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JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024 - JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) 2024 is part of JKPSC Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) exam syllabus.The JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 MCQs are made for JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 below.
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JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

With reference to recent findings of the excavation at Mayiladumparai, consider the following statements :

1. The site is located in modern-day Tamil Nadu.

2. The site is linked to the Paleolithic age alone.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 1
Carbon dating of findings of excavation in Tamil Nadu bring forth evidence of iron being used in India 4,200 years ago. Option b is correct: Excavations at a small hamlet called Mayiladumparai which is in Tamil Nadu have pushed back the date since iron has been used in India. It is linked to the Iron age and Neolithic ages.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding 'Bathukamma festival ’:

1. It is a floral festival of Karnataka.

2. It is celebrated predominantly by women.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 2
Option (b) is the correct answer. In 2018, for the first time ever the New South Wales Parliament in Sydney, Australia celebrated the ethnic festival of Bathukamma.

Statement 1 is not correct: Bathukamma which means ‘Mother Goddess come Alive’ is a colourful floral festival of Telangana.

Statement 2 is correct: Bathukamma is a beautiful flower stack of different unique seasonal flowers, most of them with medicinal value, arranged in seven concentric layers in the shape of temple gopuram. Women gather and dance around this flower stack. They also sing Bathukamma songs while dancing. It is the festival for feminine felicitation.

On this special occasion women dress up in the traditional sari combining it with jewels and other accessories The final day of Bathukamma, known as Pedha or Saddula Bathukamma falls two days before Dussehra and is also known as Durgashtami. Bathukamma festival indicates the beginning of Sarad or Sharath Ruthu whereas Boddemma festival followed by Bathukamma marks the ending of Varsha Ruthu.

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JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

Which of the following are the features of Nagara style of Temple Architecture:

  1. Elaborate walls and gateways.

  2. Presence of river goddess.

  3. Absence of a water tank or reservoirs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 3
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Temple premises in Nagara style generally does not have elaborate walls and gateways. In contrast, Dravida style has elaborate walls and gateways around temple premises.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Images of river goddess Ganga and Yamuna were placed outside the garbhagriha.

  • Statement 3 is correct: In Nagara style, Temple premises do not have water tank or reservoir inside the temple premises. Whereas in Dravida style, water tanks or reservoirs are present in the temple premises.

About Nagara style of Temple Architecture:

  • Nagara is the style of temple architecture which became popular in Northern India.

  • It is common here to build an entire temple on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.

  • Unlike in south India, it doesn’t usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.

  • Earliest temples had only one shikhara (tower), but in the later periods multiple shikharas came.

  • The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

With reference to the Mahajanapadas, consider the following statements:

  1. The tax was fixed at 1/6th of the produce.

  2. The hunters and gatherers had to provide forest produce to the raja.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

Both the statements are correct.

As the rulers of the Mahajanapadas were (a) building huge forts (b) maintaining big armies, they needed more resources. And they needed officials to collect these. So, instead of depending on occasional gifts brought by people, as in the case of the raja of the janapadas, they started collecting regular taxes.

Following taxes were imposed -

  • Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were farmers. Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known as bhaga or a share.

  • There were taxes on crafts persons as well. These could have been in the form of labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every month for the king.

  • Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce.

  • There were also taxes on goods that were bought and sold, through trade.

  • The hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding Chera kingdom of Mahodayapuram
I. The Chera kingdom of Mahodayapuram was established in the third century BC.
2. The rulers introduced the Malayalam language and script in their inscriptions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 5
  • The Chera kingdom of Mahodayapuram was established in the ninth century in the south-western part of the peninsula, part of present-day Kerala. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • It is likely that Malayalam was spoken in this area.
  • The rulers introduced the Malayalam language and script in their inscriptions.
  • In fact, this is one of the earliest examples of the use of a regional language in official records in the subcontinent.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

Tulsidas was the author of
1. Dohavali
2. Gitavali
3. Vinaya Patrika

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 6

Tulsidas, also known as Goswami Tulsidas, was a Ramanandi Vaishnava Hindu saint and poet, renowned for his devotion to the deity Rama. He wrote several popular works in Sanskrit and Awadhi, but is best known as the author of the Hanuman Chalisa and of the epic Ramcharitmanas, a retelling of the Sanskrit Ramayana based on Rama's life in the vernacular Awadhi.
The five major works of Tulsidas apart from Ramcharitmanas include:
Dohavali literally Collection of Dohas, is a work consisting of 573 miscellaneous Doha

  1. and Sortha verses mainly in Braja with some verses in Awadhi. The verses are aphorisms on topics related to tact, political wisdom, righteousness and the purpose of life. 85 Dohas from this work are also found in the Ramcharitmanas, 35 in Ramagya Prashna, two in Vairagya Sandipani and some in Rama Satsai, another work of 700 Dohas attributed to Tulsidas. Sahitya Ratna or ratna Ramayan (1608–1614), literally Collection of Kavittas, is a Braja
  2. rendering of the Ramayana, composed entirely in metres of the Kavitta family – Kavitta, Savaiya, Ghanakshari and Chhappaya. It consists of 325 verses including 183 verses in the Uttarkand. Like the Ramcharitmanas, it is divided into seven Kands or books and many episodes in this work are different from the Ramcharitmanas. Gitavali literally Collection of Songs, is a Braja rendering of the Ramayana in songs. All
  3. the verses are set to Ragas of Hindustani classical music and are suitable for singing. It consists of 328 songs divided into seven Kands or books. Many episodes of the Ramayana are elaborated while many others are abridged. Krishna Gitavali or Krishnavali literally Collection of Songs to Krishna, is a collection of 61
  4. songs in honour of Krishna in Braja. There are 32 songs devoted to the childhood sports (Balalila) and Rasa Lila of Krishna, 27 songs form the dialogue between Krishna and Uddhava, and two songs describe the episode of disrobing of Draupadi. Vinaya Patrika literally Petition of Humility, is a Braja work consisting of 279 stanzas or
  5. hymns. The stanzas form a petition in the court of Rama asking for Bhakti. It is considered to be the second best work of Tulsidas after the Ramcharitmanas, and is regarded as important from the viewpoints of philosophy, erudition, and eulogistic and poetic style of Tulsidas. The first 43 hymns are addressed to various deities and Rama's courtiers and attendants, and remaining are addressed to Rama.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Consider the following Battles of Medieval Indian History :
1. Battle of Khanwa
2. Battle of Ghagra
3. Battle of Talikota
4. Battle of Haldighati
Arrange the above battles in the correct chronological order ?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Battle of Khanwa (1527)

  • Babur, the Mughal emperor, decided to take on Rana Sanga of Chittor, the Rajput ruler of Mewar. The Rana had a strong influence over Rajasthan and Malwa.
  • The ferocious march of Rana Sanga, with force strengthened by Afghan Muslims, Mahmud Lodi, brother of Ibrahim Lodi, and Hasan Khan Mewati, ruler of Mewat, confronted the forces of Babur. With strategic positioning of forces and effective use of artillery, Babur defeated Rana Sanga’s forces. The capture of forts at Gwalior and Dholpur followed this victory.

Battle of Ghagra (1529)

  • The battle was the last battle Babar fought against the Afghans. Mahmud Lodi and Sultan Nusrat Shah, son-in-law of Ibrahim Lodi, conspired against Babur.
  • Realizing the danger, Babar marched against them. In the battle that ensued along the banks of Ghagra, a tributary of the Ganges, Babur defeated the Afghans. But he died on his way from Agra to Lahore in 1530.

Battle of Talikota (1565)

  • The battle was fought at Talikota or Rakshasi-Tangadi in January 1565, in which Ramaraya (a great warrior and strategist), despite his old age, personally commanded the forces along with his cousins and brothers. In the final stages, the battle was lost. Rama Raya was imprisoned and executed immediately.
  • The victorious Bahmani armies entered the Vijayanagar city for the first time in their History and ransacked it for several months laying it to waste. This battle is generally considered a signal for the beginning of the disintegration of the Vijayanagar Empire as the Nayakas became more independent of central authority.

Battle of Haldighati (1576)

  • It was the last pitched battle between the Mughal forces and Rana Pratap Singh. In Marwar (Jodhpur), the ruler Chandra Sen, son of Maldeo Rathore, resisted the Mughals till his death in 1581, though his brothers fought on the side of the Mughals.
  • Udai Singh, the brother of Chandra Sen, was made the ruler of Jodhpur by Akbar.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

Consider the following statements with respect to the teachings of Jainism:
1. Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira.
2. Right knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that the world has been created by God.
3. Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 8
  • In Jainism, the three jewels (also referred to as ratnatraya or tri-ratna) are understood as samyagdarshana ('right faith'), samyagjnana ('right knowledge), and samyakcharitra ('right action').
  • One of the three cannot exist exclusive of the others, and all are required for spiritual liberation i.e. attainment of freedom from worldly bonds.
  • Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Right Knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that there is no God and that the world has been existing without a creator and that all objects possess a soul. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows: - Hence statement 3 is correct.
    • not to injure life
    • not to lie
    • not to steal
    • not to acquire property o
    • not to lead immoral life
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

Consider the following pairs:

1. Ain-e-Akbari: Minhaj-us-Siraj

2. Tabaqat-i-Nasiri: Badauni

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 9
  • Abul Fazl’s Akbarnamah and Ain-e- Akbari are fine piece of literature. From there we get a good deal of information about Akbar and his times.

  • Minhaj-us-Siraj was a historian who was patronized by Slave Sultan Nasir- ud-din Mahmud to whom he dedicated his magnum opus Tabaqat- i-Nasiri.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

1. Paintings in Virupaksha temple in Hampi were done during the Vijaynagar empire.

2. The events of Ramayana and Mahabharata were depicted.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 10
Option (c) is the correct answer.

As the Chola dynasty declined in the thirteenth century, the Vijayanagar dynasty captured and brought under its control the region from Hampi to Trichy.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In Hampi, the Virupaksha temple has paintings on the ceiling of its mandapa narrating events from dynastic history and episodes from the Ramayana and the Mahabharata. Among important panels the mural of Vidyaranya, teacher of Bukkaraya Harsha, being carried in a palanquin is very well made.

In Lepakshi, Vijaynagar paintings can be found on the walls of the Shiva temple. In keeping with the tradition the Vijayanagar painters evolved a pictorial language wherein the faces are shown in profile and figures and objects two dimensionally. Lines become still but fluid, compositions appear in rectilinear compartments. These stylistic conventions were adopted by artists in various centres in South India as can be seen in the paintings of the Nayaka period.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 11

Consider the following statements:

  1. Pherzeshah Mehta was mainly responsible for the founding of ‘The Bombay Chronicle’, an English newspaper.

  2. A Nation in making’ book is the autobiography of Surendranath Banerjea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 11
Pherozeshah Mehta is an Indian political leader, planner of the municipal charter for Bombay and founder of the English-language newspaper Bombay Chronicle. He presided over the sixth session of the Indian National Congress in 1890. He had a major role in the establishment of a Swadeshi bank i.e. the Central Bank of India.

Surendranath Banerjea is one of important moderate political leader. He founded the Indian National Association, through which he led two sessions of the Indian National Conference in 1883 and 1885, along with Anandamohan Bose. He founded a new organization named Indian National Liberation Federation in 1919. He was editor of “The Bengali” newspaper. Written in the last years of Sir Surendranath Banerjea s life, A Nation in Making is not only the autobiography of a pioneering leader in Indian politics but also a commentary on public life.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

Consider the following regarding the Wood’s Despatch (1854):

1. It suggested educating only a small section of upper and middle classes in line with Macaulay’s minutes.

2. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.

3. It laid stress on female and vocational education, and on teachers’ training.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 12
Option (b) is the correct answer. Statement 1 is incorrect. It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for the education of the masses. Statement 2 is correct. As per the Wood’s dispatch, the medium of instruction at the primary level was to be vernacular while at the higher levels it would be English.

Statement 3 is correct. It highlighted female education, vocational education and teachers training KB) Other recommendations: It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo- Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

● It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.

● It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 13

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Delhi durbar of 1877?

  1. It was announced by Lord Canning.

  2. Indian states were to be treated as parts of single charge of British Crown.

  3. The Queen’s proclamation issued in Delhi’s Durbar promised equal and impartial protection under law to all Indians, besides equal opportunities in government services irrespective of race or creed.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 13
Option d is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Delhi durbar of 1877 was not announced by Lord Canning. It was largely an official event not a popular occasion with mass appeal like 1903 and 1911.It was organized by Lytton, The then Viceroy of India. Lord Canning announced Queen’s proclamation at a durbar at Allahabad in 1858 according to which, the era of annexations and expansion had ended and the British promised to respect the dignity and rights of the native princes.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian states were henceforth to recognize the paramountcy of the British crown and were treated as parts of a single charge as a part of Queen’s proclamation announced at durbar held at Allahabad in 1858 and not the 1877 Delhi Durbar.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Queen’s proclamation of 1858 promised equal and impartial protection under law to all Indians, besides equal opportunities in government services irrespective of race or creed. It was also promised that old Indian rights, customs and practices would be given due regard while framing and administering the law.

  • The Delhi durbar of 1877 gave a new title” Qaisar-I-Hind, the Empress of India to British monarch- Queen Victoria. Delhi durbar was held 3 times in the old Mughal capital of Delhi, first in 1877, and then again in 1903 and 1911.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

Though the Portuguese were the first to arrive in India, they were incapable of maintaining a trade monopoly in the East for a long because

  1. Its merchants enjoyed more power than its landed aristocrats.

  2. Portuguese lagged behind in the development of shipping as compared to other European powers.

  3. They followed a policy of religious intolerance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 14
  • By the 18th century, the Portuguese in India lost their commercial influence, though some of them still carried on trade in their individual capacity and many took to piracy and robbery. The decline of the Portuguese was brought about by several factors.

    • The local advantages gained by the Portuguese in India were reduced with the emergence of powerful dynasties in Egypt, Persia, and North India and the rise of the turbulent Marathas as their immediate neighbors. (The Marathas captured Salsette and Bassein in 1739 from the Portuguese).

    • The population of Portuguese was less than a million, its Court was autocratic and decadent, its merchants enjoyed much less power and prestige than its landed aristocrats. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

    • They followed a policy of religious intolerance. The religious policies of the Portuguese, such as the activities of the Jesuits, gave rise to political fears. Their antagonism for the Muslims apart, the Portuguese policy of conversion to Christianity made Hindus also resentful. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    • The earlier monopoly of knowledge of the sea route to India held by the Portuguese could not remain a secret forever; soon enough the Dutch and the English, who were learning the skills of ocean navigation, also learned it and outshined the Portuguese. They lagged behind in the development of shipping as compared to other European powers. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    • As new trading communities from Europe arrived in India, there began a fierce rivalry among them. In this struggle, the Portuguese had to give way to the more powerful and enterprising competitors. The Dutch and the English had greater resources and more compulsions to expand overseas, and they overcame the Portuguese resistance.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

With reference to Modern Indian history, which among the following events happened earliest ?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

Gandhi founded the All-India Village Industries Association in Wardha in 1934. Jamnalal Bajaj has donated considerable land and buildings to the All-India Village Industries Association. Gandhi organized the first All-India Village Industries Exhibition in Indore in 1935.

  • Gandhiji started experiments in rural lifestyles, such as the revival of village crafts and agro-processing industries, village cleanliness, diet reforms, etc., so that villages could be developed as ideal surroundings to live in. So, Option (a) is not correct.
  • On 30 September 1932, Gandhi founded the All India Anti Untouchability League to remove untouchability in the society, which was later renamed Harijan Sevak Sangh ("Servants of Harijan Society") Harijan Sevak Sangh is a non-profit organization founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 to eradicate untouchability in India, working for Harijan or Dalit people and uplifting the Depressed Class of India. So, Option (b) is not correct.
  • The federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry was established in 1927. FICCI is the largest and oldest apex business organization in India. Its history is closely interwoven with India's struggle for independence, industrialization, and emergence as one of the most rapidly growing global economies. A non-government, not-for-profit organisation, FICCI is India's business and industry voice. From influencing policy to encouraging debate, engaging with policy makers and civil society, FICCI articulates the views and concerns of industry. It serves its members from the Indian private and public corporate sectors and multinational companies, drawing its strength from diverse regional chambers of commerce and industry across states, reaching out to over 2,50,000 companies. So, Option (c) is not correct. 
  • On his return from South Africa, Gandhi's first Ashram in India was established in the Kochrab area of Ahmedabad on 25 May 1915. Gandhi's Kochrab Ashram was located near the city of Ahmedabad in the state of Gujarat. This ashram was a major center for students of Gandhian ideas to practice satyagraha, self- sufficiency, and Swadeshi, work for the upliftment of the poor, women, and untouchables, and to promote better public education and sanitation. The ashram was organized based on human equality. So, Option(d) is correct.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

Consider the following statements about Sawai Jai Singh:
1. He erected observatories at Delhi, Ujjain and Kolkata.
2. He drew up a set of tables, entitled Zij Muhammadshahi, to enable people to make astronomical observations.
3. He had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 16

Sawai Jai Singh of Amber erected observatories at Delhi, Jaipur, Ujjain, Varanasi and Mathura. He drew up a set of tables, entitled Zij Muhammadshahi, to enable people to make astronomical observations. He had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit as also several works on trigonometry and Napier’s work on the construction and use of logarithms.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

Which of the following reforms was/were undertaken during the reign of Lord Dalhousie?
1. Introduction of the “Non – Regulation System” for the newly acquired territories.
2. Guarantee System for providing guaranteed return on investment to the railway companies.
3. The ports of India were thrown open to the commerce of the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

Reforms under Lord Dalhousie –

  • Dalhousie’s territorial acquisition transformed the map of India. His greatest achievement was the moulding of the new provinces into a modern centralized state. For the newly acquired territories, he introduced the centralized control called the “Non-Regulation System”.
  • Under this system, a Commissioner was appointed for a newly acquired territory. In 1853, he penned his Railway Minute, formulating the future policy of railways in India. He started the “Guarantee System” by which the railway companies were guaranteed a minimum interest of 5% on their investments.
  • The government retained the right of buying the railways at the end of the period of contract. The ports of India were thrown open to the commerce of the world. Free- trade principles were becoming a passion with the Englishmen of the mid-nineteeth century. The harbours of Karachi, Bombay and Calcutta were developed and a large number of light- houses were constructed.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

With reference to the agrarian reforms undertaken by the Congress Ministries in the brief period of 28 months‟ rule in the Provinces during 1937-39, consider the following statements:
1. There was a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure by completely abolishing the Zamindari.
2. Most of these benefits went to the statutory and the occupancy tenants, while the sub-tenants did not gain much. 3. Agricultural labourers did not benefit, as they had not been mobilized.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

The Agrarian Reforms – There were certain basic constraints due to which the Congress Ministries could not undertake a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure by completely abolishing the Zamindari. These constraints were –
(i) The Ministries did not have adequate powers.
(ii) There were inadequate financial resources, as a lion‘s share was appropriated by the Government of India.
(iii) Strategy of class adjustments was another hurdle, since the Zamindars, etc., had to be conciliated and neutralized.
(iv) There was constraint of time, since the logic of the Congress politics was confrontation and not co-operation with colonialism.
(v) War clouds had started hovering around 1938.
(vi) The reactionary Second Chamber (The Legislative Council), dominated by the landlords, moneylenders and capitalists in the United Provinces, Bihar, Bombay, Madras and Assam, had to be conciliated, as its support was necessary for the legislations.
(vii) The agrarian structure was too complex. In spite of these constraints, the Congress Ministries managed to legislate a number of laws relating to land reforms, debt relief, forest grazing fee, arrears of rent, land tenures, etc. But, most of these benefits went to the statutory and the occupancy tenants, while the sub-tenants did not gain much. Agricultural labourers did not benefit, as they had not been mobilized

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

Which among the following were the social reforms undertaken by the Congress Ministries in the brief period of 28 months‟ rule in the Provinces during 1937-39?
1. Measures for the welfare of the Harijans taken in temple entry.
2. Attention given to the primary, technical and higher education.
3. Encouragement given to the indigenous enterprises.
4. Efforts taken to develop planning through the National Planning Committee, set up under the Congress President Subhash Bose in 1938.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

The Social Welfare Reforms undertaken by the Congress Ministries in the brief period of 28 months’ rule in the Provinces during 1937-39 – Prohibition imposed in certain areas. Measures for the welfare of the Harijans taken – temple entry, use of public facilities, scholarships, an increase in their numbers in government services and police, etc. Attention given to the primary, technical and higher education, and to public health and sanitation. Encouragement given to Khadi through subsidies and other measures. Prison reforms undertaken. Encouragement given to the indigenous enterprises. Efforts taken to develop planning through the National Planning Committee, set up under the Congress President Subhash Bose in 1938.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

Who among the following is/are associated with the Permanent Settlement System in India?
1. John Shore
2. James Grant
3. Thomas Monroe
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 20

Lord Hastings approved the Ryotwari System of land revenue introduced in the Madras Presidency by Sir Thomas Munroe. Cornwallis, at the time of his appointment, was instructed by the Directors to find a satisfactory and permanent solution to the problems of the land revenue system, in order to protect the interests of both the Company and the cultivators. It obliged the Governor- General to make a thorough enquiry into the usages, tenures and rents prevalent in Bengal. The whole problem occupied Lord Cornwallis for over 3 years and after a prolonged discussion with his colleagues, like Sir John Shore and James Grant, he decided to abolish the Annual Lease System and introduce a decennial (Ten years) settlement, which was subsequently declared to be continuous. This System was known as the Permanent Settlement System.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

Consider the following statements about Earthquakes in India:

1. India has been divided into five earthquake zones.

2. National Capital Region comes under High Damage risk zone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 21
  • Earthquakes are by far the most unpredictable and highly destructive of all the natural disasters. Earthquakes that are of tectonic origin have proved to be the most devastating and their area of influence is also quite large. These earthquakes result from a series of earth movements brought about by a sudden release of energy during the tectonic activities in the earth’s crust.

  • As compared to these, the earthquakes associated with volcanic eruptions, rock fall, landslides, subsidence, particularly in the mining areas, impounding of dams and reservoirs, etc. have limited area of influence and the scale of damage. Statement 1 is correct. National Geophysical Laboratory, Geological Survey of India, Department of Meteorology, Government of India, along with the recently formed National Institute of Disaster Management, have made an intensive analysis of more than 1,200 earthquakes that have occurred in India in different years in the past, and based on these, they divided India into the following five earthquake zones:

    I. Very high damage risk zone

    II. High damage risk zone

    III. Moderate damage risk zone

    IV. Low damage risk zone

    V. Very low damage risk zone.

  • Out of these, the first two zones had experienced some of the most devastating earthquakes in India. Uttarakhand, Western Himachal Pradesh and Kashmir Valley in the Himalayan region and the Kuchchh (Gujarat) are included in the Very High Damage Risk Zone. The remaining parts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Northern parts of Punjab, Eastern parts of Haryana, Delhi, Western Uttar Pradesh, and Northern Bihar fall under the High Damage Risk Zone. Remaining parts of the country fall under moderate to very Low Damage Risk Zone. So, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

With reference desert landscape, consider the following statements:

  1. Erg deserts are formed due to aeolian deposits.

  2. Badlands are formed due to erosion of hills by rain-storms.

  3. Mountain deserts are a result of erosion of hilly landscape.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 22
Option (d) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct. Erg or stony desert is a sea of sand. Winds deposits vast stretches of undulating sand-dunes in the heart of the desert forming these landscapes. An erg (also sand sea or dune sea, or sand sheet if it lacks dunes) is a broad, flat area of desert covered with wind-swept sand with little or no vegetative cover.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Badlands are the Hills which are badly eroded by occasional rain-storms into gullies and ravines. The extent of water action on the hill is so strong that the entire region becomes inhabitable.

  • Statement 3 is correct. Mountain Deserts are found on Highlands such as plateaux and mountain ranges. Erosion dissects the desert highlands into harsh, serrated outlines of chaotic peaks and craggy ranges.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

Arrange the following from top to bottom based on the order in which they appear in the interior of the earth:

  1. Lehmann Discontinuity

  2. Moho Discontinuity

  3. Gutenberg Discontinuity

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 23
  • The earth is made up of three different layers: the crust, the mantle and the core.

  • The Crust:

    • This is the outside layer of the earth and is made of solid rock, mostly basalt and granite. There are two types of crust; oceanic and continental. Oceanic crust is denser and thinner and mainly composed of basalt. Continental crust is less dense, thicker, and mainly composed of granite.

  • In between the crust and the mantle there is Mohorovicic discontinuity.

  • The Mantle:

    • The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km. The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere.

  • The Core:

    • The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km. It is called the Gutenberg Discontinuity. The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is sometimes referred to as the nife layer.

    • The Core consists of two sub-layers i.e. the inner core and the outer core. The inner core is in solid state and the outer core is in the liquid state (or semi-liquid). The discontinuity between the upper Core and the lower Core is called as Lehmann Discontinuity.

Hence the correct order is 2-3-1.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

Consider the following statements with respect to watershed management:

  1. It includes conservation, regeneration, and judicious use of all-natural resources within the watershed.

  2. Community participation is one of the prominent features of watershed management.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 24
  • Watershed management basically refers to the efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources. It involves the prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc.

  • However, in broad sense watershed management includes conservation, regeneration, and judicious use of all resources – natural (like land, water, plants, and animals) and humans within a watershed. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Watershed management aims at bringing about a balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. The success of watershed development largely depends upon community participation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

 Consider the following pairs : Features River Stage
1. Gorge - Youth
2. Meander - Middle
3. Oxbow lake - Old
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

 Upper, middle and lower are the three courses into which a river valley is divided. Young rivers ( (A) denotes the below picture for the formation of the Young river) close to their source tend to be fast-flowing, high-energy environments with rapid downward and headward erosion, despite the hardness of the rock over which they may flow. The land features carved by a river in its upper course are as follows:

  • Gorges,
  • Canyons,
  • V' shaped valleys,
  • Rapids,
  • Cataracts, and
  • Waterfalls A gorge is a narrow valley with steep, rocky walls between hills or mountains.

The term comes from the French word gorge, which means throat or neck. So, Pair 1 is correct.

Mature rivers or Middle ( (B) denotes the above picture for mature river formation ) are lower-energy systems. Erosion takes place outside bends, creating looping meanders in the soft alluvium of the river plain. Deposition occurs on the inside of the bends and the river bed. Some of the land features formed by a river in its middle course are alluvial fans and meanders. A meander is a bend in the course of a river channel. A meander is formed in the middle course of a river; when the river leaves the mountains, it encounters a sudden slope break and slows down. The plains are broad and gentle. So the river has more time to amble away down to the sea. So, Pair 2 is correct.

Oxbow lakes are formed when the neck of a looping meander is broken through, usually during times of flood. They are U-shaped or curved bends in a river that are cut off from the main river flow, forming a lake. In the lower course of the river, meanders become much more pronounced. The outer or concave bank is so rapidly eroded that the meander becomes almost a complete circle. A time comes when the river cuts through the narrow neck of the loop. The meander, now cut off from the mainstream, takes the form of an oxbow lake. In the lower course or the stage of old age, the land features produced by the river are meanders, flood plains, braided steam, oxbow lakes, deltas and estuaries. So, Pair 3 is correct.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

Assertion (A) : During Spring Tides, the high tides are higher than the normal tides.

Reason (R) : The combined gravitational force of the sun and moon as they are right angle in position.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 26
  • The rhythmic rise and fall of ocean water twice a day is called a tide. High tide is when water covers much of the shore by rising to its highest level. It is low tide when water falls to its lowest level and recedes from the shore. A spring tide is popularly known as a "King Tide" and refers to the 'springing forth' of the tide during a new and full moon. During full or new moons, when the Earth, sun, and Moon are nearly in alignment, average tidal ranges are slightly larger. This occurs twice each lunar month (about 29.5 days on average).
  • The Moon appears new (dark) between the Earth and the sun. The Moon appears full when the Earth is between the Moon and the sun. This means that high tides are little higher and low tides are a little lower than average. These are called 'spring tides.' The strong gravitational pull exerted by the sun and the Moon on the Earth's surface causes the tides. A neap tide is seven days after a spring tide which refers to a period of moderate tides when the sun and Moon are at right angles to each other. The sun's and moon's combined gravitational force at the right angle in position is a neap tide. A spring tide occurs when the sun, the Moon and the Earth are in the same line. Hence Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. So, Option (c) is correct.
JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

1. India is the second largest producer as well as onsumer of pulses after China.

2. Pulses need high moisture and wet conditions.

3. Pulses help in restoring soil fertility by fixing oxygen from the air.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

All Statements are incorrect: India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world. These are the major source of protein in a vegetarian. diet. Major pulses that are grown in India are tur (arhar), urad, moong, masur, peas and gram. Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. Being leguminous crops, all these crops except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops. Major pulses producing states in India are Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 28

With reference to fold mountains, consider the following statements:

  1. They are associated with flow of magma beneath the Earth's crust.

  2. They generally witness absence of volcanic activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 28
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Fold mountains are created where two or more of Earth’s tectonic plates are pushed together. At these colliding, compressing boundaries, rocks and debris are warped and folded into rocky outcrops, hills, mountains, and entire mountain ranges.

Fold mountains are created through a process called orogeny. An orogenic event takes millions of years to create a fold mountain, but you can mimic it in seconds. Cover a table with a tablecloth, or place a rug flat on the floor.

Now push the edge of the tablecloth or rug—wrinkles will develop and fold on top of each other.

Statement 1 is correct. Fold Mountains are generally associated with increased load of overlying rocks, flow movements in the mantle, magnetic intrusions into crust, and expansion or contraction of some parts of Earth.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Fold Mountains are closely associated with volcanic activities. Best example is Circum-Pacific fold Mountains. Most fold mountains are composed primarily of sedimentary rock and metamorphic rock formed under high pressure and relatively low temperatures. Many fold mountains are also formed where an underlying layer of ductile minerals, such as salt, is present.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. Thermosphere helps in radio transmission.

  2. The International Space Station and satellites orbit in Thermosphere.

  3. Aurora’s are observed in lower parts of the Thermosphere.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 29
  • Thermosphere: The part of the atmosphere beyond the mesosphere is known as the thermosphere wherein temperature increases rapidly with increasing height.

  • It is estimated that the temperature at its upper limit becomes extremely high. This temperature cannot be measured by an ordinary thermometer because the gases become very light due to extremely low density. That is why one does not feel warm when one stretches one’s arm in the air.

  • This layer helps in radio transmission. In fact, radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The International Space Station and satellites orbit in this layer. (Though the temperature is high, the atmosphere is extremely rarified – gas molecules are spaced hundreds of kilometers apart. Hence a person or an object in this layer doesn’t feel the heat). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Aurora’s are also observed in lower parts of this layer. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 30

According to the census of India, consider the following statements regarding the working population in India:

  1. Male workers outnumber female workers in all three sectors of the economy.

  2. The work participation rate is always higher in the areas of higher levels of economic development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - Question 30
  • The population of India according to their economic status is divided into three groups, namely; main workers, marginal workers, and non-workers. It is observed that in India, the proportion of workers (both main and marginal) is only 39.8 percent (Census 2011) leaving a vast majority of about 60 percent as non-workers. It is understood that, in the context of a country like India, the work participation rate tends to be higher in the areas of lower levels of economic development since a number of manual workers are needed to perform the subsistence or near subsistence economic activities. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • The occupational composition of India’s population shows a large proportion of primary sector workers compared to secondary and tertiary sectors. As far as the occupation of the country’s male and female population is concerned, male workers outnumber female workers in all three sectors. The number of female workers is relatively high in the primary sector, though in recent years there has been some improvement in the work participation of women in secondary and tertiary sectors. Hence statement 1 is correct.

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