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Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - KTET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Kerala SET Mock Test Series 2024 - Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography)

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) for KTET 2024 is part of Kerala SET Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) questions and answers have been prepared according to the KTET exam syllabus.The Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) MCQs are made for KTET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) below.
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Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 1

________ are loop-like channel patterns which develop over flood and delta plains.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 1

The correct answer is 'Meanders'.

Key Points

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 2

Which of the following is a minor plate of the lithosphere?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 2

The correct answer is Caribbean Plate.Key Points

  • The lithosphere is divided into tectonic plates including the North American, Caribbean, South American, Scotia, Antarctic, Eurasian, Arabian, African, Indian, Philippine, Australian, Pacific, Juan de Fuca, Cocos, and Nazca
  • The Caribbean Plate is a mostly oceanic tectonic plate underlying Central America and the Caribbean Sea off the north coast of South America. It is a minor plate.

Additional Information

  • The names of the minor plates are the Scotia plate, the Nazca plate, the Cocos plate, the Caribbean plate, the Juan de Fuca, the Arabian plate, and lastly the Philippine plate.
  • The Eurasian Plate is a tectonic plate that includes most of the continent of Eurasia, with the notable exceptions of the Indian subcontinent, the Arabian subcontinent, and the area east of the Chersky Range in eastern Siberia.
  • The Antarctic Plate is a tectonic plate containing the continent of Antarctica, the Kerguelen Plateau, and some remote islands in the Southern Ocean and other surrounding oceans.
  • The Indo-Australian Plate is a major tectonic plate that includes the continent of Australia and the surrounding ocean and extends northwest to include the Indian subcontinent and the adjacent waters. It was formed by the fusion of the Indian and the Australian Plates approximately 43 million years ago.

Thus, Caribbean Plate is a minor plate of the lithosphere.

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Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 3

Rimland theory was presented by M. J. Spykman in

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 3

Rimland theory 

  • Nicholas John Spykman (1893 - 1943), an American political scientist propounded Rimland's theory in 1942.
  • It was published in 1944 in his book entitled The Geography of Peace

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Main concept:

  • It is basically the opposite of the Heartland theory by Mackinder
  • The inner crescent of the Heartland theory is considered as the Rimland here
  • Topography, terrain, and climate are considered an important determinant of foreign policy
  • Peace is possible by collective security arrangement or international balance of power arrangement
  • Unified Rimland: strong land power the USA and the Soviet Union
  • He gave more emphasis on sea power
  • Seapower possible to conceive of the Eurasian continent as a unit
  • Defines the relationship between the old and new world
  • These regions have more potential than the Heartland
  • It is an intermediate region between Heartland and marginal sea region

The rimland:

The inner marginal crescent was divided into three parts in Rimland theory

  1. European land
  2. The Arabian middle eastern desert
  3. Asiatic monsoon land

Premises:

  • Who controls the Rimland rules Eurasia
  • Who rules Eurasia controls the destinies of the world
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 4

What is the depth range of shallow seawater over the continental shelf?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 4

Answer: Option 3)  120 to 370 meters.

The Earth's geographical features are diverse, ranging from towering mountain ranges to vast oceanic expanses. One intriguing aspect is the continental shelf, a shallow submerged extension of continents. Within this unique realm, the depth of seawater varies, playing a crucial role in marine ecosystems. The forthcoming question explores the specific depth range of shallow seawater over the continental shelf.

Important Points 

  • The depth range of shallow seawater over the continental shelf is between 120 to 370 meters.
  • This range was emphasized in the passage, highlighting the relatively shallow nature of this region compared to the deeper waters of the open ocean.
  • The shallowness of this area is of paramount significance, as it allows sunlight to penetrate the water column, fostering the growth of microscopic plants and animals known as plankton.
  • This, in turn, makes the continental shelf a rich source of food for various marine organisms. 

Hence, 120 to 370 meters (Option c), is a critical parameter defining the characteristics and ecological importance of this geographical feature.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 5

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above mentioned pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 5

The correct answer is Only three.
Important Points

Here is the justification for each:

Mississippi:

  • The Mississippi River is one of the longest rivers in North America, flowing through ten U.S. states, from Minnesota to the Gulf of Mexico.

Amazon:

  • The Amazon River is in South America, primarily flowing through Brazil and Peru.
  • It's the second longest river in the world and has the largest drainage basin on the planet, not to mention its crucial role in the Amazon Rainforest's ecosystem.

Orange:

  • The Orange River, contrary to what's listed in the table, is not in Asia.
  • It's actually the longest river in South Africa and forms part of the border between South Africa and Namibia.

Darling:

  • The Darling River is the third longest river in Australia, running through New South Wales.
  • It is part of the Murray-Darling river system, which is the longest river system in Australia.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 6

Wooly hair, bulbous head, broad flat nose, and slightly protruding jaws are the features of

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 6

The Correct Answer is Negrito race.

Key Points

  • Negrito is the collective term to refer to the Filipino Indigenous peoples with a hunter-gatherer background, including the Agta, Aeta, Ati, Ata, and Batak peoples. The Negrito peoples represent the most ancient civilization in the country, dating back more than 50.000 years ago. 
  • The present population of the Indian subcontinent has been divided broadly into the following racial groups:
  • The Negritos-
  • The Proto-Australoids
  • The Mongoloids
    • Paleo-Mongoloids
    • Tibeto-Mongoloids
  • The Mediterranean
    • Paleo-Mediterranean
    • Mediterranean’s
    • Oriental-Mediterranean’s

Additional Information

  • The First Humans
    • One of the earliest known humans is Homo habilis, or “handyman,” who lived about 2.4 million to 1.4 million years ago in Eastern and Southern Africa.
    • The main human races are Caucasoid, Mongoloids (including Chinese, Japanese, Koreans, and American Indians, etc.), and Negroid. Khoisanoids or Capoids (Bushmen and Hottentots) and Pacific races (Australian aborigines, Polynesians, Melanesians, and Indonesians) may also be distinguished.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 7
Which one of the following climates are found in the coastal areas of California in North America, Chile in the middle of South America, and the southwest end of Western Australia?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 7

The Correct Answer is the Mediterranean.

Key Points

  • Mediterranean climates are found in coastal areas of California in North America, Central Chile in South America, and the South-West tip of West Australia. Winter precipitation is primarily the result of cold fronts that move across the Pacific Northwest and northern California.
  • The monthly average temperature in summer is around 25°C and in winter below 10°C.
  • The annual precipitation ranges from 35 - 90 cm.

Additional Information

  • Tropical savanna
    • A tropical wet and dry climate predominates in areas covered by savanna growth.
    • Mean monthly temperatures are at or above 64° F and annual precipitation averages between 30 and 50 inches.
    • For at least five months of the year, during the dry season, less than 4 inches a month are received.

  • humid continental climate
    • A humid continental climate is a climatic region defined by Russo-German climatologist Wladimir Köppen in 1900, typified by four distinct seasons and large seasonal temperature differences, with warm to hot summers and freezing cold winters.
  • Low latitude step
    • There are four low-latitude climates: wet equatorial, monsoon, and trade-wind coastal, wet-dry tropical, and dry tropical.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 8
The system designed to capture, store, manipulate, analyze, manage and present spatial or geographical data can be termed as
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 8

Concept:

GIS stands for the geographic information system. These are programs or a combination of programs that work together to help users make sense of their spatial data. This includes management, manipulation and customization, analysis, and creating visual displays.

Spatial data, also known as geospatial data, is a term used to describe any data related to or containing information about a specific location on the Earth’s surface. It exists in a variety of formats and contains more than just location-specific information.

G.I.S has following components

1. Hard ware (computer)

2. Software

3. Data management

4. End User and

5. Methods

The global positioning system (GPS) is a space based satellite navigation system that provides location and time information in all weather, anywhere or near the earth. It is maintained by the United States Government and is freely accessible to anyone. The GPS program critical capabilities to military, civil and commercial users around the world. In addition, GPS is the backbone for modernizing the global air traffic system.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 9

Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Peninsular Rivers have broad and shallow valleys.

Reason (R): Peninsular Rivers have a low capacity to carry load.

Select the correct answer from options given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 9

Rivers in Indian peninsula have almost reached base level of their erosion. They are in the mature stage which is evident through their broad and shallow valleys and the deltas that they make. The velocity of water in their channel and their capacity to carry load is also less. The reason for this is that the peninsular rivers have existed for a much longer period of time as compared to the Himalayan Rivers. Thus, both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 10

As per the Census 2011, which state has the lowest population in India?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 10

As per the Census of 2011 the population of Sikkim is 619,000 which is lowest in India. Sikkim is located at trijunction of India with China (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 11
How are resources divided on the basis of status of development? 
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 11

The correct answer is Potential, developed, stock, and reserves.

Key Points

  • Resource refers to all the materials available in our environment that help us to satisfy our needs and wants.
  • Resources are classified on the basis of their status of development which includes potential, developed stock, and reserves.
  • Resources can be classified in the following ways–
    • On the basis of origin – biotic and abiotic
    • On the basis of exhaustibility – renewable and non-renewable
    • On the basis of ownership – individual, community, national and international
    • On the basis of the status of development – potential, developed, stock, and reserves.

Additional Information

  •  On the basis of the status of development, resources are classified into four groups, namely potential, developed, stock, and reserve.
    • Potential Resources: Potential resources are those which are found in a region, but have not been utilized. For example, solar energy and wind energy, available in Rajasthan and Gujarat, have not been developed properly.
    • Developed Resources: Developed resources are those that are estimated in terms of their quantity and quality for utilization, e.g., water, soil, and forests.
    • Stock Resources: Materials in the environment that have the potential to satisfy human needs but are not technologically accessible to human beings, e.g., the use of water as a rich source of energy.
    • Reserve Resources: A Reserve is a part of the stock that can be put to use in the near future with the help of existing technology, e.g., water in dams, and forests.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 12
Natural change and ______ are the two factors that affect population change for a particular area.
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 12

Three primary factors account for population change, or how much a population is increasing or decreasing. These factors are birth rate, death rate, and migration.

  • Births and deaths are natural causes of population change. The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country or place is called the natural increase. The natural increase is calculated by subtracting the death rate from the birth rate.

Key Points

  • Human migration involves the movement of people from one place to another with intention of settling, permanently or temporarily, at a new location.

Additional Information

  • Zero population growth refers to a population that is unchanging – it is neither growing nor declining; the growth rate is zero.
  • Immigration is the international movement of people to a destination country of which they are not natives or where they do not possess citizenship in order to settle as permanent residents or naturalized citizens.

Natural change and Migration are the two factors that affect population change for a particular area. Therefore Option 4 is the correct answer.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 13
Adityapur Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is famous for :
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 13

Adityapur Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is famous for Automobiles and Auto components.

Key PointsAdityapur Special Economic Zone (SEZ):

  • Adityapur Special Economic Zone (SEZ) has become the first SEZ from Jharkhand and also the first from the automobile sector to be notified.
  • The 36-hectare automobiles and components SEZ has become the 23rd SEZ to be notified and will come up at Saraikela-Kharsawan district of Jharkhand, close to the Jamshedpur steel belt.
  • It would have backward and forward linkages with the domestic industry, especially with the steel sector.
  • The SEZ will be developed by Adityapur Industrial Area Development Authority, construction and engineering major Gammon India Ltd and Tata Steel subsidiary Jamshedpur Utility and Services Company(JUSCO).
  • This SEZ will also be the first from under-represented states like Jharkhand to be notified.

Hence, Automobile and Auto components will be the correct answer.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 14

As the temperature of the black body increases,the dominant wavelength of the emitted radiation according to Wein's displacement law is:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 14

According to Wein's displacement law:

Where A = Wein’s constant =2.898 x 10-3 mk

T = Temperature of the body

So, as the temperature of the black body increases, the dominant wavelength of the emitted radiation shifts towards shorter wavelength.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 15

Brahmaputra River when it flows out of India into Bangladesh is called as ________?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 15

Brahmaputra River when it flows out of India into Bangladesh is called as Jamuna River.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 16

Which of the following winds are hot dust-laden and blow from Sahara desert towards Mediterranean Region? 

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 16
  • Sirocco is a Mediterranean wind that comes from the Sahara and can reach hurricane speeds in North Africa and Southern Europe, especially during the summer season.
  • The Loo is a strong, dusty, hot and dry summer wind from the west which blows over the western Indo-Gangetic Plain region of North India and Pakistan.
  • A Föhn or foehn is a type of dry, warm, down-slope wind that occurs in the lee (downwind side) of a mountain range. 
  • The mistral is a strong, cold, northwesterly wind that blows from southern France into the Gulf of Lion in the northern Mediterranean, with sustained winds often exceeding 66 km/h.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 17

Consider the following statements with respect to the total fertility rate (TFR):

1. It is defined as the average number of children that would be born to a woman by the time she ends childbearing. 

2. As per the National family health survey, Kerala recorded the lowest TFR in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 17

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

Total fertility rate (TFR):

  • The total fertility rate is defined as the average number of children that would be born to a woman by the time she ends childbearing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Below-replacement fertility is defined as a combination of fertility and mortality levels that leads to a negative population growth rate, hence a declining population size 
  • TFR is considered one of the most useful indicators of fertility.
  • According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS), Sikkim recorded the lowest TFR, with one woman bearing 1.1 children on average; Bihar recorded the highest TFR of three children per woman. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • In 19 of the 22 surveyed states, TFRs were found to be ‘below-replacement — a woman bore less than two children on average throughout her reproductive life.

Additional Information

The National Family Health Survey (NFHS):

  • The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India. 
  • The survey provides state and national information for India on fertility, infant and child mortality, the practice of family planning, maternal and child health, reproductive health, nutrition, anaemia, utilization, and quality of health and family planning services.
  • e Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW), Government of India, designated the International Institute for Population Sciences(IIPS) Mumbai, as the nodal agency, responsible for providing coordination and technical guidance for the survey. 
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 18
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding endogenic processes inside the earth?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 18

The correct answer is None of the above.

Key Points

  • The endogenic and exogenic forces can cause changes in the configuration of the surface of the earth and refer to as geomorphic processes. 
    • The energy originating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes.
    • This energy is mostly produced by rotational and tidal friction, radioactivity, and primordial heat from the origin of the earth.
    • This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere.
  • The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes.
  • The earth movements are mainly of two types: diastrophism and sudden movements
  • Diastrophism:
    • All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. 
    • Diastrophism is further classified into orogenic (involving mountain buildings), epeirogenic (upliftment or warping of large parts of the earth's crust), earthquake, and plate tectonic activities.
  • Sudden movements:
    • They cause considerable deformation over a short span of time and may be of two types: earthquakes and volcanoes.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 19
Which of the following is an erosional landform?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 19

The yardangs is an Aeolian landform. It is formed when rock is eroded forming ridges and furrows alternately in the direction of the wind. Turkistan and Mojave deserts have quite a number of yardangs.

Thus, the Correct answer is C.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 20
What would you do to prevent environmental damage?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 20

Concept:

Environmental degradation:

  • Environmental degradation refers to the loss of biodiversity caused by the exploitation and depletion of natural resources.
  • Degradation is the loss or depletion of something.
  • There are several types of degradation, including air, water, and land and soil degradation.

Explanation:

Waste management:

  • This Reuse, Recycle, and Reduce is associated with the practice of waste segregation and management.
  • Kitchen waste (fruit peels, vegetables, leftover food, tea leaves) forms a large percentage of the total waste at home.
  • Composting is a common method to reduce the volume of kitchen waste to ‘zero waste.’
  • Old newspapers, magazines, bottles, tins, etc products are utilised as raw materials for manufacturing other products.
  • In other words, these products are recycled.
  • There are certain items in our garbage that can be reused.
  • Reusing discarded items means that instead of dumping them and increasing the load of waste, we can reuse these items.
  • This waste management process can prevent and control environmental damage.

Thus, to prevent environmental damage we can do reuse, recycle and reduce.

Additional Information

Landfilling:

  • In the cities and towns, the collection of garbage is the responsibility of the respective municipalities.
  • The garbage then goes through a process of segregation, treatment and final disposal in the landfills.

Deforestation:

  • Deforestation means clearing off forests and using that land for others purposes.
  • Trees in the forest are cut for procuring land for cultivation, building houses and factories and making furniture or using wood as fuel.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 21
Hadley Cell is related to which of the following :
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 21

Concept:

Wind:

  • The movement of air from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas is called wind.
  • Earth has five main wind zone: polar easterlies, westerlies, horse latitudes, trade winds, and the doldrums.

Atmosphere pressure:

  • The atmospheric pressure is the weight of a column of air contained in a unit area from the mean sea level to the top of the atmosphere.
  • The atmospheric pressure is expressed in units of a millibar.

Explanation:

Hadley Cell:

  • It was coined by George Hadley.
  • It is a pattern of air or wind circulation near the equatorial area.
  • Down below near the land surface the air flows towards the equator as the easterlies.
  • The easterlies from either side of the equator converge in the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).
  • Such circulations from the surface upwards and vice-versa are called cells.
  • Such a cell in the tropics is called Hadley Cell.

Thus, Hadley Cell is related to the wind system.

Additional Information

Earthquake zone:

  • Earthquakes are caused by the movement of plates, the boundaries of the plates are the weak zones where earthquakes are more likely to occur.
  • The weak zones are also known as seismic or fault zones.

Volcano activity:

  • Volcanic activity can range from gas emissions to non-explosive lava eruptions to extremely violent explosive bursts that can last for hours.

Formation of the tide:

  • High and low tides are caused by the moon's gravitational pull on the Earth and the Earth's rotational force.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 22
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the rabi crops?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 22

The correct answer is Southern and southeastern states are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops.

Key Points

  • Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh, are major contributors to the production of wheat, barley, and other rabi crops. Hence Option 1 is incorrect.
  • These regions have favorable climatic conditions and fertile soil, making them suitable for the cultivation of rabi crops.
  • Wheat is one of the most important rabi crops grown in these states, and they significantly contribute to the overall wheat production in the country.
  • Other rabi crops like barley, peas, gram, and mustard are also cultivated in these regions.

Additional Information

  • Kharif crops
    • Kharif Crops are planted at the onset of the South-West monsoon, primarily in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh, during the rainy season.
    • The sowing of these crops takes place between the months of June and July.
    • Upon reaching maturity, typically in October, these crops are harvested in the Autumn season.
    • Examples of Kharif crops include rice, cotton, corn, sugarcane, turmeric, pigeon pea, and more.
  • Zaid crops
    • Zaid Crops are grown during the summer season in regions with a tropical climate.
    • These crops are typically cultivated between the months of March and June.
    • Zaid crops are known for their quick growth and shorter duration compared to Kharif and Rabi crops.
    • Examples of Zaid crops include cucumber, watermelon, bitter gourd, maize, and cowpea.
    • These crops are often irrigated using modern techniques and are harvested before the onset of the monsoon season.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 23
Which of the following geographers has contributed to development of political geography in India?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 23

The field of political geography was explored in Indian context by R.D. Dikshit. He blended political theory with spatial analysis in case of Indian nation-state. R.N.P Sinha and Govind Saran Singh also made contributions to the political geography in India.

Thus, the correct answer is D.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 24
Consider the following statements:-

a) Sea level Changes are only affected by Eustatic changes.

b) Marine sediments depict about global sea level change.

c) Evidences of sedimentary deposits of various sorts depict sea level changes during the pre-quaternary stages.

d) Sea level has risen by about 10 to 16 cm in the past 100 years.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 24

The sea level changes are not only affected by eustatic changes such as the melting of ice and global warming but also by tectonic changes such as Isostatic changes, epeirogenetic and orogenetic changes. Various other evidences such as elevated shorelines, the deposition of organic and inorganic deposits in the continental shelves support the sea level changes. But recently, the change in the sea level has mostly been due to the factors such as global warming due to anthropogenic conditions and melting of glaciers and ice sheets.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 25
Which of the human made resource have huge economic importance?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 25

Key PointsHuman Made Resources:

  • Human-made resources, also known as capital resources, are material riches created by humans that can be used to create more wealth.
  • Examples include money, factories, roads, and technology.
  • Man-made resources are important because they can be conserved for the future and are produced by using skill, knowledge, and technology at their best.
  • Man-made resources are the signs of progress and development and are the refined form of natural resources.

Technological resources are the backbone of engineering and technology. It is a kind of human-made resource that has huge economic importance in innovation and development procedures. Educational quality, skill, and efficiency are human resources, not human-made resources.

Additional Information

Human Resources:

  • Human Resource refers to the number (quantity) and abilities (mental and physical) of people.
  • Though there are differing views regarding the treatment of humans as a resource, one cannot deny the fact that it is the skills of humans that help in transferring the physical material into a valuable resource.
  • The term human resources refer to the size of the population of a country along with its efficiency, educational qualities, productivity, organizational abilities, and farsightedness.
  • It is the ultimate resource, but not equally, distributed over the world.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 26
Which of the following is not a social theoretical approach?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 26

Correct Answer: None of the above.

Key Points

  • Queer theory is the lens used to explore and challenge how scholars, activists, artistic texts, and the media perpetuate gender- and sex-based binaries, and its goal is to undo hierarchies and fight against social inequalities. In short, we will grapple with how to “queer” social work, and the limits and possibilities of such a “queering.” This will be accomplished by taking up a more critical, anti-oppressive, and liberatory stance, one that might re-shape the ways we think about and engage the individuals and communities we work alongside to achieve social justice. This course fulfills the Human Diversity Requirement.
  • Critical rationalism is the philosophy developed by Karl Popper during the middle of the 20th century. Popper's approach is based on the naturalistic idea that society has developed through a process of solving problems using trial and error.
  • The natural and social sciences have been born out of such problem solving and progressed by subjecting potential theories to vigorous testing and criticism.
  • Environmental theorists assess how people, as part of the social and physical environment, adapt and change over time. If you contemplate any rule of law, you can see how society has altered because of shifts in social ideas or ecological fluctuations. Consider the anti-tobacco laws in the United States making it illegal to smoke in public spaces as an example of social shifts towards health and wellness, or water meters to control and regulate residential water usage and waste as an example of ecological drought and prolonged water shortages in the United States. Application of environmental theory uncovers the social and environmental influences of change or areas encountering a change in social systems, policies, processes, institutions, networks, communities, organizations, and groups.
  • Environmental determinism is the study of how the physical environment predisposes societies and states towards particular development trajectories. Jared Diamond, Jeffrey Herbst, Ian Morris, and other social scientists sparked a revival of the theory during the late twentieth and early twenty-first centuries.

Additional Information

  • In using the sociological eye, each theoretical paradigm helps remove bias in assessing people and social issues at all levels of analysis (macro, meso, and micro). There as three major paradigms in the field of sociology: functionalism, conflict theory, and symbolic interactionism. Functionalism and conflict theory examine society on a macro and meso levels. Symbolic interactionism investigates micro-level interactions in society. There are also three modern or emerging paradigms in sociology: feminism, exchange theory, and environmental theory. Feminism and environment analyze macro and meso levels. Exchange theory focuses on micro-level analysis.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 27

Read the following statements about sustainable development.

Statement (A): Sustainable development is a process of maximum exploitation of resources.

Statement (B): In absence of sustainable development non-renewable resources can definitely get exhauste.

Choose the correct option.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 27

The correct option is: (A) is false, but (B) is true.
Important Points

Statement (A) states that sustainable development is a process of maximum exploitation of resources.

  • This statement is false.
  • Sustainable development aims to balance economic, social, and environmental considerations to meet the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
  • It emphasizes the responsible and efficient use of resources rather than maximum exploitation.

Statement (B) states that in the absence of sustainable development, non-renewable resources can definitely get exhausted.

  • This statement is true.
  • Non-renewable resources such as fossil fuels (coal, oil, natural gas) and minerals are finite in quantity and take millions of years to form.
  • If these resources are not managed sustainably, they can be depleted faster than they can be replenished, leading to their exhaustion.

Therefore, (A) is false as sustainable development does not involve maximum exploitation of resources, and (B) is true as non-renewable resources can indeed get exhausted in the absence of sustainable development.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 28

Which process in known as chemical weathering process?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 28

Oxidation is the loss of electrons or an increase in the oxidation state of an atom by a molecule, an ion, or another atom. Reduction is the gain of electrons or a decrease in the oxidation state of an atom by a molecule, an ion, or another atom.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 29

Name the currency of Japan

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 29

The yen is the official currency of Japan. It is the third most traded currency in the foreign exchange market after the United States dollar and the euro.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 30

Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): India is the second largest irrigated country in the world.

Reason (R): The whole country of India is fully irrigated.

Select the correct answer from options given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 1 (Geography) - Question 30

India is the second largest irrigated country in the world. But only one-third of the total area of the country is irrigated. Majority of the country is still dependent upon the rains for water for agriculture. The Indian monsoon is highly erratic and unpredictable. Therefore, it is necessary to develop irrigation in India. Thus, (A) is true and (R) is false.

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