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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Manipur CSCCE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Manipur PSC Mock Test Series 2024 - Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 for Manipur CSCCE 2024 is part of Manipur PSC Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Manipur CSCCE exam syllabus.The Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 MCQs are made for Manipur CSCCE 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 below.
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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

With reference to the special provisions made under article 371, consider the following matches:

  1. Article 371A - Nagaland
  2. Article 371B - Assam
  3. Article 371C - Manipur
  4. Article 371D - Mizoram

Which of the above matches is / are correct?

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

Consider the following:

1. Indica

2. Mahavamsa

3. Ritusamhara

4. Mudrarakshasa

How many of the above are the literary sources for the Mauryan empire?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 2
  • The establishment of the Mauryan dynasty by Chandragupta Maurya in 321 B.C. signifies a significant turning point in the early history of India. Among the most crucial literary sources from this period are the Arthasastra authored by Kautilya The Arthashastra, a comprehensive treatise on statecraft, offers advice to rulers on the governance of their realms and the fulfilment of their responsibilities. The Indica written by the Greek ambassador Megasthenes. It provides an account of ancient India, as observed by Megasthenes during his embassy to the court of Chandragupta Maurya. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • In addition to these works, the Dipavamsa and Mahavamsa, two historical texts originating from Ceylon, along with the play Mudrarakshasa by Visakhadatta, serve as valuable sources of information on the historical and cultural context of ancient India during the Mauryan period. Hence, Option 2 and 4 are correct.
  • The works of Kalidasa who lived during the Gupta period comprise poems and dramas. The famous among them are Abhijananashakuntalam, Ritusamhara and Meghadutam. Hence, Option 3 is incorrect.
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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

With reference to the traditions of epistemology mentioned in the National Curriculum Framework of School Education (NCF-SE) 2023, consider the following pairs: 

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

Union Minister for Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, Shri Dharmendra Pradhan, recently released the National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE), marking an important and transformative step towards the implementation of National Education Policy 2020. A Steering Committee was formed under the stewardship of Professor K. Kasturirangan to create a curriculum aligned with the National Education Policy 2020, emphasizing the 5+3+3+4 design of schooling. The NCF-SE's comprehensive nature ensures that it covers all stages of schooling:

  • Foundational Stage
  • Preparatory Stage
  • Middle Stage
  • Secondary Stage

As recommended by NEP 2020, NCF-SE is strongly rooted in India’s context, Indian thought, and
Indian Knowledge and Knowledge Systems. The vibrant epistemic approach of Indian schools of thought towards knowledge and how we know has been given special focus in the development of NCF-SE. The theory of knowledge, or pramana-sashtra (one of the richest areas of classical Indian philosophy), has been used as a guiding theme in the development of NCF-SE. The main pramanas    (evidence/proof/justification)
according to different Indian Darsanas( schools of Indian Philosophy) are:

  • Perception
  • Inference
  • Testimony.

Different kinds of ‘inferences’ according to pramana-sashtras are:

  • Anumana: Using inferences to come to new conclusions from observations. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
  • Upamana: Knowing through analogy and comparison is upamana. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.
  • Arthapatti: Knowing through circumstantial implication is arthapatti. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
  • iv.    Anupalabdi: Perception of nonexistence is considered a valid form of knowledge.

Informed by these discourses, school knowledge has, for practical purposes, been organised into different kinds or forms in NCFSE 2023.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

In the context of the development of education during British India, arrange the following education commissions/ committees in chronological order of their establishment.
1. Hunter Education Commission
2. Sadler University Commission
3. Hartog Committee
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 4
  • In 1882, the Government appointed a commission under the chairmanship of W.W. Hunter to review the progress of education in the country since the Despatch of 1854. The Hunter Commission mostly confined its recommendations to primary and secondary education.
    • It emphasized that state’s special care is required for the extension and improvement of primary education and that primary education should be imparted through vernacular.
    • It recommended the transfer of control of primary education to newly set up district and municipal boards.
    • It recommended that secondary (High School) education should have two divisions— literary—leading up to university and vocational—for commercial careers.
    • It drew attention to inadequate facilities for female education, especially outside presidency towns and made recommendations for its spread.
  • The Sadler commission was set up in 1917 to study and report on problems of Calcutta University but its recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also. It reviewed the entire field from school education to university education. It held the view that, for the improvement of university education, the improvement of secondary education was a necessary pre-condition. Its observations were as follows:
    • School course should cover 12 years. Students should enter university after an intermediate stage (rather than matric) for a three-year degree course in university.
    • A separate board of secondary and intermediate education should be set up for the administration and control of secondary and intermediate education.
    • There should be less rigidity in framing university regulations.
    • A university should function as centralized, unitary residential-teaching autonomous body, rather than as scattered, affiliated colleges.
    • Female education, applied scientific and technological education, teachers’ training including those for professional and vocational colleges should be extended
  • The Hartog Committee was set up in 1929 to report on the development of education. Its main recommendations were as follows.
    • Emphasis should be given to primary education but there need be no hasty expansion or compulsion in education.
    • Only deserving students should go in for high school and intermediate stage, while average students should be diverted to vocational courses after VIII standard.
    • For improvements in the standards of university education, admissions should be restricted.
  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

With reference to the poem “„Chchello Katoro Jerno Aa: Pi Jayo Bapu!‟ (Even this last cup of poison, you must drink, Bapu!), consider the following statements:
1. It was written by Zaverchand Kalidas Meghani.
2. The poem gave expression to the nationalist misgivings regarding the 2nd Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

The great Gujarati poet, Zaverchand Kalidas Meghani, in a famous poem gave expression to the nationalist misgivings regarding the 2nd Round Table Conference. Addressing Gandhiji on the eve of his departure for London, he sang in the first line : ̳Chchello Katoro Jerno Aa : Pi Jayo Bapu!‘ (Even this last cup of poison, you must drink, Bapu!) Mahatma Gandhi spontaneously gave him the title of Raashtreeya Shaayar.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Consider the following:
1. Geological Hazards
2. Meteorological Hazards
3. Hydrological Hazards
4. Biological Hazards
5. Nuclear/Radiological hazards

How many of the above hazards can be mainly categorised as natural hazards?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Hazards may be natural, anthropogenic or socionatural in origin. Natural hazards are predominantly associated with natural processes and phenomena.
Natural hazards can be classified into several broad categories: geological hazards, hydrological hazards, meteorological hazards, and biological hazards.

  • Geological Hazards: These are hazards driven by geological or earth processes, in particular, plate tectonics. This includes earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. In general, geological extreme events are beyond human influence, though humans have large influence on the impacts of the events. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Meteorological Hazards: These are hazards driven by meteorological or weather processes, in particular those related to temperature and wind. This includes heat waves, cold waves, cyclones, hurricanes, and freezing rain. Cyclones are commonly called hurricanes in the Atlantic and typhoons in the Pacific Ocean. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Hydrological Hazards: These are hazards driven by hydrological or water processes. This includes floods, droughts, mudslides, and tsunamis. Floods and droughts can cause extensive damage to agriculture and are among the main contributors to famine. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Biological Hazards: These are hazards driven by biological processes. This includes various types of disease, including infectious diseases that spread from person to person, threatening to infect large portions of the human population. Some examples are the Black Death outbreak of bubonic plague in the 1300s, killing 75-100 million people, and the 1918 “Spanish” flu pandemic, killing 50-100 million people. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Anthropogenic hazards, or humaninduced hazards, are induced entirely or predominantly by human activities and choices. Nuclear/Radiological hazards are of such type. Hence, option 5 is incorrect.
  • Nuclear/Radiological hazards: Radiological and nuclear emergencies are incidents in which a key component involves radioactive material. Different types of radiation emergencies vary in how much damage they can cause and the harm they pose to the public. Some examples of radiation hazards include a nuclear detonation (explosion), an accident at a nuclear power plant, a transportation accident involving a shipment of radioactive materials, or occupational exposure (as in a healthcare or research setting).
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

Consider the following statements with reference to Vadnagar:

  1. The structural remains of ancient Buddhist monasteries and votive stupas have been found here.
  2. Vadnagar was strategically located where two major ancient trade routes crossed each other.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

Vadnagar is a town and municipality in Mehsana district of the North Gujarat region of Gujarat state. Vadnagar is well connected by road transport, lies 90 km South of Gandhinagar and 110 km from Ahmedabad Airport. As a historical city, it was known by various names such as Vridhanagar, Anandapur, Anartapur and Nagar.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The structural remains obtained from the excavation, including rampart and fortification, Buddhist monastery and votive stupas, elliptical structure and stupa, antiquities, sealings, house-complexes, lanes/streets and industrial hearth from pre-second century BCE to the Gaekwad period (18th– 19th century CE). The built heritage resource of Vadnagar includes historical structures, temples, fortification remains, water bodies, kothis, residential structures and excavated sites.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The study of the historical geography of ancient India reveals that Vadnagar was situated at a strategic location where two major ancient trade routes crossed each other. One of them joined central India with the Sindh and further northwest regions, while another connected the port towns on the Gujarat coast to northern India.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:
1. Biological weathering is the process of removal of minerals from the weathering environment due to the activities of microorganisms on decaying plants.
2. Anthropological activity can contribute to biological weathering.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

There are three major groups of weathering processes:
(i) chemical
(ii) physical or mechanical
(iii) biological weathering processes Very rarely does any one of these processes ever operate completely by itself, but quite often a dominance of one process can be seen.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Biological weathering is the process of contribution to or removal of minerals and ions from the weathering environment and physical changes due to the growth or movement of organisms. Burrowing and wedging by organisms like earthworms, termites, rodents etc., help in exposing the new surfaces to chemical attack and assist in the penetration of moisture and air. Decaying plant and animal matter helps in the production of humic, carbonic and other acids which enhance decay and solubility of some elements. Plant roots exert tremendous pressure on the earth's materials mechanically breaking them apart.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Human beings by disturbing vegetation, ploughing and cultivating soils, also help in mixing and creating new contacts between air, water and minerals in the earth's materials. These new surfaces get exposed to Weathering, thus anthropogenic activities contribute to biological weathering.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

Which of the pair is correctly matched _________.

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 9
  • Secularism means a state free of any religion or there is no state religion. India practices the feature of secularism as mentioned in our preamble. 
  • Constitutional provision to freely practice and profess our religion is given under article 25, right to freedom of religion. 
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

The language and ideals of the Preamble of Constitution of India is influenced / borrowed from which of the following constitution(s)?
1. USA
2. France
3. Australia
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
 

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

Key Points

  • The American Constitution was the first to incorporate a Preamble.
    • So, the term and idea of the Preamble were borrowed from the Constitution of the United States of America.
    • The ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity are borrowed from the French Constitution.
    • But, the language of the Preamble is borrowed from the Constitution of Australia.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

The constituent assembly was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. Regarding the plan consider the following statements:
1. Allocation of seats for each province and princely state to be in proportion to their respective population
2. Representatives to be elected through proportional representation using a single transferable vote.
3. The representatives of the princely state were to be nominated by the heads of princely states.
4. Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the governor’s provinces and 4 from the chief commissioners’ provinces.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

The Cabinet Mission Plan was formulated in 1946 to outline the framework for the drafting of the Indian Constitution. The plan led to the creation of the Constituent Assembly, which was responsible for drafting the Constitution. The following statements about the plan are correct:

  1. Allocation of seats for each province and princely state to be in proportion to their respective population - This was done to ensure that every region had fair representation in the Constituent Assembly.
  2. Representatives to be elected through proportional representation using a single transferable vote - This method of election was chosen to ensure that minority groups would also have a voice in the drafting of the Constitution.
  3. The representatives of the princely state were to be nominated by the heads of princely states - The princely states were not directly represented in the Assembly, but their representatives were nominated by the heads of the states to participate in the drafting process.
  4. Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the governor’s provinces and 4 from the chief commissioners’ provinces - This allocation ensured that both the provinces directly governed by the British and those with more autonomy had representation in the Constituent Assembly.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ways and Means’ advances:

  1. It is available for both Central and State governments.
  2. Government need to pay interest on ways and means advances.
  3. RBI Act, 1934stipulates that Government cannot borrow from RBI except by Ways and Means Advances (WMAs).

Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 12
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India gives temporary loan facilities to the centre and state governments as a banker to government. This temporary loan facility is called Ways and Means Advances (WMA).
  • The WMA scheme was designed to meet temporary mismatches in the receipts and payments of the government. This facility can be availed by the government if it needs immediate cash from the RBi.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The WMA is a
  • loan facility from the RBI for 90 days which implies that the government has to vacate the facility after 90 days. Interest rate for WMA is currently charged at the repo rate. The hmits for WMA are mutually decided by the RBI and the Government of India.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: It is the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA), 2003 and not RBI Act which stipulates that the Gol cannot borrow from RBI except by Ways and Means Advances (WMAs) and not the RBI Act.

Ways and Means Advances (WMAs):

  • WMA are temporary advances given by the RBI to the Centre and state governments to tide over any mismatch in receipts and payments.
  • It was introduced in 1997 and comes under Section 17(5) of the RBI Act of 1934.
  • Under this, the government commits to the RBI about the amount of money it will give as part of its market-borrowing programme, to bring transparency in public expenditure and to pul political responsibility on the government.
  • The RBI will not be the primary subscriber to government securities in the future— committed way back in 1997.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

Which of the following are the examples of Revenue Expenditure of Government?

  1. Salaries and pension of employees
  2. Grants given to state governments even if some of them may be used for the creation of capital assets
  3. Interest payment on loans taken by the government
  4. Repayment of loans

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

Revenue expenditure

  • Revenue Expenditure is that part of government expenditure that does not result in the creation of assets.
  • Generally, expenditure incurred on normal running of the government departments and maintenance of services is treated as revenue expenditure. 
  • Examples of revenue expenditure are salaries of government employees, interest payment on loans taken by the government, pensions, subsidies, grants, rural development, education and health services, etc.
  • All grants given to state governments and Union territories are also treated as revenue expenditure, even if some of these grants may be used for the creation of capital assets.
  • In India, the payment of subsidies is also included in revenue expenditure. The central government pays subsidy under three major heads — food subsidy, fertilizer subsidy and fuel subsidy.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

Which of the following items are included in the ‘non-Debt Capital Receipts’ of an economy?

  1. Recovery of loans and advances
  2. Issue of bonus shares
  3. Treasury bills
  4. State provident funds
  5. Disinvestment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

Capital Receipts

  • The Union Budget, which is presented by the Finance Minister of India, comprises Capital Budget and Revenue Budget. The Capital Budget is further categorized into capital receipts and capital expenditure.

What are Capital Receipts?

  • Capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. They also refer to incoming cash flows. Capital receipts can be both non-debt and debt receipts.
  • Loans from the general public, foreign governments and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) form a crucial part of capital receipts.
  • All capital receipts are tax-free, unless there is a proviso to tax it. Capital receipts can be both non-debt and debt receipts

Non-debt capital receipts

  • Non-debt receipts are those which do not incur any future repayment burden for the government. Almost 75 per cent of the total budget receipts are non-debt receipts.
  • Examples of non-debt capital receipts: Recovery of loans and advances, disinvestment, issue of bonus shares, etc.

Debt capital receipts

  • Debt Receipts have to be repaid by the government. Around 25 per cent of government expenditure is financed through borrowing. A reduction in debt receipt (or borrowing) can be a big leap for the economy’s financial health. Most of the capital receipts of the government are debt receipts.
  • Examples of debt capital receipts: Market loans, issuance of special securities to public-sector banks, issue of securities, short-term borrowings, treasury bills, securities against small savings, state provident funds, relief bonds, saving bonds, gold bonds, external debt, etc., are all example of debt capital receipts.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

With reference to the Biodiversity coldspots, consider the following statements:
1. They are the areas where the fitness of at least one of the two species is determined by interactions with the other.
2. Coldspots are relatively empty and have unstable environments.
3. They are better equipped to handle diversification of species than tropical areas.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

Biodiversity Cold Spots

  • Cold spots are areas where the fitness of at least one of the two species is determined by interactions with the other. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • They support critical global and local ecosystem processes, contain unique evolutionary lineages and rare species, encompass the last major wilderness landscapes, support a diverse range of animal species. All cold spots would benefit from increased protection, conservation management, and restoration.
  • While coldspots are relatively empty, they are also dry and unstable environments. This is why once new species emerge and evolve, they move to more comfortable environments — like the tropical biodiversity hotspots. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • A new study published in Science calls this the ‘paradox of diversity’. It concludes that extreme environments like deserts, mountains or other ‘coldspots’ would be better equipped to handle rapid diversification of species than tropical regions, which are already crowded with existing species. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

What is Nuclear transmutation?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

Nuclear transmutation is the conversion of one chemical element or isotope into another. In other words, atoms of one element can be changed into atoms of another element through nuclear reactions or through radioactive decay.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

The ‘Wright Brothers Moment’, sometimes appeared in the news, is in the context of:

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

Mars Ingenuity Helicopter: It is a small robotic chopper and the first aircraft to make a powered, controlled flight sent to Mars on an experimental basis.

  • It has been called a ‘Wright Brothers moment’.
  • It flies in Mars’ thin atmosphere, which isn’t conducive for flying.
  • It operates autonomously.
  • It uses solar power to charge its batteries and relies on internal heaters to maintain operational temperatures during the cold Martian nights.
  • It paves the way for future aerial explorers at Mars and, potentially, other space destinations.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

‘Salton Sea’ which was recently in news is located in  

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

About Salton Sea

  • It is a shallow, saline lake located in the lower Colorado Desert, southern California, USA.
  • It is a geological depression tucked between mountain ranges and lying below sea level.

Formation:

  • The area that is now the lake was formerly a salt-covered sink or depression (a remnant of prehistoric Lake Cahuilla) about 280 feet (85 metres) below sea level until 1905–06, when diversion controls on the Colorado River broke a few miles below the California-Mexico border and floodwaters rushed northward, filling the depression.
  • Subsequent deepening of the sink was stopped in 1907, when a line of protective levees was built.
  • It is currently 228 feet below sea level.
  • It covers an area of 970 square km and includes 130 miles of shoreline.
  • It has an average depth of 29.9 feet and, at its deepest, 51 feet.
  • Its salinity (some 45 parts per thousand) far exceeds that of seawater.
  • The Salton Sea is an important stopping point for migratory waterfowl and serves as critical habitat for birds moving south to Mexico and Central America.

The U.S. Department of Energy recently discovered the world’s largest Lithium reserve beneath California’s Salton Sea.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Which of the following is not considered a source of modern Indian history?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

DNA analysis is a modern scientific technique and not a traditional source of historical information.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

Who was the Governor-General of India during the Revolt of 1857?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

Lord Canning, officially known as Charles Canning, served as the Governor-General of India during the Revolt of 1857. He held the position from 1856 to 1862. Lord Canning played a significant role in managing the crisis and suppressing the rebellion. He implemented policies to restore stability and initiated reforms in the aftermath of the revolt. His tenure as Governor-General marked a transition from the rule of the British East India Company to direct administration by the British government through the establishment of the British Raj.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 21
What did the Cabinet Mission recommend regarding the formation of the Constituent Assembly?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 21
The Cabinet Mission recommended that the representatives for the Constituent Assembly should be elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

Which Indian king surrendered to Alexander without offering any resistance?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

Ambhi, the king of Taxila, surrendered to Alexander without offering any resistance.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

Whom did King Harshavardhana defeat to capture Kannauj, thus expanding his empire?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

King Harshavardhana defeated Sasanka to capture Kannauj, thereby expanding his empire.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

What role did the Varna system play in King Harshavardhana's society?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

The Varna system dictated the occupation and social status of individuals in King Harshavardhana's society.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Sher Shah Suri's mausoleum is located in which town?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Sher Shah Suri's mausoleum stands in the middle of an artificial lake at Sasaram, a town that stands on the Grand Trunk Road.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

What was the zenana system in medieval India?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

The zenana was a Persian tradition brought in by the invading Muslims where separate spaces for women were created in royal courts. This tradition was later adopted by Hindu royal families as well.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 27
What was the Communal Award?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 27
The Communal Award, issued by Ramsay MacDonald on 16th August 1932, was a provision that introduced separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and women in Provincial Legislatures. This award aimed to address the representation of different communities in the legislative bodies.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 28
What were the important features of the Government of India Act 1935?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 28
The Government of India Act 1935 had several important features. It proposed the establishment of an All India Federation and granted Provincial Autonomy. The power to amend the Constitution was reserved for the British Parliament. Additionally, provisions were made for a Federal Court, Federal Public Service Commission, and other federal institutions.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 29
What was the recommendation of the Cabinet Mission regarding the demand for Pakistan?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 29
The Cabinet Mission recommended the rejection of the demand for Pakistan due to the difficulties in solving the communal issues and the argument against partition based on the unitary nature of British Indian administration.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 30
When was the Provisional Government of Independent India (Azad Hind) set up?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 30
The Provisional Government of Independent India (Azad Hind) was set up in Singapore on October 21, 1943.
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