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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Manipur CSCCE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Manipur PSC Mock Test Series 2024 - Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3

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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

who was the first Governor of Manipur?

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

With reference to the development of the modern industries during the nineteenth century, consider the following statements:

  1. The machine age in India began when steel, metallurgy and machine industries were started in the 1850s.
  2. In cotton textile industry, foreign capital held much larger share than the Indian capital.
  3. The railway policy and freight rates encouraged the trade in domestic products.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2
  • An important development in the second half of the nineteenth century was the establishment of large-scale machine-based industries in India. The machine age in India began when cotton textile, jute and coalmining industries were started in the 1850s. The first textile mill was started in Bombay by Cowasjee Nanabhoy in 1853, and the first jute mill in Rishra (Bengal) in 1855. The first steel in India was produced only in 1913. Thus, India lacked such basic industries as steel, metallurgy, machine, chemical and oil. India also lagged behind in the development of electric power.
  • Most of the modern Indian industries were owned or controlled by the British capital. Foreign capitalists were attracted to the Indian industry by the prospect of high profit. Labour was extremely cheap; raw materials were readily and cheaply available; and for many goods, India and its neighbours provided a ready market. Foreign capital easily overwhelmed Indian capital in many of the industries. Only in the cotton textile industry did the Indians have a large share from the beginning.
  • British enterprises in India also took advantage of their close connection with the British suppliers of machinery and equipment, shipping, insurance companies, marketing agencies, government officials and political leaders to maintain their dominant position in the Indian economic life. Moreover, the  government followed a conscious policy of favouring foreign capital as against the Indian capital. The railway policy of the government also discriminated against Indian enterprise; railway freight rates encouraged foreign imports at the cost of trade in the domestic products. It was more difficult and costlier to distribute the Indian goods than to distribute the imported goods.
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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

With reference to the difference between Civil Disobedience Movement and Non- Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. The Civil Disobedience Movement had the objective of Purna Swaraj, while Non- Cooperation Movement had the objective of Swaraj.

  2. Muslim participation was relatively lesser during the Non-Cooperation Movement when compared to the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3
Option (a) is the correct answer. Comparison between Civil Disobedience Movement and Non-Cooperation Movement: There were certain aspects in which the Civil Disobedience Movement differed from the Non-Cooperation Movement.

These comparisons are as follows:

  • Statement 1 is correct. The stated objective this time was complete independence and not just remedying two specific wrongs and a vaguely-worded Swaraj. The Civil Disobedience Movement had the objective of Poorna Swaraj.

  • The methods involved violation of law from the very beginning and not just non-cooperation with foreign rule.

  • There was a decline in forms of protests involving the intelligentsia, such as lawyers giving up practice, students giving up government schools to join national schools and colleges.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Muslim participation was nowhere near that in the Non-Cooperation Movement level.

  • No major labour upsurge coincided with the movement.

  • The massive participation of peasants and business groups compensated for the decline of other features.

  • The number of those imprisoned was about three times more this time.

  • The Congress was organizationally stronger.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Which of the following is/are the reasons for increased quest for and discovery of a sea route to India in 15th Century by European Nations?

  1. Obsession of Prince Henry of Portugal to find India.

  2. Red sea trade route was monopolised by Islamic rulers.

  3. The art of ship building and navigation had made great advances in Europe.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4
option d is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: Historians have observed that the idea of finding an ocean route to India had become an obsession for Prince Henry of Portugal, who was nicknamed the ‘Navigator’.

  • Statement 2 is correct: In 1453, Constantinople fell to the Ottoman Turks, due to which merchandise trade from India to the European markets came under Arab Muslim intermediaries. The Red Sea trade route was a state monopoly from which Islamic rulers earned tremendous revenues.

  • Statement 3 is correct: In 15th Century, Europe had made great advances in the art of ship-building and navigation. Hence, there was eagerness all over Europe for adventurous sea voyages to reach the unknown corners of the East.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Which of the following are included in the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931?

  1. Public inquiry into police excesses during civil disobedience movement

  2. Immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence

  3. Right to peaceful picketing

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5
  • The British Government summoned the first Round Table Conference of Indian leaders and spokesmen of the British Government in London in 1930 to discuss Simon Commission Report. The National Congress boycotted the Conference.

  • The Government now made attempts to negotiate an agreement with the Congress so that it would attend the Round Table Conference. Finally, the Pact was signed by Gandhiji on behalf of the Congress and by Lord Irwin on behalf of the Government, a procedure that was hardly popular with officialdom as it placed the Congress on an equal footing with the Government.

  • The terms of the agreement included:

    • the immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted for violence,

    • the remission of all fines not yet collected,

    • the return of confiscated lands not yet sold to third parties, and

    • lenient treatment for those government employees who had resigned.

  • The Government also conceded the right to make salt for consumption to villages along the coast, as also the right to peaceful and non-aggressive picketing. The Congress demand for a public inquiry into police excesses was not accepted, but Gandhiji’s insistent request for an inquiry was recorded in the agreement. Congress, on its part, agreed to discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Hence option (b) is not the correct answer.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

India is said to experience comparatively milder winters as compared to Central Asia.

Which of the following statements could be the reason(s) for this?

1. The continentality of North India.

2. The Himalayas in the north.

3. A vast coastline.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Continentality of any area leads to extreme climatic conditions. Thus, continentality cannot be a reason for winters being mild as they will only aggravate the existing climatic conditions and not balance it.

  • Statement 2 and 3 are correct. India has Himalayas to the north, which have an average height of about 6,000 metres. The Himalayas therefore act as a barrier to cold winds coming from Tibet and other colder regions in Central Asia (Gobi Desert etc). It is because of these mountains that the subcontinent experiences comparatively milder winters as compared to central Asia.

  • India’s vast coastline leads to a moderating influence on India’s climate and thus results in milder winters as compared to Central Asia. The Tropic of Cancer also passes through the middle of the country from the Rann of Kachchh in the west to Mizoram in the east. Almost half of the country, lying south of the Tropic of Cancer, belongs to the tropical area.

  • All the remaining area, north of the Tropic, lies in the sub-tropics. Therefore, India’s climate has characteristics of tropical as well as subtropical climates. This also leads to milder winters in India.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

Consider the following statements with reference to Western Ghats:

  1. They were formed due to down warping of a part of land into the Arabian Sea.

  2. They are are an example of Block Mountains.

  3. They run across 5 states in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 7
Option (c) is the correct answer.

There are two views regarding the Geology of the Western Ghats. One view says the mountains of the Western Ghats are Block Mountains formed due to the down warping of a part of land into the Arabian Sea. Other view says that the mountains of the Western Ghats are not true mountains, but are the faulted edge of the Deccan Plateau.

  • Statement 1 is correct. Western Ghats are formed due to the down warping of a part of land into the Arabian Sea.

  • Statement 2 is correct. The mountains of the Western Ghats are Block Mountains.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. Western Ghats are spread in six states viz. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and two Union Territories viz. Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Pondicherry. The range starts near the border of Gujarat south of Tapti river where foothills of the ranges are occupying the eastern portion of Dadra and Silvassa in Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Consider the following:

  1. Dal lake

  2. Wular lake

  3. Pangong Tso lake

  4. Loktak lake

Which of the lakes given above are freshwater lakes?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8
  • Dal is a freshwater lake in Srinagar. Hence option 1 is correct.

    • It is also an important source for commercial operations in fishing and water plant harvesting.

    • The floating gardens, known as “Raad” in Kashmiri, blossom with lotus flowers during July and August in this lake. o It is integral to tourism and recreation in Kashmir and is named the “Jewel in the crown of Kashmir” or “Srinagar’s Jewel”.

  • Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India and lies in the Kashmir Valley, 40 km northwest of Srinagar City. Hence option 2 is correct.

  • Pangong Tso lake is located in the Union Territory of Ladakh. It is situated at a height of almost 4,350m and is the world’s highest saltwater lake. Hence option 3 is not correct.

    • It acts as a huge absorption basin for annual floodwater in Kashmir Valley.

    • The Jhelum river flows into it, 40 km down from Srinagar, and then out again.

    • Lake basin is formed by the tectonic activity and is fed by the Jhelum river.

    • Extending to almost 160 km, one-third of the Pangong Lake lies in India and the other two-thirds in China.

  • Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in North East India. Hence option 4 is correct.

    • Loktak Lake is fed by the Manipur river and several tributaries and ‘Ungamel Channel’ (Ithai Barrage) is its only outlet now.

    • Keibul Lamjao national park- the only floating national park in the world lies in the lake.

    • The national park is the last habitat of endangered Sangai deer also called as dancing deer.

    • The lake is famous for Phumdis- floating mass of entangled vegetation formed by the accumulation of organic debris and biomass with soil.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

With reference to the ‘Advisory Jurisdiction’ of Supreme Court, consider the following statements:

  1. The President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance, or that involves interpretation of the Constitution to the Supreme Court for advice.

  2. The Supreme Court is bound to advise on such matters, though the President is not bound to accept such advice.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9
  • In addition to original and appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court of India possesses advisory jurisdiction also. This means that the President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance or that involves interpretation of the Constitution to Supreme Court for advice. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • However, the Supreme Court is not bound to advise on such matters, and the President is not bound to accept such advice. So, statement 2 is not correct.

  • The utility of advisory jurisdiction is two-fold. In the first place, it allows the government to seek legal opinion on a matter of importance before taking action on it. This may prevent unnecessary litigations later. Secondly, in the light of the advice of the Supreme Court, the government can make suitable changes in its action or legislation.

    Therefore option (b) is the answer.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), consider the

following statements:

  1. The CAG’s duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.

  2. The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10
Option (d) is the correct answer.

The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department

Statement 1 is Correct: He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both levels—the Centre and the state. His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. He is one of the bulwarks of the democratic system of government in India; the others being the Supreme Court, the Election Commission and the Union Public Service Commission.

Statement 2 is Correct: The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.

The CAG, before taking over his office, makes and subscribed before the president an oath or affirmation he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

In which of the following landmark cases Supreme Court described that the Indian

Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11
  • Directive Principles were initially ignored by the Supreme Court while interpreting various socio-economic rights. It was only after the landmark verdict in the Keshavananda Bharati’s case in 1973 that the top court said that directive principles must be viewed as the guidelines by which the fundamental rights are realized.

  • Justice PN Bhagwati in the 1980 Minerva Mills case described that "The Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy. To give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution. This harmony and balance is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution."

  • In the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the former would prevail.

  • Maneka Gandhi's case is a landmark case for the implementation of Article 21. In this case, the court said that expression ‘personal liberty’ in Article 21 is of the widest amplitude and it covers a variety of rights which go to constitute the personal liberty of man and some of them have raised to the status of distinct fundamental rights and given additional protection under Article 19.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding the unorganized sector in India:
1. In the unorganized sector, the maximum number of workers employed in an enterprise is fifty.
2. The term ‘unorganized worker’ is not defined in India under any act of government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12
  • According to National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector, an unorganized sector refers to production or service-oriented enterprise owned by individuals or self- employed workers and if workers are employed, then the total number of workers cannot exceed 10. Central Statistical Organisation uses the term organized enterprise as small units with ten or more workers with power or 20 or more workers without power for the manufacturing sector. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
  • The term ‘unorganized worker’ is defined in India under Section 2(m) of the Unorganized Workers Social Security Act, 2008. An unorganized worker is a home-based worker or a self-employed worker or a wage worker in the unorganized sector and includes a worker in the organized sector who is not covered by any of the Acts pertaining to welfare Schemes as mentioned in Schedule II of Unorganized Workers Social Security Act, 2008. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The unorganized workers are essentially those who do not have the benefit of pension, provident fund, gratuity, maternity leave etc. and work mostly on daily/hourly wages. They are not represented by active trade unions.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Which of the following is/are forming part of the revenue expenditure of the Government of India?

1. Administrative expenditure

2. Loans given to the state governments

3. Interest payments on market loans

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13
  • Revenue expenditures refer to the day-to-day expenditures incurred by the government to ensure its normal functioning. Interest payments on the debt incurred by the government, defense purchases, administrative expenditures, and wage bills are all a part of the government’s revenue expenditure. So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
  • Loans are given to the state government by the central government for various purposes. Such loans are considered the Centre’s capital expenditure as these are treated as assets from which the Centre derives interest. On the contrary, all grants given to State Governments/Union Territories and other parties are also treated as revenue expenditure, even though some of the grants may be used for the creation of assets. So, Statement 2 is not correct. 
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Public goods in India refer to goods and services that are provided by the government and are available to the general public without any exclusion or rivalry. In this context, consider the following:

1. Public schools and universities

2. Law enforcement agencies

3. All India Radio and Doordarshan

4. Social Security Programs

How many of above-mentioned is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Public goods in India refer to goods and services that are provided by the government and are available to the general public without any exclusion or rivalry. These goods are typically non-excludable, meaning that it is not feasible to exclude individuals from benefiting from them, and non-rivalrous, meaning that one person's consumption does not diminish the availability or quality of the good for others. Public goods play a crucial role in enhancing the overall welfare and development of society.

Examples

  • Infrastructure: infrastructure is a key public good in India. It includes the construction and maintenance of roads, highways, bridges, airports, seaports, railways, and public transportation systems. Education: Public schools and universities offer education at subsidized or no cost, ensuring that every individual has the opportunity to gain knowledge and skills necessary for personal and professional growth. Healthcare: Public healthcare services aim to ensure affordable and accessible medical facilities for all citizens.
  • Government hospitals, clinics, and primary healthcare centers provide essential healthcare services, preventive care, vaccinations, and emergency medical treatment. Law enforcement: Maintaining law and order is a crucial public good. Police Development of departments, judiciary, and other law enforcement agencies are responsible for maintaining peace, protecting citizens’ rights, and ensuring a just legal system.
  • Public parks and recreational facilities: Parks, playgrounds, and other recreational spaces are public goods that promote physical fitness, leisure activities, and community engagement. These spaces provide a platform for individuals to interact, relax, and engage in various outdoor activities.
  • Environmental conservation: This includes the conservation of forests, wildlife sanctuaries, and national parks, as well as efforts to mitigate pollution, promote sustainable practices, and ensure clean air and water resources.
  • Public broadcasting: Publicly-funded radio and television stations, such as All India Radio and Doordarshan, provide information, entertainment, and educational programs to the general public. These platforms contribute to the dissemination of news, culture, and diverse perspectives.
  • Disaster management: It involves the establishment of disaster response teams, early warning systems, and the provision of relief and rehabilitation measures in the aftermath of natural disasters.
  • Social welfare programs: Examples include food subsidies, public distribution systems, healthcare schemes, and social security programs.
  • National defense: It includes the maintenance of armed forces, border security, and defense infrastructure to protect the nation from external threats and maintain sovereignty.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with respect to the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL):
1. It was established in the aftermath of the dot-com bubble in the late 1990s.
2. The members of the Commission are elected by the General Assembly of the UN for a term of six years.
3. UNICTRAL is involved with state-to- state issues such as countervailing duties or import quotas.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15
  • Recent context: The district court of The Hague, in the Netherlands, has rejected a plea by the Indian government to set aside a compensation award of $111 million made by a tribunal in favour of foreign investors in the Bengaluru satellite services start-up firm Devas Multimedia over the cancellation of a 2005 satellite deal with ISRO’s Antrix Corporation in 2011.
  • Three Mauritius-based investors in Devas Multimedia were awarded $111 million in compensation by the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) tribunal in The Hague on October 13, 2020, over the failed Devas-Antrix satellite deal.
  • The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law is the core legal body of the United Nations system in the field of international trade law. The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) was established by the General Assembly in 1966. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Commission carries out its work at annual sessions, which are held in alternate years at United Nations Headquarters in New York and at the Vienna International Centre at Vienna. Each working group of the Commission typically holds one or two sessions a year, depending on the subject matter to be covered; these sessions also alternate between New York and Vienna.
  • It has 70 members. The membership is representative of the various geographic regions and the principal economic and legal systems of the world. Members of the Commission are elected by the General Assembly for terms of six years, the terms of half the members expiring every three years. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The issues dealt with by the WTO and UNCITRAL are different. The WTO deals with trade policy issues, such as trade liberalization, abolition of trade barriers, unfair trade practices or other similar issues usually related to public law, whereas UNCITRAL deals with the laws applicable to private parties in international transactions. As a consequence, UNCITRAL is not involved with "state-to-state" issues such as anti-dumping, countervailing duties, or import quotas. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

When sunlight passes through a canopy of a dense forest. Tiny water droplets in the nust scatter light. The color of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles. This phenomenon is known as:

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16
  • Tyndall effect is the phenomenon in which the particles in a colloid scatter the beams of light that are directed at them. This effect is exhibited by all colloidal solutions and some very fine suspensions. Therefore, it can be used to verify if a given solution is a colloid. The intensity of scattered light depends on the density of the colloidal particles as well as the frequency of the incident light.
  • When a beam of light passes through a colloid, the colloidal particles present in the solution do not allow the beam to completely pass through. The light collides with the colloidal particles and is scattered (it deviates from its normal trajectory, which is a straight line). This scattering makes the path of the light beam visible, as illustrated below.
  • Examples of the Tyndall Effect
    • Milk is a colloid that contains globules of fat and protein. When a beam of light is directed at a glass of milk, the light is scattered. This is a great example of the Tyndall effect.
    • When a torch is switched on in a foggy environment, the path of the light becomes visible. In this scenario, the water droplets in the fog are responsible for the light scattering.
    • Opalescent glass has a bluish appearance when viewed from the side. However, orange-colored light emerges when light is shined through the glass.
    • When sunlight passes through a canopy of a dense forest. Tiny water droplets in the mist scatter light. The color of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
  • Rayleigh scattering, named after the 19th-century British physicist Lord Rayleigh, is the predominantly elastic scattering of light or other electromagnetic radiation by particles much smaller than the wavelength of the radiation.
  • Compton scattering, discovered by Arthur Holly Compton, is the scattering of a high-frequency photon after an interaction with a charged particle, usually an electron. If it results in a decrease in the energy of the photon, it is called the Compton effect.
  • In physics, total internal reflection is the phenomenon in which waves arriving at the interface from one medium to another are not refracted into the second medium but completely reflected back into the first medium.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Which of the following may be the possible causes of overloading in the circuits?

  1. When the live wire and the neutral wire come into direct contact
  2. When there is an accidental hike in the supply voltage
  3. When too many appliances are connected to a single socket

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17
  • Overloading in the circuits: If suddenly the voltage in a circuit increases, it carries more current than usual. This situation is called overloading.
    • The electric fuse is an important component of all domestic circuits. A fuse in a circuit prevents damage to the appliances and the circuit due to overloading.
    • Overloading can occur when the live wire and the neutral wire come into direct contact. (This occurs when the insulation of wires is damaged or there is a fault in the appliance.) In such a situation, the current in the circuit abruptly increases. This is called short-circuiting. The use of an electric fuse prevents the electric circuit and the appliance from possible damage by stopping the flow of unduly high electric current. The Joule heating that takes place in the fuse melts it to break the electric circuit. Hence option 1 is correct.
    • Overloading can also occur due to an accidental hike in the supply voltage. Hence option 2 is correct.
    • Sometimes overloading is caused by connecting too many appliances to a single socket. Hence option 3 is correct.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

With reference to ‘Kuril Islands’ consider the following statements

  1. It is disputed island between Japan and China.
  2. It is located in South China Sea.

Select the INCORRECT statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Statement 1
The Kuril Islands, a volcanic archipelago stretching between Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula and Japan’s Hokkaido, hold geopolitical significance. These islands, disputed between Russia and Japan, are a complex blend of natural beauty and historical tensions.
Statement 2
The Kuril Islands are located in the Sea of Okhotsk, which is part of the northwest Pacific Ocean. The Sea of Okhotsk is bordered by the Kamchatka Peninsula of Russia to the west, the Kuril Islands to the northeast, the Russian mainland and Sakhalin Island to the west, and Hokkaido, Japan, to the south. The Kuril Islands stretch from the northeastern tip of Hokkaido to the southern tip of Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula, forming a volcanic archipelago in this maritime region.

An earthquake of magnitude 6.3 on the Richter Scale jolted Japan’s Kuril Islands.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

Which Mahajanapada was located in the region of present-day Uttar Pradesh and was ruled by King Pradyota?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

Kashi, situated in Uttar Pradesh, was ruled by King Pradyota and was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Satavahana rulers issued coins that featured both Brahmi and Dravidian scripts.
Statement-II: The use of multiple scripts on coins was aimed at appealing to the culturally diverse populations within their empire.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20
  • Statement-I is correct. The Satavahana coins featured Brahmi script predominantly, and some coins also included local Dravidian language inscriptions, indicating their extensive use across different linguistic regions of their empire.
  • Statement-II is incorrect. While the use of multiple scripts did indeed serve to communicate more effectively across diverse populations, the primary script used was Brahmi, and the inclusion of Dravidian scripts was not widespread but rather specific to certain regional contexts.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Which of the following religious assemblies was organized by Harsha?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Harsha organized the Prayag Mahasabha, a religious assembly held at Prayag (modern-day Allahabad). It attracted scholars, philosophers, and religious leaders from different parts of India.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Which dynasty is sometimes called "the first empire builder of India"?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

The Nanda dynasty is sometimes called "the first empire builder of India" because they established the first imperial and centralized structure in the Magadhan Empire.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Who introduced the measurement system of land revenue administration?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

The measurement system of land revenue administration was introduced by Alauddin Khalji and was later followed by Sher Shah. This system involved dividing land into three categories - good, bad, and middling.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Which aspect of Indian art had a significant influence on Sri Lankan art?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

The art of stone carving went to Sri Lanka from India, and it greatly influenced Sri Lankan art. The famous paintings of Sigiriya were modeled on the Ajantha paintings.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

The Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 to review what?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

The Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 to review and recommend constitutional reforms for India, particularly in the context of Indian political representation.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

Who among the following introduced the Doctrine of Lapse?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

Lord Dalhousie, also known as James Andrew Broun-Ramsay, introduced the Doctrine of Lapse during his tenure as Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. The Doctrine of Lapse was a policy that allowed the British East India Company, under certain circumstances, to annex Indian princely states if they lacked a male heir or adopted successor. This policy was used by Lord Dalhousie to expand British control in India and was highly controversial at the time.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
Who was the leader of the Indian National Congress during the Indian independence movement?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
Mahatma Gandhi emerged as the principal leader of the Indian National Congress during the Indian independence movement. His philosophy of non-violence and civil disobedience played a crucial role in mobilizing the masses and leading India towards independence from British rule.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Which event marked the formal partition of India?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

The formal partition of India was marked by the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1940. During this session, the Muslim League demanded a separate nation for Muslims, which eventually led to the creation of Pakistan in 1947.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29
What was the main aim of the Indian National Congress?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29
The main aim of the Indian National Congress was to bring together the diverse elements of the Indian population and forge a united national identity. It aimed to create a sense of unity and work towards the mental, moral, social, and political regeneration of the nation.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30
According to Jinnah's Fourteen Points, how should Muslim representation in the Central Legislature be determined?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30
According to Jinnah's Fourteen Points, Muslim representation in the Central Legislature should be based on the population of Muslims. This meant that the number of Muslim representatives should be proportional to the number of Muslims in the population. Jinnah believed that this would ensure adequate representation and protection of Muslim interests in the legislative process.
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