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Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - KPSC KAS (Karnataka) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Karnataka (KAS) Mock Test Series 2024 - Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 for KPSC KAS (Karnataka) 2024 is part of Karnataka (KAS) Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the KPSC KAS (Karnataka) exam syllabus.The Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 MCQs are made for KPSC KAS (Karnataka) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 below.
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Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 1

The code name for police action that integrated Hyderabad into the Indian Union is known as 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 1
  • Context: The Central government has declared September 17 as ‘Hyderabad Liberation Day’ annually, commemorating the integration of Hyderabad into the Indian Union in 1948.
  • The announcement, made by the Ministry of Home Affairs through a gazette notification, honours the martyrs who liberated Hyderabad from Nizam’s rule during Operation Polo. This decision aims to instil patriotism.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 2

‘UDGAM’ portal is developed by 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 2

Explanation: What is the UDGAM portal?

  • Developed by RBI, it stands for Unclaimed Deposits-Gateway to Access inforMation. It serves as a centralized platform for the public to search for unclaimed deposits across multiple banks.
  • The portal allows users to search for various types of accounts covered by the Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI. Users are required to register on the portal and provide specific inputs depending on whether they are searching for individual or non-individual accounts. While the portal facilitates the search for unclaimed deposits, it does not enable users to settle or claim these deposits directly; claims must be made directly with the respective bank.
  • As of March 4, 2024, 30 banks are part of the UDGAM portal, covering approximately 90% of unclaimed deposits in the DEA Fund. Each unclaimed deposit is assigned a unique Unclaimed Deposit Reference Number (UDRN) generated by banks, ensuring seamless settlement of claims.
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Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 3

What happens to the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor when it is exposed to light? 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 3
  • Context: The Union Cabinet, led by the PM, approved the establishment of three semiconductor units as part of the ‘Development of Semiconductors and Display Manufacturing Ecosystems in India’ initiative.
  • When a semiconductor is exposed to light, it can absorb photons with energies greater than the bandgap energy. This absorption can excite electrons from the valence band to the conduction band, creating additional charge carriers and thereby increasing the conductivity of the semiconductor. Hence option C is the correct answer.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 4

The ‘Boao Forum for Asia (BFA)’ is China’s equivalent of 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 4

The Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) is a non-profit organisation that hosts high-level forums for leaders from government, business and academia in Asia and other continents to share their vision on the most pressing issues in this region and the world at large. BFA is modelled on the World Economic Forum held annually in Davos. 

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 5

Recently the Union Finance Minister presented the Interim Union Budget 2024-25. Which of the following are considered as Key Budget documents?

  1. Demands for Grants
  2. Fiscal Policy Statements mandated under the FRBM Act, 2003
  3. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
  4. Macro-Economic Framework Statement
  5. Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement

How many of the above options is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 5

Key Budget documents include:

  • Annual Financial Statement (Article 112)
  • Demands for Grants (Article 113)
  • Finance Bill (Article 110)
  • Fiscal Policy Statements mandated under the FRBM Act, 2003, including
  • The Macro-Economic Framework Statement and
  • The Medium-Term Fiscal Policy cum Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding Lothal.

  1. Lothal was one of the southernmost sites of the Indus Valley civilization.
  2. It is declared as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  3. Lothal was one of the landlocked sites of the Indus Valley civilization.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 6

Only Statement 1 is correct.

  • Lothal was one of the southernmost sites of the Indus Valley civilization, located in the Bhāl region of what is now the state of Gujarat. The port city is believed to have been built in 2,200 BC.
  • Lothal was nominated in April 2014 as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, and its application is pending on the tentative list of UNESCO. As per the nomination dossier submitted to UNESCO, “The excavated site of Lothal is the only port-town of the Indus Valley Civilisation. A metropolis with an upper and a lower town had in on its northern side a basin with vertical wall, inlet and outlet channels which has been identified as a tidal dockyard.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 7

Nicaragua is bordered by which of the following oceans? 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 7

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding Iridescent clouds.

  1. Iridescent clouds occurs as sunlight diffracts around tiny ice crystals within the clouds, creating an effect similar to a thin layer of oil on water.
  2. Nacreous clouds are usually seen in UK as the cold air from the polar vortex always hovers over the region.
  3. The clouds are known for their pastel light reflections during sunset and sunrise.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 8

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Rare iridescent clouds, known as nacreous clouds, were spotted over parts of Scotland, northern England, and the West Midlands recently.
  • The clouds, resembling mother of pearl, are known for their pastel light reflections during sunset and sunrise.
  • This phenomenon occurs as sunlight diffracts around tiny ice crystals within the clouds, creating an effect similar to a thin layer of oil on water.
  • Nacreous clouds are rare in the UKand are usually seen when cold air from the polar vortex temporarily hovers over the region.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding Camelids.

  1. A Camelid refers to any of the even-toed ungulates of the family Camelidae.
  2. The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Camelids.
  3. Camelids contribute to food security, nutrition, and economic growth, especially for Indigenous Peoples and local communities.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 9

Statement 2 is incorrect.

A Camelid refers to any of the even-toed ungulates of the family Camelidae. 

  • The United Nations has declared 2024 as the International Year of Camelidsto emphasize the significant importance of camelids, such as alpacas, Bactrian camels, dromedaries, guanacos, llamas, and vicuñas, in the lives of people worldwide.
  • Camelids contribute to food security, nutrition, and economic growth in over 90 countries, especially for Indigenous Peoples and local communities.
  • They play a crucial role in meeting Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by providing sources of milk, meat, fibre, and transportation.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 10

Which of the following is/are the advantages of Indian Raw Sugar in the International Market?

  1. Season advantage
  2. Indian sugar has a high amount of dextran
  3. High Sucrose content

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 10

Statement 2 is incorrect.
Advantages of Indian raw sugar in the International Market:

  • Season advantage: India’s crushing is from October to April, whereas Brazilian mills operate from April to November. Hence, importers are utilising Indian raw sugar during Brazil’s off-season.
  • Freight cost savings: India is much closer to its major sugar importers (compared to Brazil) and therefore less freight cost.
  • Indian sugar is free of dextran: Dextran is a bacterial compound formed when sugarcane stays in the sun for too long after harvesting.

Indian raw sugar has no dextran, as it is produced from fresh cane crushed within 12-24 hours of harvesting (compared to 48 hours or more in Brazil) India’s sugar has a higher % of sucrose present.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 11

Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), sometimes seen in news is the initiative of 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 11

The EU in 2021, came up with a proposal for a Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM).

The CBAM plans to impose a tariff on a set of carbon-intensive imports, which will have to be paid by EU importers and companies who export such goods to EU countries.

With the CBAM, the EU also wants to create a level-playing field for business in the bloc with those outside by making equal the price for the carbon content of goods regardless of where they are made.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding Green Credit Program (GCP).

  1. Green Credit Program (GCP) is a market-based mechanismdesigned to incentivize voluntary environmental actions across various sectors.
  2. To obtain Green Credits, individuals and entities must register their activities through the central government’s dedicated app/website.
  3. Ministry of Finance is responsible for the implementation, management, monitoring, and operation of Green Credit Program.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 12

Statement 3 is incorrect.

  • Green Credit Program (GCP) notified on 13th October, 2023 is an innovative market-based mechanism designed to incentivize voluntary environmental actions across diverse sectors, by various stakeholders like individuals, communities, private sector industries, and companies. The GCP’s governance framework is supported by an inter-ministerial Steering Committee and The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) serves as the GCP Administrator, responsible for program implementation, management, monitoring, and operation.
  • In its initial phase, the GCP focuses on two key activities: water conservation and afforestation.
  • The Green Credit Registry and trading platform, being developed by ICFRE along with experts, would facilitate the registration and thereafter, the buying and selling of Green Credits.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 13

Under Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951, which of the following offences can lead to disqualification of an MP.

  1. Undue influence or personation at an election
  2. Bribery
  3. Promoting enmity between two groups
  4. Defamation

How many of the above options is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 13

Option 4 is incorrect.

  • The disqualification of an MP convicted for an offence can happen in two instances.
  • First, if the offence for which he is convicted is listed in Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951. This includes certain specific offences such as promoting enmity between two groups, bribery and undue influence or personation at an election. Defamation does not fall under this list.
  • Second, if the lawmaker is convicted for any other offence but is sentenced for a period of two years or more. Section 8(3) of the RPA mandates that an MP can be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to not less than two years of imprisonment.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 14

Which of the following is the correct order of pH value for the given substances? 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 14
  • Milk of magnesia is a medium basic compound because its pH is not so high and not so low. The pH of milk of magnesia is 10.5.
  • Egg white is one of the few food products that is naturally alkaline, with an initial pH value that can be as low as 7.6 at time of lay, but with increasing alkalinity as the egg ages, and can reach pH of 9.2.
  • Black coffee typically has a pH of about 5 and is thus slightly acidic. It is acidic, with pH between 4 and 5, depending on the beans, roasting, and brewing.
  • Lemon juice has a pH between 2 and 3.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013.

  1. The law mandates that 75% of the total population must be covered by the PDS.
  2. The NFSA requires that the latest completed Census be used to calculate the total PDS coverage.
  3. Some States use their own budgets to top up PDS coverage through the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS).

How many of the above statements are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 15

Statement 1 is incorrect.

 The National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 expanded the coverage of the PDS substantially.

 The law mandates that 50% of the urban and 75% of the rural populations must be covered by the PDS. 

 The NFSA requires that the latest completed Census be used to calculate the total PDS coverage. 

 Some States use their own budgets to “top up” PDS coverage through the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) — for example, Tamil Nadu — or local procurement — for example, Odisha and Chhattisgarh.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 16

Consider the following statements.

  1. Countries near the Equator do not experience high variations in daytime hours between seasons.
  2. Daylight saving time (DST) is the practice of setting the clocks forward one hour from the standard time during autumn and back again in summer.
  3. India officially follow daylight saving time in North-eastern states during summer.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 16

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Daylight saving time (DST) is the practice of setting the clocks forward one hour from the standard time during the summer and back again in the autumn. This is done to make better use of natural daylight. India does not follow daylight saving time as countries near the Equator do not experience high variations in daytime hours between seasons.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 17

Consider the f ollowing statements.

  1. Under Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, India aims at eliminating TB by 2025.
  2. National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) covers TB patients from both the public and the private sector.
  3. Nikshay Mitra is a government project that enables people to adopt tuberculosis patients and take care of their nutritional and medical requirements.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 17
  • The Health Ministry’s unique “adopt a TB-patient” (Ni-kshay Mitras) initiative — probably the only one-of-its-kind in the world.
  • The programme was brought in to fill the critical “community’’ elements into India’s fight towards the Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan aimed at eliminating TB by 2025.
  • Ni-kshay Mitra (Donor) for this programme includes co-operative societies, corporates, elected representatives, individuals, institutions, non-governmental organisations, political parties and partners who can support by adopting the health facilities (for individual donor), blocks/urban wards/districts/States for accelerating the response against TB to complement the government efforts, as per the district-specific requirements in coordination with the district administration.
  • Free diagnostics, free drugs and Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana provided by the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) to all the TB patients notified from both the public and the private sector.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Contribution Regulation Act.

  1. FCRA was enacted during the Emergency in 1976.
  2. The law allows foreign donations to only associations and not to individuals.
  3. NGOs and associations registered to receive foreign contributions must declaredetails of movable and immovable assets created using those contributions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 18

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA), NGOs and associations registered to receive foreign contributions must now annually declare details of movable and immovable assets created using those contributions.
  • FCRA was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping money into the country through independent organisations.
  • The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 19

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) considers which of the following situations as Wilful Default?

  1. Borrower fails to meet repayment obligations despite having the capacity to do so
  2. Diverting the loan for purposes other than its intended use
  3. Disposing of assets securing a term loan without informing the lender

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 19

The RBI defines a wilful default as a situation where a borrower fails to meet repayment obligations despite having the capacity to do so, diverting the loan for purposes other than its intended use, siphoning off funds that are no longer available in other forms, or disposing of assets securing a term loan without informing the lender.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 20

Consider the following statements about Nana Jagannath Shankarseth:

  1. He was a founding member of the Great Indian Peninsula Railway.
  2. He was the first Indian to be nominated to the Bombay Legislative Council under the Act of 1861.
  3. He was the first Indian member of the Asiatic Society of Bengal.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 20
  • Statement 3 is not correct.
  • He was one of few founding members of the Great Indian Peninsula Railway along with Sir Jamsetjee Jejeebhoy and David Sasson.
  • He became the first Indian to be nominated to the Bombay Legislative Council under the Act of 1861, and became a member of the Bombay Board of Education. He also was the first Indian member of the Asiatic Society of Mumbai, and is known to have endowed a school and donated land in Grant Road for a theater.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 21

Consider the following statements about Pritzker Architecture Prize:

  1. It is awarded annually to honor excellence in urban planning.
  2. The prize has been awarded to architects from over 40 different countries.
  3. Winners of the prize receive $100,000 and a bronze medallion.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 21
  • S1: The Pritzker Architecture Prize is specifically focused on honoring excellence in architecture, not urban planning.
  • S2: Established in 1979 by the Pritzker family of Chicago, it recognizes living architects for their significant contributions to humanity and the built environment.
  • S3: The laureate receives $100,000 and a bronze medallion. Riken Yamamoto, the ninth laureate from Japan, is known for projects like the Hiroshima Nishi Fire Station (2000) and the Koyasu Elementary School (2018), which emphasize transparency and interaction in architectural design.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 22

Consider the following statements

  1. Originally, the Constitution of India expressedly mentioned five privileges.
  2. The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.
  3. Till now, the Parliament of India has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges.

How many of the given above statement(s) is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 22
  • Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
  • Context: The Supreme Court ruled that MPs and MLAs can’t claim immunity for bribery. Article 105(2) and 194(2) protections have been overturned.
    • The case involved Sita Soren (daughter-in-law of JMM chief Shibu Soren) accused of taking bribes for the vote.
  • S2: The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the Parliament. Article 361 of the Constitution provides for privileges for the President.
  • S1 and S3: Originally, the Constitution (Article 105) expressedly mentioned two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings. With regard to other privileges, it provided that they were to be the same as those of the British House of Commons, its committees and its members on the date of its commencement (ie, 26 January, 1950), until defined by Parliament.
  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 provided that the other privileges of each House of Parliament, its committees and its members are to be those which they had on the date of its commencement (ie, 20 June, 1979), until defined by Parliament. This means that the position with regard to other privileges remains same. In other words, the amendment has made only verbal changes by dropping a direct reference to the British House of Commons, without making any change in the implication of the provision.
  • It should be noted here that the Parliament, till now, has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges. They are based on five sources, namely, 1. Constitutional provisions, 2. Various laws made by Parliament, 3. Rules of both the Houses, 4. Parliamentary conventions, and 5. Judicial interpretations.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding Mekong River.

  1. Mekong River is Asia’s second longestriver, after the Yangtze River.
  2. It originates from the Tibetan Plateau.
  3. It serves as a crucial river for navigation due to its favourable geographical conditions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 23

Only Statement 2 is correct.

The Mekong River is a significant transboundary river in East and Southeast Asia, ranked as the world’s twelfth-longest and Asia’s third-longest. It originates from the Tibetan Plateau. Despite being a crucial trade route between Tibet and Southeast Asia, its extreme seasonal fluctuations and natural obstacles like rapids and waterfalls pose challenges to navigation

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding GHAR (GO Home and Re-Unite) Portal.

  1. GHAR (GO Home and Re-Unite) Portal was launched by National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR).
  2. The portal facilitates the digital tracking and monitoring of children in the Juvenile Justice system who need to be repatriated to another country, state, or district.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 24
  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) has launched the GHAR (GO Home and Re-Unite) Portalfor the digital monitoring and tracking of the restoration and repatriation of children as per the protocols under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
  • The portal facilitates the digital tracking and monitoring of children in the Juvenile Justice system who need to be repatriated to another country, state, or district.
  • It enables the digital transfer of cases to the concerned Juvenile Justice Board/Child Welfare Committee for speedy repatriation and allows for requests for translators or interpreters if required.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding cumin seeds, commonly known as jeera.

  1. Jeera is an extremely weather-sensitive crop, which requires a moderately cool and dry climate.
  2. India accounts for less than 10% of the world’s production of this seed spice.
  3. In India, it is mainly grown in the northern parts of Gujarat and adjoining districts of western Rajasthan.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 25

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Jeera is an extremely weather-sensitive crop. It requires a moderately cool and dry climate sans any humidity, which is conducive for fungal infestation during the crop’s flowering and seed development stages. That naturally limits the area of cultivation to Saurashtra, Kutch and the northern parts of Gujarat and adjoining districts of western Rajasthan such as Jalore, Barmer, Jodhpur, Jaisalmer, Pali and Nagaur. Unjha, enjoying the strategic advantage of being in the centre of the country’s jeera cultivation belt, has become the price-setting market for the crop.
  • India accounts for some 70% of the world’s production of this seed spice. Other countries such as Syria, Turkey, UAE and Iran make up the balance 30%.
  • India’s jeera production is meant for both its domestic market as well as for export. The top export destinations include China, Bangladesh, US, UAE, Pakistan, Saudi Arabia and Turkey. China has been importing Indian cumin aggressively.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding CITES Agreement.

  1. CITES is an international agreement between governments to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
  2. Conference of the Parties (CoP), which is the supreme decision-making body of CITES, applies a set of biological and trade criteria to evaluate proposals from parties to decide if a species should be in Appendix I or II.
  3. When a country becomes a party to the CITES, it cannot import and export species that are covered under CITES must.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 26

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora is an international agreement between governments to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species. The convention entered into force in 1975 and India became the 25th party — a state that voluntarily agrees to be bound by the Convention — in 1976.

All import, export and re-export of species covered under CITES must be authorised through a permit system.

Every two years, the Conference of the Parties (CoP), the supreme decision-making body of CITES, applies a set of biological and trade criteria to evaluate proposals from parties to decide if a species should be in Appendix I or II.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 27

In India, which of the following entities can provide microfinance?

  1. Small finance banks
  2. Non-banking financial companies (NBFCs)
  3. Not-for profits organisations
  4. Public Sector Banks

How many of the above options are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 27

The number of loan accounts for the microfinance industry increased to 136.3 million in FY23, from 123.9 million in FY22, posting a year-on-year (y-o-y) growth of 10%. Lender-wise figures showed that NBFCs registered highest y-o-y growth of 23%, followed by NBFC-MFIs at 15%, not-for profits or NFPs at 6%, banks at 6%, and small finance banks at 5%. 

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 28

Mount Marapi, that was recently in news is located in 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 28
  • Indonesia’s Mount Marapi erupted again recently.
  • Marapi is known for sudden eruptions that are difficult to predict because they are not caused by a deep movement of magma, which sets off tremors that register on seismic monitors.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Security Council (UNSC).

  1. The UN Security Council is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions.
  2. UNSC can take action in situations threatening international peace and security.
  3. All decisions of the UNSC must be approved by the UN General Assembly to be enforced.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 29

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Decisions taken under Chapter VII, such as economic sanctions or other sections like international security, are binding on UN members; the Security Council is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions. The UNGA can only make recommendations in this regard.

Decisions that are vetoed by the P-5 cannot be submitted for the review of the UNGA. Also, the UNSC is the authority under the UN charter to take action in situations threatening international peace and security.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 9 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding Powering Past Coal Alliance (PPCA).

  1. PPCA is a coalition involving governments, businesses, and organizations, focusing on transitioning from unabated coal power to clean energy.
  2. India is part of PPCAas it has committed to phasing out of coal production.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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