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MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - MPPSC (Madhya Pradesh) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test MPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 - MPPSC Mock Test - 10

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 for MPPSC (Madhya Pradesh) 2024 is part of MPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The MPPSC Mock Test - 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the MPPSC (Madhya Pradesh) exam syllabus.The MPPSC Mock Test - 10 MCQs are made for MPPSC (Madhya Pradesh) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 below.
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MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

Nationalist School of Historiography emerged as a response to:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 1
 
  • The nationalist approach to Indian history can be described as one which tended to contribute to the growth of nationalist feelings and to unify people in the face of religious, caste, or linguistic differences or class differentiation. 

  • This approach looks at the national movement as a movement of the Indian people, which grew out of the growing awareness among all people of the exploitative nature of colonial rule. 

  • This approach developed as a response to and in confrontation with the colonial approach. It should be noted that the nationalist historians of modern India didn’t exist before 1947. Before 1947, nationalist historiography mainly dealt with the ancient and medieval periods of Indian history. 

  • Although, in the last quarter of the 19th century, a detailed and scientific critique of colonialism for the adverse economic aspects of alien rule was developed by nationalists like Dadabhai Naoroji, M.G. Ranade, G.V. Joshi, R.C.

Dutt, K.T. Telang, G.K. Gokhale, and D.E. Wacha. The only accounts of the national movement was by nationalist leaders (not historians) such as R.G.

Pradhan, A.C. Mazumdar, J.L. Nehru and Pattabhi Sitaramayya. R.C. Majumdar and Tara Chand are noted nationalist historians of modern India.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

Consider the following statements.

  1. Palghat Gap is a major break in the Western Ghats mountain range located between the Nilgiri Hills and Anaimalai Hills.
  2. Most elephant reserves in India are found in the flat terrain and very few of them are located in the mountainous habitats.
  3. Asian elephant has been listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 2
  • A recent article says the endangered Asian Elephant has lost most of its “optimal” habitat: flat terrain that is easily negotiable.
  • The WG [Western Ghats] is an escarpment running north–south along the western coastline of India, interrupted towards the south by the low-lying Palghat Gap that separates the northern from the southern elephant populations. This gap has been transformed by agriculture for several centuries, is 3 km at its narrowest, and 40 km at its widest.
  • The Palghat Gap is a break in the Ghats that is “relatively flat and consequently easily negotiable by elephants”. However, human settlements and crop cultivation have hindered the movement of the elephants, keeping them confined to the hilly areas, considered sub-optimal habitats.
  • Over thousands of years, elephants roamed freely across South-East Asia, all the way to China, but “anthropogenic pressures” have restricted them to mountain chains. Ironically, most elephant reserves in India are found in mountainous habitats.
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MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

Inter process communication can be done through ______.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

The judicial magistrate court decides on cases that are punishable up to:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 4
The judicial magistrate court is at the lowest in the hierarchy of criminal courts. Above it there is the Chief Judicial Magistrate Court, and above that is the Session Judge's court, and the topmost authority at the district level is the High Court.
MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

Which of the following is not a Legislative power of Governor? 

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 5
He can make rules specifying how the Orders and other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authenticated. Option (a), (b) and (d) are the Governor's Legislative power. But, Option (c) is Governor's Executive power

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 6

The state legislature may:

1. Authorise a panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees

2. Assign to a panchayat taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government

3. Provide for making grants-in-aid to the panchayats from the consolidated fund of the state

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 6
The state legislature may 

(a) authorize a panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees; 

(b) assign to a panchayat taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government; 

(c) provide for making grants-in-aid to the panchayats from the consolidated fund of the state; and 

(d) provide for the constitution of funds for crediting all money of the panchayats.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

Consider the following geological locations:

1. Coastal mountain ranges

2. Off-shore islands

3. Midst of Deep Ocean beds

Which of the above are likely for the occurrence of volcanoes?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 7
Mid-Atlantic ridges, hot spots and plate boundaries are major sources for volcanoes.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

Asphyxiation is a condition that occurs

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 8
  • Asphyxiation, or suffocation, occurs when the body is deprived of oxygen.
  • Asphyxia can result from drowning, asthma, choking, strangulation, seizure, drug overdose, or inhaling chemical substances.
  • Asphyxiation can lead to loss of consciousness, brain injury, and death.
MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

Which among the following is not a word inserted into the Preamble under the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

The 42nd C.A Act introduced 3 new words into the Preamble- Socialist, Secular and integrity. The text has no such word as ‘liberal’ in it.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) is committed to the protection of India’s wildlife;
2. It is an NGO founded in 1998.

Codes:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

Wildlife Trust Of India: NGO founded: 1998.

  • Aim: To conserve nature, especially endangered species and threatened habitats, in partnership with communities and governments.
  • The Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) is committed to the protection of India’s wildlife; it achieves this by working in partnership with local communities and governments on a range of projects, from species rehabilitation to the prevention of the illegal wildlife trade.
MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

The first transgenic cow was

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

The first transgenic cow is Rosie which produced human protein riched milk having alpha-lactalbumin, which is more balanced than conventional cow’s milk.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

The first Diwan of Holkar state was

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

The first Diwan of Holkar state was Tatya Jog. The Holkar dynasty was able to continue to rule Indore as a princely state mainly owing to the efforts of their Dewan Tatya Jog.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

Consider the following statements with reference to principles of parliamentary government in India:

  1. The advice tendered by the council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister is binding on the President.

  2. A non-member of the parliament cannot be appointed as a minister.

  3. The ministers take the oath of secrecy before entering their office, administered by the speaker of Lok Sabha.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 13
  • A non-member may be appointed as a minister, but he/she will have to get elected to either house within six months.

  • The ministers take the oath of secrecy before entering their office administered by the President. Enrich Your Learning: The features or principles of parliamentary government in India are:

1. Nominal and Real Executives:

  • The President is the nominal executive while the Prime Minister is the real executive.

  • The President is head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government.

  • Article 74 provides for a council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions.

  • The advice so tendered is binding on the President.

2. Majority Party Rule:

  • The party with majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government.

  • The leader of the party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President.

  • Other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the PM.

  • When no single party gets the majority, then the President invites a coalition of parties to form the government.

3. Collective Responsibility:

  • In general, the ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75).

  • The principle of collective responsibility means that Lok Sabha can remove the council of ministers headed by the PM from the office by passing a vote of no confidence.

4. Political Homogeneity:

  • The members of the council of ministers generally belong to the same political party, and hence share the same political ideology.

  • In the case of a coalition government, the ministers are bound by consensus.

5. Double Membership:

  • A person cannot be a minister without being a member of the Parliament i.e. the ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.

  • A minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months’ ceases to be a minister.

  • It means a non-member may be appointed as a minister, but he/she will have to get elected to either house within six months.

6. Leadership of the Prime Minister:

  • The PM is the leader of the council of ministers, leader of the Parliament and leader of the party in power.

7. Dissolution of the Lower House:

  • Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President on recommendation of the Prime Minister.

  • The executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system.

8. Secrecy:

  • The ministers take the oath of secrecy before entering their office information, about their proceedings, policies and decisions, administered by the President.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

Which of the following is/are salient features of the Paris agreement?

1. It provides a transparency framework.
2. It establishes a compliance mechanism in a punitive way.
3. It mandates the contribution of financial resources by developed countries on a voluntary basis.

Select the correct answer from the following codes

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

The Agreement is not mitigation-centric. The Agreement mandates that developed countries provide financial resources to developing countries. Other Parties may also contribute, but on a purely voluntary basis. The Agreement includes a robust transparency framework for both action and support. The Paris Agreement establishes a compliance mechanism, overseen by a committee of experts that operates in a non-punitive way, and is facilitative in nature.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

Which of the following statements is true regarding a whip?

  1. The whip can recommend actions against a member for defection.
  2. The whip has the power to expel a member of the House in case of defection.
Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 15
  •  A whip is a party official responsible for ensuring party discipline in a legislature.
  •  Whips can recommend actions against party members who defy party lines, including defection.
  •  However, they do not have the authority to expel a member from the House. Expulsion decisions involve formal procedures and may require a vote or legal process.

 Option A is correct: "Only i" is true because the whip can recommend actions, but cannot expel members.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

Acid rains is caused due to emission of which of the following into the atmosphere?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

Acid rain is caused by emissions of sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide, which react with the water molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

 Which one of the following is constitutionally obligatory on the part of the Prime Minister of India?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

Duties of Prime Minister as respects the furnishing of information to the President, etc It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister

(a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation;

(b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for; and

(c) if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council CHAPTER II PARLIAMENT General

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

Consider the following statements: 

  1. The Director of Central Bureau of Investigation as Inspector-General of Police, Delhi Special Police Establishment, is responsible for the administration of the organisation. 
  2. With the enactment of CVC Act, 2003, the superintendence of Delhi Special Police Establishment vests with the Central Government save investigations of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, in which, the superintendence vests with the Central Vigilance Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office . The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

Consider the following statements and the correct ones.
(1) Fish that eradicates the mosquito larva is Gambusia.
(2) The instrument used to measure blood pressure is Autoanalyser.
(3) CT scanning was developed by Godfrey Hounsfield.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

The instrument used for measuring blood pressure is known as Sphygmomanometer or BP apparatus. Blood pressure is usually measured from left brachial artery. Autoanalyser is a computer controlled instrument for various biochemical tests on sample of blood, urine or other body fluids. CT scanning, developed by Godfrey Hounsfield in 1968, (Nobel Prize in 1979). Gambusia is a larvivorous fish, used as a biocontrol agent for mosquitoes.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding Green Status of Species.

  1. It is a new Global Standard to measure how close a species is being fully ecologically functional across its range.
  2. It was launched by UNFCCC.
  3. It measures how much the species has recovered due to conservation efforts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

The IUCN Green Status of Species, a new Global Standard to measure how close a species is to being fully ecologically functional across its range, and how much it has recovered thanks to conservation action.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 21

In 1905, which of the following raised the demand for swarajya or self-government within the British empire, from the Congress platform?

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the pyramid of energy:

1. An energy pyramid is most suitable to compare the functional roles of the trophic levels in an ecosystem.

2. Pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the top.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

Pyramid of Energy:

  • An energy ‘pyramid reflects the laws of thermodynamics, with the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy and heat energy at each trophic level and with loss of energy being depicted at each transfer to another trophic level.

  • Hence the pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

Consider the following statements about the Point Sources of Pollution:

1. Directly attributable to one influence.

2. In point source nutrient waste travels directly from source to water.

3. Point sources are difficult to regulate.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 23
Point source: Directly attributable to one influence; In point source nutrient waste travels directly from source to water; Point sources are easy to regulate.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of Wetlands in India.

  1. According to National Wetland Inventory and Assessment compiled by ISRO, wetlands are spread over more than 10 percent of the total geographical area of India.
  2. In state-wise distribution of wetlands, West Bengal is at the top position.
  3. Inland-natural wetlands account for maximum share compared to coastal-natural wetlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 24
  • Globally, wetlands cover 6.4 per cent of the geographical area of the world. In India, according to the National Wetland Inventory and Assessment compiled by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), wetlands are spread over 1,52,600 square kilometres (sq km) which is 4.63 per cent of the total geographical area of the country. Of the 1,52,600 sq km, inland-natural wetlands account for 43.4% and coastal-natural wetlands 24.3%.
  • Rivers/streams occupy 52,600 sq km, reservoirs/barrages 24,800 sq km, inter-tidal mudflats 24,100 sq km, tanks/ponds 13,100 sq km and lake/ponds 7300 sq km.
  • India has 19 types of wetlands. In state-wise distribution of wetlands, Gujarat is at the top with 34,700 sq km (17.56% of total geographical area of the state), or 22.7% of total wetlands areas of the country thanks to a long coastline. It is followed by Andhra Pradesh (14,500 sq km), Uttar Pradesh (12,400 sq km) and West Bengal (11,100 sq km).
MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding Five Eyes alliance.

  1. The Five Eyes alliance is an intelligence-sharing arrangement between US, UK, Canada, Australia and New Zealand.
  2. It evolved during the 2022 Russia-Ukraine war as a mechanism for monitoring the activities of Russia.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

The Five Eyes alliance is an intelligence-sharing arrangement between US, UK, Canada, Australia and New Zealand. It evolved during the Cold War as a mechanism for monitoring the Soviet Union and sharing classified intelligence. It is often described as the world’s most successful intelligence alliance. But recently it has suffered an embarrassing setback.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

Which of the following crops are grown mostly under subsistence farming?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 26
Millets and Rice are grown mostly under subsistence farming. Subsistence agriculture is self-sufficiency farming in which the farmers focus on growing enough food to feed themselves and their families. The typical subsistence farm has a range of crops and animals needed by the family to feed and clothe themselves during the year.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

Who was the first speaker of Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly ?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

Kunji Lal Dubey was the first speaker of the Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly. He served as the speaker from 1957 to 1962.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

If the president of India exercises his power under article 356 of the constitution in the respect of a particular state, then -

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

Explanation:

Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is also known as "President's Rule." It grants the President of India the authority to take direct control of a state's administration if the state government is unable to function according to the provisions of the Constitution. This usually happens when the state government loses its majority in the legislative assembly or when there is a breakdown of the Constitutional machinery in the state.

When the President exercises this power, the following things happen:

1. Article 19 is NOT suspended in that state. This provision guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression, and assembly, among others. The President's Rule does not automatically lead to the suspension of these fundamental rights in the affected state.

2. The assembly of that state is NOT dissolved automatically. Instead, the President may either suspend or dissolve the state legislative assembly. The decision to dissolve the assembly or keep it in suspended animation depends on the specific situation and the President's discretion.

3. The President does NOT get the powers of the state high courts. The judiciary remains independent and continues to function as usual. The high courts and the Supreme Court still retain their power of judicial review over the actions taken by the President and the central government during President's Rule.

4. Parliament assumes the power to legislate on subjects in the state list. This means that during President's Rule, the Parliament can make laws on any subject that falls under the jurisdiction of the state government. The central government, acting through the President, takes over the state's executive powers, and Parliament assumes the role of the state legislature.

In summary, when the President of India exercises his power under Article 356 in respect of a particular state, Parliament assumes the power to legislate on subjects in the state list.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

What is the nickname of Madhya Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

The nickname of Madhya Pradesh is "Heart of India." This nickname is given to Madhya Pradesh because of its central location in India. It is located in the central part of the country and is often referred to as the heart due to its geographical significance. Additionally, Madhya Pradesh is known for its rich cultural heritage, historical landmarks, and natural beauty, making it a vital and central part of India.

MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

Regarding Swadeshi movement and use of Khadi during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements:

1. During the Swadeshi movement, the change of fabric to Khadi appealed largely to the upper castes and classes rather than the poor.

2. The use of Khadi appealed to the masses, and even after the Swadeshi movement, Khadi was used by both the upper and lower classes of people.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 10 - Question 30
  • The use of Khadi was made a patriotic duty.

  • Women were urged to throw away their silks and glass bangles and wear simple shell bangles. The rough homespun fabric was glorified in songs and poems to popularise it.

  • The change of fabric appealed largely to the upper castes and classes rather than those who had to make do with less and could not afford the new products. After 15 years, many among the upper classes also returned to wearing European clothes.

  • Though many people rallied to the cause of nationalism at this time, it was almost impossible to compete with cheap British goods that had flooded the market.

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