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MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - MPPSC (Madhya Pradesh) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test MPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 - MPPSC Mock Test - 5

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 for MPPSC (Madhya Pradesh) 2024 is part of MPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The MPPSC Mock Test - 5 questions and answers have been prepared according to the MPPSC (Madhya Pradesh) exam syllabus.The MPPSC Mock Test - 5 MCQs are made for MPPSC (Madhya Pradesh) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 below.
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MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

Which of the following are features of Bank Run?

  1. Customers fear that banks will run out of reserves and therefore withdraw their deposit.
  2. Banks are at the risk of defaulting.
  3. The Central Bank of the country acts as lender of last resort.

Choose the correct Code:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

All of the above.A bank run is a situation in which a large number of customers of a bank withdraw their deposits at the same time, usually because they fear that the bank is at risk of defaulting or running out of reserves. This can occur when there is a lack of confidence in the stability of the bank or the overall financial system.
During a bank run, banks are at risk of defaulting on their obligations, as they may not have enough reserves to meet the demand for withdrawals. In such cases, the central bank of the country may act as a lender of last resort, providing financial support to the banks to help them meet their obligations and stabilise the financial system. Therefore, all of the statements (1, 2, and 3) are features of a bank run.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

Match the following according to the founder of the departments:
A. Public Works Department
I. Dalhousie
B. Department of Commerce & Industry
II. Curzon
C. Income-tax
III.Canning

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 2
  • Public Works Department was founded by Dalhousie (A-I). Lord Dalhousie established the Public Works Department in 1854 to improve the infrastructure and development of the country.
  • Department of Commerce & Industry was founded by Curzon (B-II). Lord Curzon established the Department of Commerce & Industry in 1900 to promote trade and commerce in India.
  • Income-tax was introduced by Canning (C-III). Lord Canning introduced Income-tax in 1860 as a financial measure to support the British administration in India.
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MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

How long are professional Golf Tour players allotted per shot?

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 4

 Electronic motors operating at low voltages tend to burn out because

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 4

Electronic motors draw more current which is inversely proportional to the voltage, therefore, more heat H=I2Rt is generated

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The President of the Board of Control became the Minister for Indian Affairs, while the Board was empowered to superintend all administrative affairs in India.
  2. The Governor-General in Council was empowered to legislate for the whole of British Territories in India, and these laws were to be applicable to all persons.

Q. Which of the following British-era legislation resulted in the changes mentioned above?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

The Charter Act of 1833 was a British legislative act that made several significant changes to the administration of British India. One of the main provisions of the act was the creation of the Secretary of State for India, who was responsible for the administration of British India and was also the President of the Board of Control. The Board of Control was a body that oversaw the administration of British India and was empowered to superintend all administrative affairs in India. The act also granted the Governor-General in Council the power to legislate for the whole of British India, and these laws were to be applicable to all persons within the territories. The Charter Act of 1833 was one of several acts passed by the British Parliament that regulated the administration of British India and shaped the development of the country during the colonial period.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

Consider the following statements.

  1. A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be appointed as a minister 
  2. But within six months, he must become a member, by election or nomination, of either House of Parliament, otherwise, he ceases to be a minister

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as a minister under Article 75(5) of the Constitution of India. This is because the Constitution does not specifically require that a person must be a member of Parliament to be appointed as a minister.
However, as per Article 75(5), such a person must become a member of either House of Parliament within six months of their appointment as a minister. If they fail to do so, they would cease to be a minister. This provision ensures that all ministers are accountable to the Parliament and responsible for their actions as ministers.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

If the removal motion is admitted then the Speaker/Chairman constitutes a three-member committee to investigate the allegations charged against the judge. The three-member committee comprises of

  1. The Chief Justice of session court
  2. Senior most judge of Supreme Court
  3. Chief justice of the High Court 

Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

The three-member committee comprises
(1). The Chief Justice or senior-most judge of the Supreme Court
(2). Chief justice of the High Court and (3). A prominent jurist

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Consider the following statements about the mining industry of India

  1. The spatial distribution of minerals is uneven.
  2. The mining industry since colonial days has been export-oriented.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Mining is the removal of valuable raw material from the Earth, this term includes removal of soil. India adds very little value to the minerals, it exports most of the mined minerals. Indian Mining Industry has been a major mineral producer in Asia and globally as well.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

The program is known as ______ which interacts with the inner part called kernel.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

Non-nuclear aggression agreement is a bilateral agreement between 

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 10
  • The Non-nuclear aggression agreement is a bilateral and nuclear weapons control treaty between the two South Asian states, India and Pakistan, on the reduction (or limitation) of nuclear arms and pledged not to attack or assist foreign powers to attack on each’s nuclear installations and facilities.
  • The treaty barred its signatories to carry out a surprise attack (or to assist foreign power to attack) on each other’s nuclear installations and facilities. The treaty provides a confidence-building security measure environment and refrained each party from “undertaking, encouraging, or participating in directly or indirectly, any action aimed at causing destruction or damage to any nuclear installation or facility in each country”. Starting in January 1992, India and Pakistan have annually exchanged lists of their respective military and civilian nuclear-related facilities.
MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 11

Who did Stone Cold Steve Austin wrestle at the 1998 edition of "Over the Edge"?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 11
Even though Mick Foley portrayed all of these gimmicks, he wrestled Stone Cold under Dude Love. The match had Vince McMahon as the referee. It started off as a regular match. Vince then changed it to No Holds Barred so Dude Love can use weapons. Finally he changed it to Falls Count Anywhere. That happened when Love had Austin knocked out while outside the ring. Since Vince is the owner and assigned himself as referee he could do what he wants. After all of that, Austin still retained his title that night.
MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

Gond dynasty reached its peak under

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

Gond dynasty reached its peak under Sangram Shah. Sangram Shah, who belonged to the Gond Dynasty in central India, was the 48th and most well known ruler of the dynasty and during his reign he had conquered 52 forts to strengthen his kingdom.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

Which of the following cities was the capital of Bundela dynasty?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

An Orchha city was the capital of Bundela dynasty. Orchha was founded by the Bundela chief Rudra Pratap Singh in the 16th century. He became the first King of Orchha. The son of Rudra Pratap Singh, Bharti Chand, shifted the capital from Garh Kundar to Orchha.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

Which among the following is NOT a requirement to be a judge of the High Court?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

He should be over 40 years of age There is no specification of a minimum age limit for the judge of a high court. A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the following qualifications
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. (a) He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years; or 
(b) He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in succession) for ten years. 
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court. Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

Consider the following statements: 

  1. The National Human Rights Commission is not a constitutional body. 
  2. The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India is a statutory public body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993. It was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (PHRA).

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

‘I2U2’ group, recently seen in news comprises of

  1. US
  2. Iraq
  3. India
  4. UAE

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

The I2U2 Group is a grouping of India, Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and the United States. The group’s joint statement states that the countries aim to cooperate on “joint investments and new initiatives in water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security.”

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

Consider the following statements about Abrasion.

  1. Abrasion is most effective at or near the top of rocks, where the amount of material the wind can carry is greatest
  2. The sandblasting of rock surfaces by winds when they hurl sand particles against them is called abrasion

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 17
  • The sandblasting of rock surfaces by winds when they hurl sand particles against them is called abrasion.
  • The impact of such blasting results in rock surfaces being scratched, polished and worn away. Abrasion is most effective at or near the base of rocks, where the amount of material the wind can carry is greatest.
  • This explains why a covering of metal protects telegraph poles in the deserts for a foot or two above the ground. A great variety of desert features are produced by abrasion.
MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? 

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 18

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the fundamental principles, values, and objectives of the Constitution. It declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, and enshrines certain fundamental rights and freedoms that are essential for the well-being and dignity of the individual.
The Preamble guarantees the following liberties:
A. Liberty of Thought:
The Preamble guarantees the right to freedom of thought, conscience, and belief. This means that every individual has the right to think, believe, and worship as they choose, without interference from the state.
B. Liberty of Expression: The Preamble guarantees the right to freedom of expression, which includes the freedom of speech and expression, the freedom of the press, and the freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms.
C. Economic Liberty: Economic liberty, which includes the freedom to own, acquire, and dispose of property, is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
D. Liberty of Belief: The Preamble guarantees the right to freedom of belief, which includes the freedom to practice, profess, and propagate any religion.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 19

Consider the following statements about the Structure of a community:

  1. A community may have one or several species.
  2. The environmental factors determine the characteristic of the community.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 19
  • Structure of a community: In a community, the number of species and size of their population vary greatly. A community may have one or several species. The environmental factors determine the characteristic of the community, as well as the pattern of organisation of the members in the community.
  • The characteristic pattern of the community is termed as the structure which is reflected in the roles played by various population, their range, the type of area they inhabit, the diversity of species in the community and the spectrum of interactions between them.
MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

Match the following columns:


  

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 20

Leucocytes are white blood cells. These comprise of neutrophils which provide protection to the body through phagocytosis of bacteria and thus act as scavengers. The basophils are the granulocytes which contain histamines and heparin. Heparin thins blood to prevent clotting. Histamines dilate the blood vessels and increase the permeability of capillaries. Monocytes are of two types namely macrophages and dendritic cells. Acidophils take up role in anti-allergic reactions and wound healing. The lymphocytes are B cells, T cells and natural killer cells. These are mainly involved in the immune responses by producing specific antibodies.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding IUCN Red List.

  1. The aim of the IUCN Red List is to convey the urgency of conservation issues to the public and policy makers, as well as help the international community to reduce species extinction.
  2. It is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
  3. The pink pages in this publication include the formerly endangered species.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 21

IUCN Red List or Red Data List or Red Book

  • The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
  • The aim of the IUCN Red List is to convey the urgency of conservation issues to the public and policy makers, as well as help the international community to reduce species extinction. 
  • The pink pagesin this publication include the critically endangered species.
  • As the status of the species changes, new pages are sent to the subscribers.
  • Green pagesare used for those species that were formerly endangered but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened.
  • With passing time, the number of pink pages continue to increase.
MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India. Which of the following are done by the President, concerning the sessions of the Parliament?

  1. Summoning
  2. Proroguing
  3. Dissolving Lok Sabha

Choose the correct answer from the codes below.

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

Roles of the President concerning the sessions of the Parliament:
The President of India has several significant roles and powers when it comes to the functioning of the Parliament of India. Here are the roles corresponding to the options mentioned:

  • Summoning: The President has the power to summon each House of Parliament to meet. This means that the President can call for a new session of the Parliament. This is done at such time and place as he thinks fit. Normally, there are three sessions of Parliament in a year: the Budget session, the Monsoon session, and the Winter session.
  • Proroguing: The President can prorogue the Houses of Parliament. This means that the President can end a session of the Parliament. However, it must be noted that prorogation does not affect the bills, resolutions, motions, etc., pending before the House, which can be resumed in the next session from the stage at which they were left before prorogation.
  • Dissolving Lok Sabha: The President has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha. This means that the President can end the tenure of the Lok Sabha before its term of five years. However, the President can dissolve Lok Sabha only on the advice of the Prime Minister. Once the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business including bills, motions, resolutions, etc., pending before it or its committees lapse.

So, all the above-mentioned roles - summoning, proroguing, and dissolving the Lok Sabha are performed by the President concerning the sessions of the Parliament. 

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Siraj-ud-Daulah did:

I. Protest against  the British conquest of Chandranagore.

II. Concede almost all the demands of the British by concluding a Tready with them.

III. Order the British to demolish additional fortification of Calcutta.

IV. Besiege and capture Calcutta in June, 1756.

Which among the following are correct options?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Let's carefully reevaluate the events related to Siraj-ud-Daulah and his interactions with the British:

I. Protest against the British conquest of Chandranagore
   - This is incorrect Siraj-ud-Daulah did not protest against the British conquest of Chandranagore because it was a French settlement. He was against the British fortifications in Calcutta, not their conflict with the French at Chandranagore.

II. Concede almost all the demands of the British by concluding a Treaty with them
   - This is incorrect. Siraj-ud-Daulah did not concede to British demands. In fact, he was in conflict with the British and wanted to restrain their influence in Bengal. After capturing Calcutta in 1756, the British later recaptured the city and forced him to sign the Treaty of Alinagar in February 1757.

III. Order the British to demolish additional fortifications of Calcutta
   - This is correct  Siraj-ud-Daulah was unhappy with the unauthorized fortifications that the British had made in Calcutta and ordered them to demolish these fortifications, which they ignored.

IV. Besiege and capture Calcutta in June 1756
   - This is correct. Siraj-ud-Daulah besieged and captured Calcutta in June 1756, which led to the Black Hole of Calcutta incident.

Therefore
- Statement I is incorrect.
- Statement II is incorrect.
- Statement III is correct.
- Statement IV is correct.

Thus, the correct option is:
d) III, IV

.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

Successful graft reaction can be done by

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

Successful graft reaction can be done by using Xenotransplantation to get two kinds of products from single plant.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

Consider the following statements about the Sick building syndrome (SBS).

  1. It is a combination of ailments associated with an individual’s place of work or residence.
  2. Most of the sick building syndrome is related to poor indoor air quality.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 25

Sick Building Syndrome (SBS):

  • Sick building syndrome (SBS) is a combination of ailments (a syndrome) associated with an individual’s place of work or residence.
  • Most of the sick building syndrome is related to poor indoor air quality.
  • Sick building causes are frequently pinned down to flaws in the heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems.
  • Other causes have been attributed to contaminants produced by outgassing of some types of building materials, volatile organic compounds (VOC), molds, improper exhaust ventilation of ozone, light industrial chemicals used within, or lack of adequate fresh air intake air filtration.
MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a few hours, the room temperature will

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a few hours, the room temperature will increases. It is because system releases heat to the surroundings.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

Biofortification is done to

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

Biofortification is the method to enhance the nutritional value of seeds by changing the gene of the crop that produces more protein, vitamins or other nutrient.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

What is the name of the first woman chief minister of Madhya Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

Uma Bharti is the only Woman chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh. She was from Bhartiya Janata Party.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

What is the current Position of Madhya Pradesh in terms of number of Tigers in the country?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

Madhya Pradesh's Position in Terms of Tiger Population
Madhya Pradesh, often referred to as the "Tiger State of India", holds the top position in terms of tiger population in the country as per the latest All India Tiger Estimation Report.

MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding the principle of collective responsibility.

  1. Under the principle of Collective responsibility, individual members of the government are held accountable for the actions and decisions of government as a whole.
  2. The principle of collective responsibility is present under article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, which states that Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
  3. The principle of Collective responsibility is the basic structure of the Constitution of India.

Which of the above statement sis/are correct?

Detailed Solution for MPPSC Mock Test - 5 - Question 30
  • The principle of collective responsibility is the basic principle of parliamentary form of government. The essence of parliamentary system of government is its responsibility to the legislature.
  • Under the principle of Collective responsibility, individual members of the government are held accountable for the actions and decisions of government as a whole.
  • The principle of collective responsibility is present under article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the special provisions of this principle. Article 75(3) provides that the council of ministers shall be put together accountable to the Lok Sabha.
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