Indian Polity


100 Questions MCQ Test IAS 2016 Prelims Test Series | Indian Polity


Description
This mock test of Indian Polity for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC Indian Polity (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Indian Polity quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this Indian Polity exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Indian Polity extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one half of the states?
1. Election of the President
2. Representation of States in Parliament
3. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Choose your answer from the codes given below :

Solution:

Bills that have to be passed by Special Majority and also to be ratified by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures

This comprises of Constitutional Amendment Bills which seek to make any change in articles relating to:

a. The Election of the President.

b. The extent of the Executive Power of the Union and the States.

c. The Supreme Court and the High Courts.

d. Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.

e. The representation of States in Parliament.

f. The provisions of Article 368 itself

QUESTION: 2

Which of the following have representation in the Rajya Sabha?
1. The fields of arts, Science Literature and social services.
2. Representatives of States
3. Representatives of UTs
4. Anglo-Indian Community

Solution:

Article 249 provides for Power of Parliament to Membership of Rajya Sabha is limited by the Constitution to a maximum of 250 members, and current laws have provision for 245 members. Most of the members of the House are indirectly elected by state and territorial legislatures using single transferable votes, while the President of India can appoint 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services. Members sit for staggered six-year terms, with one third of the members retiring every two years

QUESTION: 3

The purpose behind an adjournment motion is:

Solution:

The primary object of an adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences and in regard to which a motion or a resolution with proper notice will be too late. The matter proposed to be raised should be of such a character that something very grave which affects the whole country and its security has happened and the House is required to pay its attention immediately by interrupting the normal business of the House

QUESTION: 4

Nehru Report was the first effective attempt by the nationalists for:

Solution:

The Nehru Report of 28-30August, 1928 was a memorandum outlining a proposed new dominion status constitution for India. It was prepared by a committee of the All Parties Conference chaired by Motilal Nehru with his son Jawaharlal Nehru acting as secretary.

QUESTION: 5

The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as

Solution:

Explanation: Seat of Supreme Court The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint

QUESTION: 6

The Judges of the High Court can be removed from their office during their tenure

Solution:

A judge of High Court may be removed by the President if the Parliament passes a motion against him by an absolute majority and 2/3rd majority of the members present and voting, both the Houses sitting separately

QUESTION: 7

The salary of the Governor is charged on

Solution:

The salary & allowances of the Governor charged from the Consolidation Fund of the state are not subject to the vote of the State Legislature. Parliament may be law changed the allowances of pay but the same cannot be decreased during his tenure. If any other individual acts as a Governor in his absence he also will be entitled to pay allowances and other privileges of the Governor

QUESTION: 8

When a resolution for the removal is under consideration, the Speaker
1. Does not take part in the proceedings of the House
2. Has no right to vote
3. Has the right to speak in the House even though he shall not preside

Solution:

The Speaker shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, the House of the People while any resolution for his removal from office is under consideration in the House and shall, notwithstanding anything in article 100, be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes

QUESTION: 9

The composition of the Committee on Public Undertaking which has a total of 22 members in terms of members from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are

Solution:

The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members—fifteen elected by the Lok Sabha and seven by the Rajya Sabha, from amongst their Members, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee.The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members—fifteen elected by the Lok Sabha and seven by the Rajya Sabha, from amongst their Members, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee.

QUESTION: 10

What is Token Cut?

Solution:

Token cut: A small cut of, say, Rs 100, meant to be a rebuke for the government

QUESTION: 11

Which of the following is/are among the functions of the Election Commission of India?
1. Conduct of elections for the posts of the speaker and the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
2. Conduct of election to the Corporations and Municipalities
3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of elections

Solution:

There is no procedure for the elections of Speaker, Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and Deputy Chairmen of Rajya Sabha. State Election Commission is responsible to conduct the elections of Panchayats and Municipalities. Election Commission of India is responsible to decide on all doubts and disputes arising out of elections for parliament and state legislature except President and Vice President.

QUESTION: 12

The Consolidated Fund of India is a common pool in which

Solution:

Under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India, all revenues ( example tax revenue from personal income tax, corporate income tax, customs and excise duties as well as non-tax revenue such as licence fees, dividends and profits from public sector undertakings etc. ) received by the Union government as well as all loans raised by issue of treasury bills, internal and external loans and all moneys received by the Union Government in repayment of loans shall form a consolidated fund entitled the 'Consolidated Fund of India' for the Union Government

QUESTION: 13

Who is the final authority to expound the meaning of the Constitution?

Solution:

The power of judiciary to review and determine the validity of a law or an order may be described as the powers of Judicial Review’.It means that the constitution is the supreme law of the land and any law inconsistent therewith is void through judicial review.It is the power exerted by the courts of a country to examine the actions of the legislatures, executive and administrative arms of government and to ensure that such actions conform to the provisions of the nation’s Constitution. Judicial review has two important functions, like, of legitimizing government action and the protection of constitution against any undue encroachment by the gov­ernment

QUESTION: 14

With reference to Constitutionalism, which of the following statements is most appropriate?

Solution:

Constitutionalism is "a complex of ideas, attitudes, and patterns of behaviour elaborating the principle that the authority of government derives from and is limited by a body of fundamental law

QUESTION: 15

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies

3. Fifth Schedule

4. Sixth Schedule

5. Seventh Schedule

Solution:
QUESTION: 16

Consider the following statements:
1. President, on advice of council of ministers can impose reasonable restrictions on the fundamental rights of the citizens.
2. Parliament decides about the reasonableness of the restrictions placed on fundamental rights.

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

Consider the following statements:
1. Fundamental Rights as well as non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights etc. can be enforced under Article 32.
2. In case of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is original and exclusive.

Solution:

Article 32 provides the right to Constitutional remedies which means that a person has right to move to Supreme Court (and high courts also) for getting his fundamental rights protected. The Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court is mentioned under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court can issue writ only in case of violation of any of the fundamental rights contained in Part-III of the constitution

QUESTION: 18

Match the following pairs:

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Read the following statements carefully.
1. In the Parliament, motion for the creation or abolition of Legislative Council requires simple majority.
2. If the motion for abolition or creation of Legislative Council is passed, it is deemed as an amendment of the constitution.

Solution:

Notwithstanding anything in article 168, Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting. Any law referred to in clause (1) shall contain such provisions for the amendment of this Constitution as may be necessary to give effect to the provisions of the law and may also contain such supplemental, incidental and consequential provisions as Parliament may deem necessary.  No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of article 368.

QUESTION: 20

Which one of the following statement is correct?
1. In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more states at the same time.
2. The judges of the high court of the states are appointed by the governor of the state.
3. No procedure has been laid down in the constitution for the removal of a governor from his/her post.

Solution:

A Governor may be simultaneously assignee to more than one state. The judges of High courts of the states are appointed by the President of India

QUESTION: 21

Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution?

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

Which of the following restricts the supremacy of the Indian Parliament?
1. Written Nature of Constitution
2. Federal System of Government
3. System of Judicial Review
4. Directive principle of state policy
5. Fundamental rights

Solution:

The Directive Principles of State Policy are the guidelines or principles given to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies.  The Directive principles are broad directives given to the state in accordance with which the legislative and executive powers of the state are to be exercised

QUESTION: 23

Which of the following authorities makes recommendation to the governor of a state as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the panchayats in that particular state.

Solution:

Article 243I of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats. Article 243Y of the Constitution further provides that the Finance Commission constituted under Article 243 I shall make similar recommendation vis-a-vis municipalities.

QUESTION: 24

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution serves which of the following purpose?
1. It indicates authority of the Government is derived from the people.
2. It lays down the objectives which the Constitution seeks to accomplish.
3. It helps Judiciary to interpret provisions of the Constitution.

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty as enshrined in the Constitution of India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Consider the following statements and choose the right combination
1. A money bill can be introduced only in the lower house on the recommendation of Speaker.
2. All financial bills are not Money Bills.
3. Money Bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member.
4. The Rajya Sabha can detain money Bill for a maximum period of 10 days.
5. Money Bill can be returned by the President for reconsideration.

Solution:

Money bill can be introduced only in the lower house on the recommendation of President and can be introduced by a minister only. The Rajya Sabha can detain money Bill for a maximum period of 14 days. Money Bill cannot be returned by the President for reconsideration

QUESTION: 27

In the scheme of parliamentary form of government, the Chief Minister is the real executive authority of the state. Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Minister
1. The constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the chief minister.
2. The constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Legislative assembly before he is appointed as the chief minister.
3. A person who is not a member of the state legislature cannot be appointed as chief minister.
4. The term of the chief minister is fixed.

Choose the correct statement(s):

Solution:

Article 164(4) prescribes that  Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister. However there is no fixed term of Chief Minister as the Govt. can be dissolved at any time before the expiry of five years

QUESTION: 28

With reference to Morley-Minto Reforms consider the following statements:
1. It enacted the Government of India Act, 1909.
2. It allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

Which of the following are the grounds on which state can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of freedom of speech and expression?
1. Public order
2. Protection of interest of scheduled tribes
3. Defamation
4. Incitement to an offence

Solution:

Under Indian law, the freedom of speech and of the press does not confer an absolute right to express one's thoughts freely. Clause (2) of Article 19 of the Indian constitution enables the legislature to impose certain restrictions on free speech under following heads:

  • I. security of the State,
  • II. friendly relations with foreign States,
  • III. public order,
  • IV. decency and morality,
  • V. contempt of court,
  • VI. defamation,
  • VII. incitement to an offence,and

VIII. sovereignty and integrity of India

QUESTION: 30

Consider the following statements-
1. Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
2. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker has to vacate his office.
Which of the above statements(s) is true-

Solution:

The speaker does not vacate his office on the dissolution of Lok Sabha. He continues in office until the next elected house meets

QUESTION: 31

With reference to Fundamental Duties, consider the following statements:
1. Fundamental duties place civic as well as moral duties on the citizen.
2. Some fundamental duties also extend to foreigners.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners

QUESTION: 32

Consider the following statements:

1. When the president’s rule is imposed in a state the parliament becomes empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the state list in relation to that state.
2. These laws become inoperative on the expiration of six months after emergency has ceased to operate.
3. Such a law can be repealed or altered or re-enacted by the state legislature.
Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Consider the following statement with respect to National Judicial appointment commission bill:
1. It provides for the procedure to be followed by the NJAC for recommending persons for appointment of Judges of the Supreme Court, High Courts and subordinate courts.
2. It shall recommend the senior most judge of the Supreme Court for appointment as Chief Justice of India.
3. It shall not recommend a person for appointment if any of its members do not agree to such recommendation.
4. NJAC has no role in transfer of Chief Justices and other judges of the High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

NJAC does not recommend persons for subordinate courts as they fall under the authority of State Govts. And also play role in transfer of Chief Justices and other judges of High Courts.  

QUESTION: 34

The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions only if-

Solution:

Legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the National interest

QUESTION: 35

Read the following two statements about municipalities in the context of 74th amendment:
1. Reservation of SCs and STs in the proportion of their population in the municipal area
2. One third of the seats will be reserved for women, excluding the number of seats reserved for SC and ST women
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

74th constitutional amendment act provides for the reservation of seats for SCs an Sts in every municipality in proportion of their population to the total population in the municipal area. Further it provide for the reservation of not less than one third of the total number of seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to Sc & STs).

QUESTION: 36

Rajya sabha has an unequal status compared to Lok sabha in many cases. These are:
1. Impeachment of President
2. Passing of constitutional amendment bill

Solution:

Rajya sabha has equal status with lok sabha in the elections and impeachment of President and introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills

QUESTION: 37

The Electoral College for the election of vice-president of India consists of
1. Elected Lok sabha MPs
2. Nominated Lok sabha MPs
3. Elected Rajya sabha MPs
4. Nominated Rajya sabha Mps

Solution:

The electoral college of Vice President consist of both elected and nominated members of both houses of Parliament

QUESTION: 38

Consider the following statements about ‘special category state’ status:
1. It enables a state to receive special assistance from centre.
2. It is a constitutional status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?
1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements; given above is/are correct?

Solution:

An Interim Budget is not the same as a 'Vote on Account'. While a 'Vote on Account' deals only with the expenditure side of the government's budget, an Interim Budget is a complete set of accounts, including both expenditure and receipts

QUESTION: 40

According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

PAC submit its report to Lok Sabha

QUESTION: 41

Consider the following statements:
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The UTs of Delhi & Puducherry are represented in Rajya Sabha.Chief Election Commissioner adjudicate the election disputes except President and Vice President According to the Constitution of India, Parliament consist of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President.

QUESTION: 42

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

Consider the following statements
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in any of the house of Parliament.

If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of half of the States of India

QUESTION: 44

‘Economic Justice’ has been one of the objectives of Indian Constitution provided in:

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. Scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of Government
3. examines the report of Comptroller and Auditor and General of India
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Solution:

All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President of India.

QUESTION: 47

Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

Solution:

The Committee on Estimates is the largest committee of Parliament consists of 30 members from Lok Sabha only

QUESTION: 48

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

Solution:

Tenth Schedule deals with Anti Defection Law were added to Indian Constitution by 52nd Amendment Act 1985

QUESTION: 49

Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which
1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?
1. External Aggression.
2. Internal Emergency.
3. When Martial Law is in force.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:

The six rights guaranteed under Article 19 cannot be suspended during Internal emergency

QUESTION: 51

Article 21 declares that –
“No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”
The protection under article 21 is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it

Solution:

The 'Preamble' of the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purpose and principles of the document, and it indicates the source from which the document which derives its authority, meaning, the people

QUESTION: 53

The most essential feature of the Parliamentary form of Government is the

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Who among the following was the Chairman of Steering Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

The directive principles were made non – justiciable and legally non – enforceable because:

1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution?
1. Supremacy of the Constitution.
2. Rigid Constitution.
3. Independent Judiciary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Which of the following statements are true about Centre – State relations?
1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states.
2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with the centre.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:

In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states whereas in respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with both the centre and the states

QUESTION: 59

There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a democratic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them?

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
2. The state Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency?

Solution:

Resolution approving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a special majority. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by LS only with simple majority

QUESTION: 62

Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose Presidents rule in a state (Article 356)?
1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority.
2. Serious maladministration in the state.
3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Bommai Case 1994

QUESTION: 63

When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant –

Solution:

President of India is empowered to appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings when the office of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant

QUESTION: 64

With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill which of the following is correct ?

Solution:

The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament

QUESTION: 65

The Representatives of states and UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
4. The system of proportional representation by List.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:

The representatives of States are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the respective States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution for a person to be chosen a member of parliament:

1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC / ST, he must be a member of a SC / ST in any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry & sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

All these criteria are laid down in the Representation of People Act 1951 & Not in the constitution

QUESTION: 67

Consider the following statements with regard to Calling Attention motion and Zero Hour:
1. Both are Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure.
2. Both are not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
3. Only Zero hour is Indian innovation.
4. Only Zero Hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
The correct statement is/are:

Solution:

Calling Attention motion and Zero hour are Indian innovations but zero hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure.

QUESTION: 68

The decision whether a bill is money bill or not is decided by the speaker, this decision cannot be questioned by:

1. Any court of law. 

2. Lok Sabha.

3. President of India.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Which of the following is/are correct?
1. A Money bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
2. A Money bill is also a Financial Bill.
3. All Financial bills can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:

The Finance Bill is introduced to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India for the following year. It is subjected to all the conditions applicable to a Money Bill. Unlike the Appropriation Bill, the amendments (seeking to reject or reduce a tax) can be moved in the case of finance bill. According to the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act of 1931, the Finance Bill must be enacted (i.e., passed by the Parliament and assented to by the president) within 75 days

QUESTION: 70

Which of the following qualification/s is/are laid down by the constitution for a
Person to be appointed as the Governor of a state:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. Must have completed the age of 35 years.
3. He shall not belong to the state where he is appointed.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:

Article 157 {Qualifications for appointment as Governor}

No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following statements are correct:
1. The High court cannot issue writs to any person outside its territorial jurisdiction.
2. An aggrieved person can approach the Supreme Court directly against the decision of a tribunal.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:

Originally, appeals against the orders of the CAT could be made only in the Supreme Court and not in the high courts. However, in the Chandra Kumar case 2 (1997), the Supreme Court declared this restriction on the jurisdict-ion of the high court’s as unconstitutional, holding that judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. It lay down that appeals against the orders of the CAT shall lie before the division bench of the concerned high court. Consequently, now it is not possible for an aggrieved public servant to approach the Supreme Court directly against an order of the CAT, without first going to the concerned high court

QUESTION: 72

Corrects statement/s with regard to UTs is/are:
1. The parliament can make laws on any subject of three lists for the UT except Delhi and Puducherry.
2. The Lt. Governor of Delhi is not empowered to promulgate ordinances.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Solution:

Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union

territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own

local legislatures. This means that, the legislative power of Parliament for the union territories on

subjects of the State List remain unaffected even after establishing a local legislature for them. But,

the legislative assembly of Puducherry can also make laws on any subject of the State List and the

Concurrent List. Similarly, the legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on any subject of the

State List (except public order, police and land) and the Concurrent List.

The Lt. governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An

Ordinance has the same force as an act of the assembly. Every such ordinance must be approved by

the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time.

But, he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended. Further, no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to NHRC?
1. NHRC is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
2. After their tenure Chairman and members are not eligible for further employment under the central or state government.
3. Its recommendations are binding on the concerned government or authority.

Solution:

The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. It was

established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human

The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. It was

established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human

QUESTION: 74

Which of the following provisions of the constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
1. The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law.
2. No religious instructions shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the state.
3. The state shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a uniform Civil Code.
4. Any section of the society shall have the right to conserve its distinct language.

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

Which of the following statements are incorrect:
1. The Preamble is a prohibition on the powers of the legislature.
2. Preamble is not a part of the constitution.
3. Preamble cannot be amended, as it is a part of the basic structure of the constitution.

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
1. Indian Territory can be ceded to a foreign state without amending the constitution as mentioned in article 368.
2. Resolution of boundary dispute between India and another country does not require constitutional amendment.

Solution:

The question about Does the power of Parliament to diminish the areas of a state (under Article 3) include also the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign country came up for examination before the Supreme Court in a reference made by the President in 1960. The decision of the Central government to cede part of a territory known as Berubari Union (West Bengal) to Pakistan led to political agitation and controversy and thereby necessitated the Presidential reference. The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not cover cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. Consequently, the 9th Constitutional Amendment Act (1960) was enacted to transfer the said territory to Pakistan.

On the other hand, the Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that, settlement of a boundary dispute between

India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment. It can be done by executive

action as it does not involve cession of Indian territory to a foreign country.

QUESTION: 77

In which of the following cases parliament can make laws on any matter enumerated in the state list.
1. During National Emergency.
2. During Presidents Rule.
3. To Implement International Agreements

Solution:

The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to

matters in the State List, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation. The laws

become inoperative on the expiration of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes

empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state.

 The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State

List for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions. This provision enables the Central government to fulfill its international obligations and commitments

QUESTION: 78

Mark the Correct Statements?

Solution:

This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.

QUESTION: 79

The Right to Property was converted from Fundamental Right to Legal Right Because:

Solution:

Right to Property was shifted from the list of Fundamental Right to Legal Right (Article 300A) through 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978.

QUESTION: 80

Audit of State Government is

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

The features of Indian Federal System are
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written constitution

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure is called

Solution:

There is a special provision made for "Vote on Account" by which Government obtains the Vote of Parliament for a sum sufficient to incur expenditure on various items for a part of the year.

Normally, the Vote on Account is taken for two months only. But during election year or when it is anticipated that the main Demands and Appropriation Bill will take longer time than two months, the Vote on Account may be for a period exceeding two months.

QUESTION: 84

Village Panchayat is accountable to the

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements
1. Quo warranto is a very powerful instrument for safeguarding against the usurpation of public offices.
2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to compel a court or judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Mandamus

It literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.

it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.

The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person

QUESTION: 86

Which of the following parts/ provisions of the Indian Constitution cannot be amended :

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Which of the following is not one of the official languages mentioned in the VIII Schedule?

Solution:

VIII schedule – 22 language   1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11)Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri

QUESTION: 88

The members of the Panchayat are?

Solution:

73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the panchayati raj system. It is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a panchayat. It may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the legislature of a state determines

QUESTION: 89

Consider the following statements:
1. The President is immune from any civil proceedings against him/her.
2. But after giving two months’ notice, criminal proceedings can be instituted again the President.
Which of the statement(s) given above is correct regarding the immunity enjoyed by the President in respect of his/her ‘personal’ acts, during his/her tenure :

Solution:

The immunity enjoyed by the President in respect of his/her personal acts, during his/her tenure is an exception to the fundamental right to equality (of treatment in similar circumstances and absence of any special privilege in favour of any individual) as mentioned in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution. The President of India is immune from any criminal proceedings against him/her. But after giving 2 months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him/her

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected as a Member of Parliament?
1. If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government.

2. If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State.                                                              

3. If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.

4. If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law.

Solution:

Article 102: Disqualifications for being elected as an MP: (1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament- (a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder; (b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court; (c) if he is an undischarged insolvent; (d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State; (e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament, explanation For the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State. (2) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements on reservation
1. The reservation limit set by government of India is 50%
2. Recently Gujarat government has declared 10% reservation quota for economically backward classes (EBC) in general category for higher education and government jobs.
3. The concept of ‘creamy layer’ applies only to OBCs
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

The reservation limit set by Supreme Court of India is 50%.

QUESTION: 92

Which of the following statements or the ‘motion of thanks’ of the president are incorrect?
1. The president makes an address to the joint sitting of Parliament at the start of the Budget session.
2. The political parties may discuss and suggest amendments as the motion of thanks
3. It is governed by articles 86 (1) and 87 (1) of the constitution and rules 16 to 24 of the rules of procedure and conduct of Business in lok sabha.

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

Consider the following aspects regarding the Ethics committee of lok sabha
(1) It has 15 members
(2) In 2015 it has been given the status of a permanent standing committee
(3) It can only take up those matters referred to it by the speaker of the lok sabha
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

Ethics committees function to uphold the standards of the Parliament and thus its functions are twofold:

  • Formulate a Code of Conduct for members and suggest amendments to it from time to time.
  • To oversee the moral and ethical conduct of the Members

To examine the cases referred to it with reference to ethical and other misconduct of the Members

QUESTION: 94

The Model code of conduct is issued by the election commission of India for conduct of political parties and candidates. Consider the following statements in this regard:
1. The code does not have any specific statutory basis.
2. It was first issued in 1971 during 6th general elections
3. It comes into effect 48 hrs after the announcement of election schedule.
Which of the statements are correct?

Solution:

The Model Code of Conduct for guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational till the process of elections is completed. The salient features of the Model Code of Conduct lay down how political parties, contestingcandidates and party(s) in power should conduct themselves during the process of elections i.e. on their general conduct during electioneering, holding meetings and processions, poll day activities and functioning of the party in power etc

QUESTION: 95

Consider the following statements related to Article 15 “prohibition of discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste sex or place of birth.” Which of them are correct?
1. Under article 15, the use of wells, Ghats roads etc. maintained wholly or partly out of state funds are dedicated to the use of the general public
2. The state is permitted to make special provisions for women and children.
3. The state is permitted to make provisions related to SC/ST/OBC admission to educational institutions only.

Solution:

The second provision of Article 15 says that no citizen shall be subjected to any disability, liability,

restriction or condition on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth with regard to

(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or (b) the use of

wells, tanks, bathing ghats, road and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly by State

funds or dedicated to the use of general public. This provision prohibits discrimination both by the

State and private individuals, while the former provision prohibits discrimination only by the State.

There are three exceptions to this general rule of non-discrimination:

(a) The state is permitted to make any special provision for women and children. For example,

reservation of seats for women in local bodies or provision of free education for children.

(b) The state is permitted to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and

educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.

For example, reservation of seats or fee concessions in public educational institutions.

(c) The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially

and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes or the scheduled

tribes regarding their admission to educational institutions including private educational

institutions.

QUESTION: 96

Consider the following statements related to status of J & K is Indian Constitution:
1. Parliament could legislate on subjects contained in the Union list but had no jurisdiction in the concurrent list under 7th schedule of the constitution.
2. Residuary power rest with Jammu and Kashmir, unlike other states where residuary powers rest with centre.
3. The union can declare emergency in the state only in case of War or external aggression but not in case of financial emergency.
Which of the above statement are correct?

Solution:

The Concurrent List was not applicable to the state till 1963. The State List is not applicable

to the state even today.

6. Unlike in other states, a proclamation of emergency can be made in J&K on the ground of

internal disturbance also. An emergency declared on the ground of war or external aggression

is directly (i.e., without the concurrence of the state government, as in the case of other states)

applicable to J&K.

QUESTION: 97

The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body estd. Since 1993. Consider the following statements and check which of them is/are incorrect.
1. Chairman of NHRC should be retired CJI
2. Term of the chairman is 5 years or 70 yrs of age: whichever is earlier
3. The chairman is removed by the president after an enquiry by Supreme Court.
4. The recommendations of NHRC are binding in nature

Solution:

The president can remove the chairman or any member from the office under the following

circumstances:

(a) If he is adjudged an insolvent; or

(b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his

office; or

(c) If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or

(d) If he is of unsound mind and stand so declared by a competent court; or

(e) If he is convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for an offence.

The recommendations of NHRC are not binding in nature.

QUESTION: 98

A citizen of India can be deprived from his citizenship by

Solution:

A person shall cease to be a citizen of India, if he is deprived of that citizenship by an order of the Central Government under this section. (2) %abject to the provisions of this section, the Central Government may, by order, deprive any such citizen of Indian citizenship, if it is satisfied that--(a) the registration or certificate of naturalisation was obtained by means of fraud, false representation or the concealment of any material fact; OF (b) that citizen has shown himself by act or speech to be disloyal or disaffected towards the Constitution of India as by law established; or

(c) that citizen has, during any war in which India may be engaged unlawfully traded or communicated with an enemy or been engaged in, or associated with, any business that was to his knowledge carried on in such manner as to assist an enemy in that war; or (d) that citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been sentenced in any country to imprisonment for a term of not less than two years; or (e) that citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for a continuous period of seven years, and during that period, has neither been at any time a student of any educational institution in a country outside India or in the service of a Government in India or of an international organisation of which India is a member, nor registered annually in the prescribed manner at an Indian consulate his intention to retain his citizenship of India.

QUESTION: 99

With reference to the Preamble of the constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. It is a part of Constitution
2. It not only confers powers but also imposes duties
3. It can be used for interpretation of provisions of the constitution in cases of ambiguity

Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

Solution:

The Preamble of the constitution neither confers any power nor imposes any duty

QUESTION: 100

A judge of the high court in India can be elevated to the Supreme Court as a regular judge if his / her name is recommended by a Collegium which comprises of
1. Chief Justice of India
2. Other Senior Judges of the Supreme Court
3. Chief Justice of High Court in which the judges are currently sitting
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

Solution:

The appointment of the Judges of the Supreme Court is as per Article 124 of the Constitution. It says that every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose

In 1993, while deciding a case, the Supreme Court held that as far appointment of judges of Supreme Court and High Courts is concerned, the President shall act in accordance with the opinion of the Chief Justice of India, who will in turn give advice after consulting his colleagues. Up till 1993, the Judges of the Supreme Court were appointed by the President on recommendation of the CJI, but from 1993 onwards, a collegium of 5 senior most judges of Supreme Court judges recommends the names to the law ministry which after scrutinizing send the paper to the president. The government has the option of returning the Collegiums' recommendation once. But in case the collegium sends the same names for the second time, the government is bound to accept them and notify the appointments. This is what has happened recently. The collegium recommended three names. The Government (PMO / Law Ministry) asked the Supreme Court to re-consider the names. The Supreme Court reiterated its recommendations and recommendation goes to Law Ministry and then to the Prime Minister's Office from where it was sent to rastrapati bhavan for final approval

Similar Content

Related tests