month having an odd number of days.
  • Only three vessels were decommissioned between C and D.
  • Vessel D was decommissioned five months after G.

Again we have,

  • Vessel B was decommissioned after E but not after H where none of these vessels were decommissioned in the month having an even number of days.

So Case1 gets eliminated. Hence Case2 shows the final arrangement.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 85

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight Patrol vessels- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were decommissioned in eight different Months- March, April, May, June, July, August, September and October of the same year but not necessarily in the same order.

Vessel A was decommissioned in the month having an even number of days. Vessel F was decommissioned three months after A. Vessel C was decommissioned before F but not in the month having an odd number of days. Only three vessels were decommissioned between C and D. Vessel D was decommissioned five months after G. Vessel B was decommissioned after E but not after H, where none of these vessels were decommissioned in the month having an even number of days.

Q. Which among the following vessel was decommissioned three months after vessel E?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 85 Final arrangement

We have,

  • Vessel A was decommissioned in the month having even number of days.
  • Vessel F was decommissioned three months after A.

From the above conditions, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • Vessel C was decommissioned before F but not in the month having an odd number of days.
  • Only three vessels were decommissioned between C and D.
  • Vessel D was decommissioned five months after G.

Again we have,

  • Vessel B was decommissioned after E but not after H where none of these vessels were decommissioned in the month having an even number of days.

So Case1 gets eliminated. Hence Case2 shows the final arrangement.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 86

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight Patrol vessels- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were decommissioned in eight different Months- March, April, May, June, July, August, September and October of the same year but not necessarily in the same order.

Vessel A was decommissioned in the month having an even number of days. Vessel F was decommissioned three months after A. Vessel C was decommissioned before F but not in the month having an odd number of days. Only three vessels were decommissioned between C and D. Vessel D was decommissioned five months after G. Vessel B was decommissioned after E but not after H, where none of these vessels were decommissioned in the month having an even number of days.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to the final arrangement?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 86 Final arrangement

We have,

  • Vessel A was decommissioned in the month having even number of days.
  • Vessel F was decommissioned three months after A.

From the above conditions, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • Vessel C was decommissioned before F but not in the month having an odd number of days.
  • Only three vessels were decommissioned between C and D.
  • Vessel D was decommissioned five months after G.

Again we have,

  • Vessel B was decommissioned after E but not after H where none of these vessels were decommissioned in the month having an even number of days.

So Case1 gets eliminated. Hence Case2 shows the final arrangement.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 87

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight Patrol vessels- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were decommissioned in eight different Months- March, April, May, June, July, August, September and October of the same year but not necessarily in the same order.

Vessel A was decommissioned in the month having an even number of days. Vessel F was decommissioned three months after A. Vessel C was decommissioned before F but not in the month having an odd number of days. Only three vessels were decommissioned between C and D. Vessel D was decommissioned five months after G. Vessel B was decommissioned after E but not after H, where none of these vessels were decommissioned in the month having an even number of days.

Q. Vessel B was decommissioned in which of the following month?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 87 Final arrangement

We have,

  • Vessel A was decommissioned in the month having even number of days.
  • Vessel F was decommissioned three months after A.

From the above conditions, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • Vessel C was decommissioned before F but not in the month having an odd number of days.
  • Only three vessels were decommissioned between C and D.
  • Vessel D was decommissioned five months after G.

Again we have,

  • Vessel B was decommissioned after E but not after H where none of these vessels were decommissioned in the month having an even number of days.

So Case1 gets eliminated. Hence Case2 shows the final arrangement.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 88

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight Patrol vessels- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were decommissioned in eight different Months- March, April, May, June, July, August, September and October of the same year but not necessarily in the same order.

Vessel A was decommissioned in the month having an even number of days. Vessel F was decommissioned three months after A. Vessel C was decommissioned before F but not in the month having an odd number of days. Only three vessels were decommissioned between C and D. Vessel D was decommissioned five months after G. Vessel B was decommissioned after E but not after H, where none of these vessels were decommissioned in the month having an even number of days.

Q. The number of vessels decommissioned before D is two more than the number of Vessels decommissioned after ____?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 88 Final arrangement

We have,

  • Vessel A was decommissioned in the month having even number of days.
  • Vessel F was decommissioned three months after A.

From the above conditions, there are two possibilities

Again we have,

  • Vessel C was decommissioned before F but not in the month having an odd number of days.
  • Only three vessels were decommissioned between C and D.
  • Vessel D was decommissioned five months after G.

Again we have,

  • Vessel B was decommissioned after E but not after H where none of these vessels were decommissioned in the month having an even number of days.

So Case1 gets eliminated. Hence Case2 shows the final arrangement.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 89

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons – Sheetal, Sam, Soni, Shiva, Sunny, Seema, Saurav and Sita are sitting in a row and all are facing north. Sam, an immediate neighbour of Seema, sits fourth from one of the end. Soni sits immediate right of Seema. Sheetal is second to the left of Saurav. More than three persons sit between Shiva and Sita but none of them sits extreme ends. Shiva is not a neighbour of Sunny. Soni sits third from one of the end.

Q. What is the position of Sheetal?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 89 Persons - Sheetal, Sam, Soni, Shiva, Sunny, Seema, Saurav and Sita

1. Sam, an immediate neighbour of Seema, sits fourth from one of the end.

2. Soni sits immediate right of Seema.

3. Soni sits third from one of the end.

4. Sheetal is second to the left of Saurav.

5. More than three persons sit between Shiva and Sita but none of them sits extreme ends.

6. Shiva is not a neighbour of Sunny.

So, Sheetal sits extreme left end of the row.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 90

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons – Sheetal, Sam, Soni, Shiva, Sunny, Seema, Saurav and Sita are sitting in a row and all are facing north. Sam, an immediate neighbour of Seema, sits fourth from one of the end. Soni sits immediate right of Seema. Sheetal is second to the left of Saurav. More than three persons sit between Shiva and Sita but none of them sits extreme ends. Shiva is not a neighbour of Sunny. Soni sits third from one of the end.

Q. How many persons sit between Soni and Shiva?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 90 Persons - Sheetal, Sam, Soni, Shiva, Sunny, Seema, Saurav and Sita

1. Sam, an immediate neighbour of Seema, sits fourth from one of the end.

2. Soni sits immediate right of Seema.

3. Soni sits third from one of the end.

4. Sheetal is second to the left of Saurav.

5. More than three persons sit between Shiva and Sita but none of them sits extreme ends.

6. Shiva is not a neighbour of Sunny.

So, three persons sit between Soni and Shiva.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 91

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons – Sheetal, Sam, Soni, Shiva, Sunny, Seema, Saurav and Sita are sitting in a row and all are facing north. Sam, an immediate neighbour of Seema, sits fourth from one of the end. Soni sits immediate right of Seema. Sheetal is second to the left of Saurav. More than three persons sit between Shiva and Sita but none of them sits extreme ends. Shiva is not a neighbour of Sunny. Soni sits third from one of the end.

Q. Who sits fourth to the left of Sunny?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 91 Persons - Sheetal, Sam, Soni, Shiva, Sunny, Seema, Saurav and Sita

1. Sam, an immediate neighbour of Seema, sits fourth from one of the end.

2. Soni sits immediate right of Seema.

3. Soni sits third from one of the end.

4. Sheetal is second to the left of Saurav.

5. More than three persons sit between Shiva and Sita but none of them sits extreme ends.

6. Shiva is not a neighbour of Sunny.

So, Sam sits fourth to the left of Sunny.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 92

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Among the six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U each have different weight. U is heavier than 3 persons, T is lighter than P. Q is lighter than only R. T is not the lightest. The second heaviest is of 65 kg and the second lightest person is of 33 kg.

Q. After arranging the person in ascending order of their weight find the person who comes immediately after T?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 92 (i) T is lighter than P → P > T

(ii) Q is lighter than only R → R > Q

(iii) T is not the lightest, U is heavier than 3 persons.

According to the given data, the order of persons from heaviest to lightest is:

R > Q > U > P > T > Sand Weight of Q = 65 kg, Weight of T = 33 kg

If the people are arranged in ascending of their weight, then the order becomes:

S, T, P, U, Q, R

Clearly, P comes immediately after T.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 93

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Among the six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U each have different weight. U is heavier than 3 persons, T is lighter than P. Q is lighter than only R. T is not the lightest. The second heaviest is of 65 kg and the second lightest person is of 33 kg.

Q. After arranging the person in ascending order of their weight find the person in the fourth position?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 93 (i) T is lighter than P → P > T

(ii) Q is lighter than only R → R > Q

(iii) T is not the lightest, U is heavier than 3 persons.

According to the given data, the order of persons from heaviest to lightest is:

R > Q > U > P > T > Sand Weight of Q = 65 kg, Weight of T = 33 kg

If the people are arranged in ascending of their weight, then the order becomes:

S, T, P, U, Q, R

Clearly, U is in the fourth position after arrangement.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 94

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Among the six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U each have different weight. U is heavier than 3 persons, T is lighter than P. Q is lighter than only R. T is not the lightest. The second heaviest is of 65 kg and the second lightest person is of 33 kg.

Q. After arranging the person in ascending order of their weight from left to right, Persons whose weight is 65 kg is at which position with respect to T?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 94 (i) T is lighter than P → P > T

(ii) Q is lighter than only R → R > Q

(iii) T is not the lightest, U is heavier than 3 persons.

According to the given data, the order of persons from heaviest to lightest is:

R > Q > U > P > T > Sand Weight of Q = 65 kg, Weight of T = 33 kg

If the people are arranged in ascending of their weight, then the order becomes:

S, T, P, U, Q, R

So, Q is third to the right of T.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 95

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language,

‘First Make Wise Plan’ is coded as ‘25 88 30 20

Plan Drives Success Path’ is coded as ‘77 55 52 30

Wise Path Yield First’ is coded as ‘42 20 88 55

Plan Wise For Everyone’ is coded as ‘88 15 30 22

What does “25 55” represent in a given code language?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 95 Final arrangement

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 96

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language,

‘First Make Wise Plan’ is coded as ‘25 88 30 20

Plan Drives Success Path’ is coded as ‘77 55 52 30

Wise Path Yield First’ is coded as ‘42 20 88 55

Plan Wise For Everyone’ is coded as ‘88 15 30 22

Q. If the code “77 42 88” represents “Yield Wise Success”, then what is the sum of the code for “Drives Plan” in a given code language?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 96

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 97

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language,

‘First Make Wise Plan’ is coded as ‘25 88 30 20

Plan Drives Success Path’ is coded as ‘77 55 52 30

Wise Path Yield First’ is coded as ‘42 20 88 55

Plan Wise For Everyone’ is coded as ‘88 15 30 22

Q. What may be the code for “Everyone Strategy”in a given code language?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 97 Final arrangement

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 98

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language,

‘First Make Wise Plan’ is coded as ‘25 88 30 20

Plan Drives Success Path’ is coded as ‘77 55 52 30

Wise Path Yield First’ is coded as ‘42 20 88 55

Plan Wise For Everyone’ is coded as ‘88 15 30 22

Q. If the code for the words “first for” is “20 15”, then what is the code for “everyone” in a given code language?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 98 Final arrangement

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 99

Directions: The following questions are based on the three-digit numbers given below.

287 894 769 923 456

Q. If ‘1’ is added to the last digit of each number, how many numbers thus formed are divisible by 4?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 99 Given series: 287 894 769 923 456

1) If ‘1’ is added to the last digit of each number.

Actual Numbers: 287 894 769 923 456

Corresponding results: 288 895 770 924 457

So, two such numbers are formed which is divisible by 4.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 100

Directions: The following questions are based on the three-digit numbers given below.

287 894 769 923 456

Q. If in each number the positions of the first and second digits are interchanged then, what will be the sum of the digits of the second-highest number in the new arrangement?

Detailed Solution for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 - Question 100 Given series: 287 894 769 923 456

1) If in each number the positions of the first and second digits are interchanged.

Actual Numbers: 287 894 769 923 456

Corresponding results: 827 984 679 293 546

The second highest number formed = 827

Sum = 8 + 2 + 7 = 17

Hence, the correct option is (B).

Use Code STAYHOME200 and get INR 200 additional OFF
Use Coupon Code
Information about IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for IBPS Clerk Prelims Mock Test - 5, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice