Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (2)


24 Questions MCQ Test | Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (2)


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This mock test of Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (2) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 24 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (2) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (2) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (2) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (2) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Policy cut motion states that the

Solution:

Answer: A

Explanation: A policy cut motion implies that, the mover disapproves of the policy
underlying the demand. Its form of expression is "that the amount of the demand be reduced by Re 1".

QUESTION: 2

Which of the following is/are charged expenditure on the Consolidated Fund of India?

Solution:

Answer: d

Explanation: The list of the charged expenditure is -

1. Emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office.

2. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

3. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court.

4. Pensions of the judges of high courts.

5. Salary, allowances and pension of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India

6. Salaries, allowances and pension of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission.

7. Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India and the Union Public Service Commission including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the persons serving in these offices.

8. The debt charges for which the Government of India is liable, including interest, sinking fund charges and redemption charges and other expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt.

9. Any sum required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal.

10. Any other expenditure declared by the Parliament to be so charged.

QUESTION: 3

When a Bill is presented to the president for his assent, what are the options available with him?

Solution:

Answer: d

Explanation: A bill passed by the Parliament can become an act only if it receives the assent of the President. When such a bill is presented to the President for his assent, he has three alternatives (under Article 111 of the Constitution):

1. He may give his assent to the bill, or

2. He may withhold his assent to the bill, or

3. He may return the bill (if it is not a Money bill) for reconsideration of the Parliament.

However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments and again presented to the President, the President must give his assent to the bill.

Thus, the President has the veto power over the bills passed by the Parliament, that is, he can withhold his assent to the bills. The object of conferring this power on the President is two-fold: (a) to prevent hasty and ill-considered legislation by the Parliament and (b) to prevent a legislation which may be unconstitutional.

QUESTION: 4

Consider the following statements

  1. Calling Attention Motion is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure
  2. Calling Attention Motion has been in existence since 1954.
  3. Adjournment Motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.

What is correct?

Solution:

Answer: d

Explanation: Calling Attention Motion: Calling Attention Motion is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since 1954. Adjournment Motion It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance, and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.

QUESTION: 5

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Solution:

Answer: c

Explanation: A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.

An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.

A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally

QUESTION: 6

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Solution:

Answer: c

Explanation: A resolution to impeach the President has to be passed by a two-third majority of the total members of the originating house. It is then sent to the other house. The other house investigates the charges that have been made. During this process, the President has the right to defend himself/herself through an authorised counsel. If the second house also approves the charges made by two-third majority again, the President stands impeached and is deemed to have vacated his/her office from the date when such a resolution stands passed. Other than impeachment, no other penalty can be given to the President for the violation of the Constitution.

QUESTION: 7

Which one of the following is part of the Electoral College for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?

Solution:

Answer: b

Explanation: Rajya Sabha is a Permanent House and is not subject to dissolution as per Article 83 (1) of the Constitution of India. But as nearly as possible, one third of its members shall retire every 2nd year and an equal number of members are chosen to replace them.

QUESTION: 8

What is not correct about the Prime Minister of India

Solution:

Answer: c

Explanation: Powers and Functions of PM in relation to the Council of Ministers:

• He recommends the persons who can be appointed as the Ministers by the President i.e., the President can appoint only those persons as the Ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.

• He allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the Ministers.

• He can ask a Minister to resign or advice the President to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.

• He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers and influences its decisions.

• He guides, directs, controls, and coordinates the activities of all the Ministers.

• He can bring about the collapse of the Council of Ministers by resigning from the office any time.

• He can call the meeting of the Cabinet any time.

• The position of the Prime Minister in the Council of Ministers is described as Primus Inter Pares i.e. first among equals.

• The so called life and death of the ruling party is the Prime Minister.

• He summons and decides the agenda of the Cabinet meetings. Even the venue of such meetings is decided by the Prime Minister.

• He has right to call for any file from any ministry. This right is basically in pursuance of his role as a coordinator of various ministries.

QUESTION: 9

Which of the following statement is NOT correct?

Solution:

Answer: b

Explanation: An independent member of a House becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election. A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification.

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Solution:

Answer: a

Explanation: Article 323 A empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Centre, the states, local bodies, public corporations and other public authorities. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up in 1985 with the principal bench at Delhi. The CAT is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and members. Its members are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams and are appointed by the president. They hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 65 years, in case of chairman and 62 years in case of members, whichever is earlier.

QUESTION: 11

Which among the following is not matched correctly?

Solution:

Answer: d

Explanation: Article 153: The Constitution provides for an office of the Governor in the States.

Article 110: Money Bill is defined in Art. 110 of the Constitution.

Article 311: Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a state.

Article 312: All-India Services.

Article 312A: Power of Parliament to vary or revoke conditions of service of officers of certain Services.

QUESTION: 12

Which Constitution has inspired the Indian concepts of Rule of law, Parliamentary system and law- making procedure?

Solution:

Answer: b

Explanation:

We have borrowed following features from the British Constitution:

  • Parliamentary form of government
  • The idea of single citizenship
  • The idea of the Rule of law
  • Institution of Speaker and his role
  • Lawmaking procedure
  • Procedure established by Law
QUESTION: 13

Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance”?

Solution:

Answer: c

Explanation: Article 355 states, “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution”.

QUESTION: 14

Which of the following is not a ground to discriminate against any citizen

Solution:

Answer: d 

Explanation: Article 15 of the constitution is about ‘Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.’

  1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them.
  2. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to
    1. access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or
    2. the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public.
  3. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
  4. Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Nothing in this article or in sub-clause (g) of clause (1) of article 19 shall prevent the State from making any special provision,by law, for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in so far as such special provisions relate to their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of article 30.

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements:

  1. Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
  2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Answer: c

Explanation: The Vice-President is the ex officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.  The Vice-President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

QUESTION: 16

Money Bill is not defined as

Solution:

Ans: b

Explanation: Money Bill as defined under Article 110 of the Constitution is any Bill dealing with all or any of the matters enumerated from (a) to (g) of the same Article shall be a Money Bill. These are:

  1. Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
  2. Regulation of the borrowings of money or giving of guarantee by the Government of India.
  3. Custody of the Consolidated or Contingency Fund of India, payment into or withdrawal of money from any such fund.
  4. Appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI).
  5. Declaring any expenditure as 'Charged' on the CFI.
  6. Receipt or issue of money from the CFI and audit of the accounts of the Union or the States.
  7. Any matter incidental to any of the matter specified in the sub-clauses (a) to (f).
QUESTION: 17

Uniform civil code for the citizens is provided in the constitution as:

Solution:

Answer: c

Explanation: Article 44 states that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. By uniform civil code, it is meant that all sections of society irrespective of their religion shall be treated equally according to a national civil code, which shall be uniformly applicable to all.

  • Civil code covers areas like marriage, divorce, maintenance, inheritance, succession of property and adoption.
  • Uniform civil code (UCC) has been provided under Art 44 of the Constitution as a directive principle.
  • It will enhance the status of women and therefore, it is vitally desired to achieve the empowerment of women.
  • Articles 25 and 26 guarantee right to freedom of religion and UCC is not opposed to secularism or will not violate these articles.
  • Marriage, succession and like matters are of secular nature and, therefore, law can regulate them.

The UCC will not and shall not result in interference of one's religious beliefs relating, mainly to maintenance, succession and inheritance. But in matters of inheritance, right to property, maintenance and succession, there will be a common law.

QUESTION: 18

What is not true about a public bill?

Solution:

Answer: a

Explanation: It is introduced in the Parliament by a minister.

QUESTION: 19

The summon or prorogue both the Houses of the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha is under which power of the President?

Solution:

Answer: b 

Explanation: Executive power of the Union is vested in the President, and is exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. Supreme command of defence forces of the Union also vests in him. The President summons, prorogues, addresses, sends messages to Parliament and dissolves the Lok Sabha, promulgates Ordinances at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, makes recommendations for introducing financial and money bills and gives assent to bills, grants pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or suspends, and remits or commutes sentences in certain cases. When there is a failure of the constitutional machinery in a state, he can assume to himself all, or any of the functions of the government of that state. The President can proclaim emergency in the country if he is satisfied that a grave emergency exists, whereby security of India or any part of its territory is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

QUESTION: 20

Which of the following pairs is NOT correct?

Solution:

Answer: d

Explanation:

Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14)
Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16)
Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23)
Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26)
Protection of language, script and culture of minorities (Article 29).

QUESTION: 21

Which among the following is correct:

Solution:

Answer: d

Explanation: Supplementary Grant is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.

Additional Grant is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year.

Exceptional Grant is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year.

QUESTION: 22

Which among the following is not correct?

Solution:

Answer: d

Explanation: The President of India, on the advice of the lieutenant governor, appoints the chief minister, whose council of ministers is collectively responsible to the assembly

QUESTION: 23

What is not a true about qualification as the Vice-President of India?

Solution:

Explanation: In order to qualified for the election of the vice-President a person must be:

  • A citizen of India
  • Over 35 years of age
  • Must not hold any office of profit
  • He must be qualified for the election as a member of “Council of States”.
QUESTION: 24

Who is regarded as the “Father of All-India Services?”

Solution:

Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel is called as the Father of the All India Services.This is basically because of his contribution towards uniting the princely states and thus ensuring Integrity of India.

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