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# Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 5

## 200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering | Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 5

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Attempt Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 5 | 200 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for SSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering for SSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

### Deepak walks 20 metres towards the North. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left and walks 20 metres. Further, he moves 20 metres after turning to the right. How far is he from his original position?

Solution:

So, Deepak is 60 m far from his original position.

QUESTION: 2

### In the question a statement is given, followed by two arguments, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given arguments, if any, is a strong argument. Statement: Should sale of alcohol near highways be banned? Argument I: No, people should have freedom to decide as it is their fundamental right. Argument II: Yes, 90% of road accidents involve drivers who are under influence of alcohol.

Solution:

Constitution of India has given fundamental right of freedom to people of India to decide from where to buy goods they need. So banning sale of alcohol near highways would be against it. Thus Argument I is strong.
The statement given in argument II that 90% of road accidents involve drivers who are under the influence of alcohol is also true. Thus Argument II also holds strong.
Thus both the given arguments I and II are strong.

QUESTION: 3

### Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Solution:

After observation the given question figure, it is clear that, answer figure (B) will be complete the given pattern

Hence, B is correct.

QUESTION: 4

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) Paris (b) Athens

(c) London (d) New York

Solution: 'Paris' is the capital of France. 'Athens' is the capital of Greece. 'London' is the capital of England. 'New York' is a state in the U. S. It is not its capital. The capital of the U.S. is WashingtonD.C.
QUESTION: 7

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) Screwdriver (b) Spanner

(c) Plier (d) Knife

Solution: A 'knife' is a kitchen took with the others are tools used for repairing work.
QUESTION: 8

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) AZBY (b) CXDW

(c) EVFU (d) TGSH

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) HCB (b) LPOK

(c) FMEL (d) RJIQ

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

Direction: In each of the following questions, a statement followed by some inferences has been given. You have to consider the statement and the given inferences and decide which of the following can be inferred, and select the appropriate answer.

Statements :

I. All the watches sold in that shop are made of white metal.

II. Some of Rico watches are sold in that shop.

Inferences :

I. All watches of white metals are manufactured by Rico.

II. Some of Rico watches are of white metal.

III. None of Rico watches are of white metal.

IV. Some of Rico was watches of white metal are sold in that shop.

Solution: The statement clearly says that all the watches sold in the shop are made of white metal. If some of the watches sold in the shop are Rico watches, then they must be made of white metal. This also means that some of Rico watches are made of white metal. Therefore, both Inferences 2 and 4 follow.
QUESTION: 13

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figure from the given figures, indicating how it will appear when opened.

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct ?

49 - 7 + 7 = 14

Solution:

49 - 7 + 7 = 14

On replacing signs,

49 ÷ 7 + 7 = 14

⇒ 7 + 7 = 14

⇒ 14 = 14

QUESTION: 15

Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

Statements :

I. Some students are intelligent.

II. Ankita is a student.

Conclusions :

I. Some students are dull.

II. Ankita is intelligent.

Solution: The statement says that some students are intelligent. This does not mean that some students are dull as nothing is said about the other students. Therefore, conclusion 1 does not follow. Again, if Ankita is a student, it does not necessarily mean that she is intelligent. Therefore, conclusion 2 does not follow.
QUESTION: 16

Arrange the following in the meaningful/logical order :

1. Recollect

2. Remember

3. Report

4. Repeat

5. Repeal

Solution: As per the dictionary order, the correct arrangement would be recollected, remember; repeal, repeat, report,
QUESTION: 17

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

RIAHC: CHAIR:: OGNAM:?

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

91 : ? : : 64 : 54

Solution:

64 = 6 + 4 = 10

54 = 5 + 4 = 9

Similarly,

91 = 9 + 1 = 10

63 = 6 + 3 = 9

QUESTION: 19

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Demographer : People : : Philatelist : ?

Solution: 'Demographer' is a person who studies the changes (such as the number of births, deaths, marriages, and illnesses) that occur over a period of time in human populations. Similarly, a 'philatelist' is a person who studies or collects postage stamps. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. A person who studies fossils is called a 'paleontologist.’
QUESTION: 20

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

PNS: OOT:: DBH:?

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Sepal: Flower: :

Solution: 'Sepal' is a part of a 'flower.’ Similarly, 'tyre' is a part of a 'bicycle.’
QUESTION: 23

If (7x8 = 49, 4x4 = 12) and, (6x4 = 18) what will be (9x6 = ?)

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

If 'Development' is written as 'Tomdevelop,’ then 'Evaluation' will be written as

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain operation. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 73*17 = 45 and 68*40 = 54, then 83*15 =?

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

A word is represented by only a set of members as given in any one of the alternatives. The set of numbers given in the alternatives is represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two matrices given below. The column and row of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4, and those of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from the matrices can be represented first by its row and then by its column. e.g., 'D' can be represented by 11, 25, etc., and 'J' can be represented by 67, 78, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word 'MILK.’

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

The ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys in a town is 90%. If the total number of boys and girls in the town is 190, how many girls are in the town?

Solution:

Let the No. of girls be (x)

No.of boys will be ((190 - x))

On solving, we get

No. of girls = 90

QUESTION: 28

Which of the answer figure is exactly a mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held XY?

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words?

1. Chapter

2. Index

3. Bibliography

4. Introduction

5. Preface

Solution: The correct sequence is preface-Index-Introduction-Chapter-Bibliography. Hence, Option (c) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 30

In a certain language, PROSE is coded as PPOQE. How will LIGHT be coded?

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

A cardboard box contains 12 pairs, each of three different types of hand gloves used by batsmen in Cricket. They are separated into single units of gloves and all mixed. You cannot see the gloves from outside, but you can put your hands through the pigeon hole and take out one glove at a time. What will be the minimum number of gloves one should take out to get one perfect pair of gloves to be sure?

Solution: Let there are 3 types of gloves, i.e., A, B and C.

In the worst case, in the first 36 selections, all left-hand gloves would be selected. Now when we select one more glove, then a pair is formed. So, a minimum of 37 gloves should be selected to form a pair

QUESTION: 32

If H = 8 and HAT = 29, find how BOX = ?

Solution: H = 8 & HAT = 29

By hit & trial,

Putting A = 1, we get T = 20

It shows that the code for HAT is the sum of the position of alphabets

Now, B O X = 2 + 15 + 24 = 41

QUESTION: 33

If + stands for division; stands for addition; stands for multiplication; stands for subtraction, which of the following is correct?

Solution:

From option (a),

From option (b),

From option (c),

QUESTION: 34

A is located to the West of B, C is located to the North in between A and B. D is exactly to the South of B and in line with B. In which direction of C is D located?

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

Identify the answer figure from which the pieces are given in the question figure haven’t been cut.

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Find out the number of all those people who can speak Tamil and Telugu?

Solution: The number of all those people who can speak Tamil and Telugu = 21.
QUESTION: 37

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

A, CD, GHI, _ _ _ _, UVWXYZ

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

TMJ, QNL, NON, KPP,?

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

Which of the following number is present only in the circle and the triangle?

Solution: In the given figure, the number present only in the circle and the triangle is 4.
QUESTION: 40

Two buses start simultaneously from Delhi and Agra, which are 300 km apart, towards each other at a speed of 38Km/hr and 37Km/hr. After what time they will be meet-

Solution:

Two buses travelling in the opposite direction, so their relative speed

= 3837 km/h = 75 km/h

Now time taken to cross each other.

= 300/75 = 4 hours

QUESTION: 41

From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

UNCONTAMINATED

Solution: 'Cannote' cannot be formed using the letters of the word 'uncontaminated ' since the word has a single 'o'.
QUESTION: 42

From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

PROVINCLALISM

Solution: 'Initial' cannot be formed using the letters of the word 'provincialism' since the word does not have the letter 't.’
QUESTION: 43

From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

DEPARTMENT

Solution: 'Parade' cannot be formed using the letters of the word 'department' since the word has a single 'a'.
QUESTION: 44

Which one of the following diagrams represents the correct relationship among society, teacher, and student ?

Solution: Both teachers and students are a part of society. At a time, some can be both teachers and students.
QUESTION: 45

Direction: In each of the following questions, a number series is given. Identify the wrong number in the series.

27, 81, 1331, 125

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

Direction : In each of the following questions, a number series is given. Identify the wrong number in the series.

17, 23, 31, 41, 53, 69

Solution:

So, from the given series, 69 is a wrong number.

QUESTION: 47

Direction: Select the missing alphabets/number from the given responses.

Solution:

QUESTION: 48

Direction: Select the missing alphabets/number from the given responses.

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

Direction: Select the missing alphabets/number from the given responses.

Solution:

18, 24, and 36 is the multiple of 6

24, 48, and 64 is the multiple of 8

21, 35, and 49 is the multiple of 7

QUESTION: 50

From the given answer figures, select the figure which is hidden/embedded in the question figure.

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

Personal Disposable Income=

Solution: Personal Income- Personal tax payments - Non-tax payments

Personal disposable income refers to personal income minus taxes at a personal level. It measures the amount of net income that remains after households pay all their tax levies. It also represents the amount households will spend on goods and services or will save to invest.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 52

The atmosphere only contains what percentage of total global carbon?

Solution: There is only 0.1 percent of the total global carbon in the atmosphere.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

Hence, the correct option is (b)

QUESTION: 53

The traveller Marco Polo who visited India in the Thirteenth century, was from which country?

Solution:
• Marco Polo, an Italian traveller, visited India in the 13th century.

• His experience is described in his book The Travels of Marco Polo.

• This book gave the Europeans the first idea regarding Asia, including India, China, and Japan.

QUESTION: 54

Marble is what type of rock?

Solution: Marble is a metamorphic rock formed when limestone is exposed to high temperatures and pressures. Marble forms under such conditions because the calcite forming the limestone recrystallises forming a denser rock consisting of roughly equigranular calcite crystals.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 55

Which temple complex is in the shape of a gigantic chariot, having elaborately carved stone wheels, pillars, and walls?

Solution: The word Konark means Sun. This temple at Konark is the culmination of Odisha temple architecture. The temple complex is in the shape of a gigantic chariot, with seven horses and having elaborately carved stone wheels, pillars and walls.

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 56

Ozone gas is continuously formed by the action of which type of waves on molecular oxygen?

Solution: UV rays are continuously formed by UV rays on molecular oxygen and degraded into molecular oxygen in the stratosphere.

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following crops is suitable for dryland farming?

Solution: Major dry farming crops are millets such as jawar, bajra, ragi, oilseeds like mustard, rapeseed, and pulse crops like pigeon pea, gram, and lentil. Almost 80% of maize and Jwar, 90 percent of Bajra, and approximately 95% of pulses and 75% of oilseeds are obtained from dryland agriculture.

Hence, the correct option is (b)

QUESTION: 58

The Fundamental Right to move freely throughout the territory of India is what type of Right?

Solution: The right to liberty of the person is found in international human rights instruments, which does not grant complete freedom from arrest or detention. The right to liberty and personal freedom is one of the important fundamental rights formed by the Constitution of India. Throughout this right, the citizens of India are able to enjoy a number of rights such as the freedom of speech and expression, freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms, to form associations or unions, to move freely throughout the territory of India, to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. The Right to Freedom in Indian Constitution explains in detail under the articles of 19, 20, 21, and 22.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 59

Who among the following is a professional Badminton singles player from India?

Solution: Saina Nehwal is one of the strongest players of badminton in Indian. She was the former of the world no. 1 of twenty one international titles, including ten Superseries titles. Even she reached the world no. 2 ranking in 2009, and in 2015 that she was able to attain the world no. 1 position. She becomes the only female player from India and overall the second Indian player after the Prakash Padukone to achieve this place. At the Olympics, She has represented India three times by winning the bronze medal in her second appearance. Nehwal has achieved several milestones in badminton in India.

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 60

Which festival is celebrated on the first day of Uttarayana?

Solution: The popular Indian festival “Makar Sankranti” is the first Indian festival that falls in New Year. It is one of the major Indian harvest festivals celebrated on the 14th of January of every year. It's an important festival of the Hindus and celebrated almost everywhere in the country in myriad cultural forms and different names.

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

Solution: Argon is not a greenhouse gas. Methane, carbon dioxide, and nitrous oxide are all greenhouse gases. They contribute to the greenhouse effect. Ammonia does not affect the greenhouse effect.

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 62

Who among the following was a person of Indian origin, and he was also a recipient of the Nobel Prize for Medicine?

Solution: Har Gobind Khorana was a person of Indian origin and a recipient of the Nobel Prize in Medicine.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 63

Which of the following subjects are part of the Union List?

Solution: The Union List or List-I is a list of 97 items. The last item is numbered as 97which is given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India; Parliament has exclusive power to legislate. In the third list, the legislative section is divided into Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Unlike the federal governments of the United States, Switzerland, or Australia, residual powers abide with the Union Government and the Canadian federal government.

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 64

In 1853, a Railway line was laid connecting Bombay with which city?

Solution: When the first train ran between Bombay and Thane on April 16, 1853, the place from where the debut train initiated its journey was known as Boree Bunder.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 65

Which of the following is true?

Solution: When a price ceiling is set below the equilibrium price, quantity demanded will exceed quantity supplied, and excess demand or shortages will result. Price floors prevent a price from falling below a certain level.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following is true?

Solution: Average fixed cost curve is downward sloping because fixed costs are distributed over a larger volume when the quantity produced increases.

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 67

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Solution:

1. uranium atom: 3.95x10−22 grams

2. Mosquito: 10-5

3. Boeing 747 aircraft: 108

4. Milky Way Galaxy 0.8–1.5×1012

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 68

The code that goes into the _____tage pair is not displayed by the browser.

Solution:

The code that goes into the tag pair is not displayed by the browser.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 69

The existence of isotopes was first suggested in 1913 by the radiochemist ______.

Solution: The existence of isotopes was first suggested in 1913 by the radiochemist Frederick Soddy, based on studies of radioactive decay chains that indicated about 40 different species referred to as radioelements (i.e., radioactive elements) between uranium and lead, although the periodic table only allowed for 11 elements between lead and uranium inclusive.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 70

The_____commercial companies set up their base in India during the Mughal Empire at Masulipatnam in 1605.

Solution: Dutch India consisted of the settlements and trading posts of the Dutch East India Company on the Indian subcontinent. It is only used as a geographical definition, as there has never been a political authority ruling all Dutch India. Instead, Dutch India was divided into the governorates Dutch Ceylon and Dutch Coromandel, the commandment Dutch Malabar, and the directorates Dutch Bengal and Dutch Suratte.

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 71

Electromagnet was invented by which scientist?

Solution: British scientist William Sturgeon invented the electromagnet in 1824. His first electromagnet was a horseshoe-shaped piece of iron wrapped with about 18 turns of bare copper wire (insulated wire didn't exist yet).

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following is true about non-chordates?

Solution: Animals who are without a notochord are non-chordates. All the animals which are living or destructed are the most rich and miscellaneous. That makes their study a fascinating one. Fish contains the hills and mainly in the form of long slits. But they are absent in adult tetrapod vertebrates that are also named non-chordates.

Hence, the correct option is (b)

QUESTION: 73

All of the following are characteristics of " Facilitated Transport" in Plants, except one. Identify that from the given options.

Solution: Almost all cellular processes need ATP to give a reaction its required energy. ATP can transfer energy and phosphorylate (add a phosphate) to other molecules in cellular processes such as DNA replication, active transport, synthetic pathways, and muscle contraction.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 74

With reference to India's freedom struggle, consider the following statements :

(2) The first meeting of the "Round Table conferences" was held in November 1930 in Mumbai.

(3) Viceroy Lord Willingdon was sympathetic to Mahatma Gandhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay, the socialist activist, had persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the protest to men alone. She was one of the numerous women who courted arrest by breaking salt and Liquor Laws.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 75

Who among the following was a classical Indian flute player?

Solution: Hariprasad Chaurasia. Hariprasad Chaurasia (born 1 July 1938) is an Indian music director and classical flutist, who plays the bansuri, an Indian bamboo flute, in the Hindustani classical tradition.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following group 14 elements has the highest electronegativity?

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Which of the following electromagnetic waves can be detected using point-contact diodes?

Solution: Diodes has two terminals, that is switching of microwave signals and nonlinear semiconductor that is used to generate mixing or detection. While 100 years ago, the first diodes were point contact to diode used in crystal radios. Mainly, when the anode voltage is higher than the cathode voltage, the diodes will conduct. Mostly microwave industry used diodes which are made of silicon.

Hence, the correct option is (b)

QUESTION: 78

The relative lowering of vapour pressure and is equal to the_____of the solute.

Solution: The relative lowering of the vapour pressure of a dilute solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solute molecule present in the solution.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 79

Which of the following is included in Character Formatting in a word processor?

Solution: Character formatting includes selecting a font, a font size, bold or italics, and so on. At the paragraph level, you apply indents, bullets, and line spacing.

Hence, the correct option is (b)

QUESTION: 80

Which state in India produces maximum sugarcane?

Solution: Uttar Pradesh is the highest sugarcane producing State in a subtropical zone, having an area of about 22.77 Lakh ha with the production of 135.64 Million Ton cane, whereas Haryana has the highest productivity of sugarcane in the Subtropical Zone.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 81

Gross fiscal deficit =

Solution: Total expenditure- (Revenue receipts+Non- dept creating capital receipts)

The gross fiscal deficit (GFD) is the excess of total expenditure, including loans net of recovery over revenue receipts (including external grants) and non-debt capital receipts. The net fiscal deficit is the gross fiscal deficit less net lending of the Central government.

Hence, the correct option is (b)

QUESTION: 82

Which of the following statements regarding Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems is false?

Solution: The pressure gradient is strong where the isobars are close to each other and is weak where the isobars are apart. It affects the speed of the wind. It is greatest at the surface, and its influence generally extends upto an elevation of 1 - 3 km. Over the sea surface, the friction is minimal.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 83

_____is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space.

Solution: Meteorological drought: When there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space, it is called meteorological drought. It is called ecological drought.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 84

Who conquered Sind in c. 7127?

Solution: It was under the leadership of Mohammad-bin-Qasim the conquest of Sind was successful after several attempts. He was an Umayyad general who conquered the Sindh and Punjab regions at a very young age of 17.

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 85

The First Past, the post system of election within the Indian Constitution, is borrowed from the____constitution.

Solution: The United Kingdom does not have one particular constitutional document. Instead of the British constitution or the constitution of the United Kingdom, which is a sum of laws and principles that make up the country’s body politic. The first past the post system of election used in the UK to elect members of the House of Commons, the US Congress, and the lower houses are the chambers in India and Canada and other places that used to be British colonies. The second most popular voting system in the world is The first past the post system. It has many advantages that's the way it is more popular in the world.

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 86

Which of the following is the power of the Lok Sabha?

Solution: Lok Sabha is also known as the house of the people in which the lower house of India's bicameral parliament, with the upper housing being the Rajya Sabha. The constitution of India allows the constitutional power to produce the formal amendments and empowers the Parliament to amend the constitution by way of addition. The Lok Sabha has powers that are more powerful than the Rajya Sabha. It shares the amends of the constitution with the Rajya Sabha.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 87

Who among the following poets wrote the book of poems "Madhushala"?

Solution: Kavi Harivansh Rai Srivastava alias Bachchan was honoured with the Padma Bhushan for his enormous contribution to Hindi Literature. He was a famous or well-known Indian poet of the Nayi Kavita literary movement in the romantic era of early 20th century Hindi literature. He was born in a Hindu Awadhi, Srivastava Kayastha family in Allahabad in the United Provinces of Agra and Oudh, in British India; he was also a famous poet of the Hindi Kavi Sammelan. He is best known for his early work Madhushala. He is also the husband of social activist Teji Bachchan and the father of the famous Hindi film actor Amitabh Bachchan.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 88

Which of the following is an active enzyme?

Solution: Trypsin is an active enzyme.

Trypsin is an enzyme that helps us digest protein. In the small intestine, trypsin breaks down proteins, continuing the process of digestion that began in the stomach. It may also be referred to as a proteolytic enzyme, or proteinase. The pancreas produces trypsin in an inactive form called trypsinogen.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 89

Which of the following is true?

Solution: Red Blood Cells are nucleated and are biconcave in shape.

Red blood cells (RBCs) are non-nucleated, round, biconcave, disc-shaped cells. They are 6.7 to 7.7μ in diameter, approximating the size of the nucleus of a small normal lymphocyte.

Hence, the correct option is (b)

QUESTION: 90

Solution: ITC Limited is an Indian multinational conglomerate company headquartered in Kolkata, West Bengal. Established in 1910 as the Imperial Tobacco Company of India Limited, the company was renamed as the India Tobacco Company Limited in 1970 and later to I.T.C. Limited in 1974.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 91

Anterior end of an earthworm consists of the mouth and the_____.

Solution: The anterior end or head consists of the mouth and the prostomium covering the mouth and as a chock to force the cracks to open in the soil into which the earthworm may lug. The function of the prostomium is sensory. The first body segment is called the peristomium that is a buccal segment that contains the mouth.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 92

Which of the following courts can move cases from any court to itself?

Solution: The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial stage and final court of appeal under the Constitution of India, the powerful constitutional court. In this court, the Chief Justice of India and 25 sanctioned other judges are consisting. It has huge powers in the form of original advisory jurisdiction. The Supreme Court of India being on 28 January 1950. The Federal Court of India and the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council were both replaced and were then at the apex of the Indian court system.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 93

Consider the following pairs:

Name Formula

(a) 2−Chlorobutane:CH3CH2CH(CI)CH3

(b) Pentan- 2 -one: (CH3)2CHCOCH(CH3)2

(c) Prop-2enal: CH2CHCHO

(d) 2,4− Dimethylpentain- 3 one: CH3,COCH2CH2CH3

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Solution: A and C only

Hence the correct answer is option A.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 94

The energy, U stored in a capacitor of capacitance C, with charge Q and voltage V can be expressed as all of the following, except:

Solution: Capacitance is defined as being that a capacitor has the capacitance of One Farad when a charge of One Coulomb is stored on the plates by a voltage of one volt. PE = work = Fd = qEd = qV/d d = qV when the E field strength is invariant over the distance d. pe = average work = Favg d = qE/2 d = qV/2 when the field strength varies linearly with the distance d. The work done in establishing an electric field in a capacitor, and hence the amount of energy stored - can be expressed as W = 1/2 C V2, where W = energy stored - or work done in establishing the electric field C = capacitance (farad, F, µF) V = potential difference (voltage, V).

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 95

Bakelite is what type of polymer?

Solution: Bakelite or polyoxybenzylmethylenglycolanhydride was the first plastic made from synthetic components. It is a thermosetting phenol formaldehyde resin formed from a condensation reaction of phenol with formaldehyde.

Hence, the correct option is (a)

QUESTION: 96

With reference to the interior of the earth, consider the following statements

(1) P-waves vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave.

(2) The mean thickness of the oceanic crust is 5km.

(3) S-waves can travel through solids, liquids, and gaseous materials.

Solution: The mean thickness of the oceanic crust is 5 km.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

Hence, the correct option is (b)

QUESTION: 97

Which scientist proposed the Wave theory of light?

Solution: In his Traité de la Lumière (1690; “Treatise on Light”), the Dutch mathematician-astronomer Christiaan Huygens formulated the first detailed wave theory of light, in the context of which he was also able to derive the laws of reflection and refraction.

Hence, the correct option is (b)

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following is a micronutrient for a plant?

Solution: There are 7 essential plant nutrient elements defined as micronutrients [boron (b), zinc (Zn), manganese (Mn), iron (Fe), copper (Cu), molybdenum (Mo), chlorine (Cl)]. They constitute in total less than 1% of the dry weight of most plants.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 99

If demand curve for almonds is D= 73000-30P and supply curve is S=18000+25P, find the equilibrium Quantity ?

Solution: The demand function is

d = 73000 − 30p

The supply function is

s = 18000 + 25p

At equilibrium demand and supply are equal.

s = d

73000 − 30p = 18000 + 25p

73000 − 18000 = 30p + 25p

55000 = 55p

1000 = p

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 100

Half of the earth's crust is composed of which mineral?

Solution: Half of the earth's crust is composed of feldspar (plagioclase (39%) and alkali feldspar (12%)).

Hence, the correct option is (d)

QUESTION: 101

The relative density of soil samples given by:

Solution: Relative density is an index that quantifies the degree of packing between the loosest and densest possible state of coarse grain soil. It is experimentally determined and driven by,

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 102

The porosity of a soil sample is 0.40, then the void ratio of the soil will be

Solution: Void ratio and porosity are related as

Therefore,

Hence the correct answer is option d.

QUESTION: 103

The coefficient of uniformity (Cu)for well graded gravel is

It cannot be less than 1

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 104

In clay minerals, the iolite mineral is made of -

Solution:

Kaolinite – H2 bond

Little – Ionic Bond

Montmorillonite – Water bond

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 105

The consistence index is given by:

Solution:

It is the statement of the parallel axis theorem.

QUESTION: 106

If the void ratio is known and D10 is the effective size of a particle, then pore diameter may be taken as-

Solution: The maximum tolerance for 20 m chain is 5 mm and for 30 m chain is 8 mm.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 107

If the water table rises above ground level, then effective stress-

Solution: Total stress =

Pore pressure

Effective stress

If the water table rises above the ground level, the total stress and neutral stress will increase by the same magnitude, but effective stress remains unchanged.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 108

The pressure distribution at the base of a flexible foundation for all types of soil is-

Solution: Inflexible foundation pressure will be uniform in all types of soil.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 109

If the void ratio is 0.65 and specific gravity is 2.65, then the critical hydraulic gradient is-

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 110

Stress Isobars are-

Solution: An isobar or pressure bulb is a stress contour or a line that connects all points below the ground surface at which the vertical pressure is the same.

An isobar is a curved spatial surface and resembles a bulb in shape because the vertical pressure at all points in a horizontal plane at equal radial distances from the load is the same.

Thus, the stress isobar is also called the ‘bulb of pressure’ or simply the ‘pressure bulb.’ The vertical pressure at each point on the pressure bulb is the same.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 111

Sludge digestion tank or digestion involves-

Solution: Aerobic sludge digestion is a biological process that takes place in the presence of oxygen. With oxygen, bacteria present in the sludge (activated sludge) consume organic matter and convert it into carbon dioxide. Ovivo offers several technologies to encourage this natural process to thrive, producing consistent, high-quality results. Processes supplied by Ovivo can use coarse or fine bubble diffusers.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 112

In an activated sludge plant F/M (Food to Microorganisms), the ratio is equal to.

Solution:

and Sludge Age

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 113

Re-oxygenation curve of a polluted stream-

Solution: To counterbalance the consumption of D.O. due to de-oxygenation atmosphere supplies oxygen to the water. This is known as re-Oxygenation. It Increases with the time of flow from the point of pollution.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 114

The oxidant used for the determination of COD in-

Solution: In the laboratory determination of COD, a strong oxidant like potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7)or Potassium Permanganate (KMnO4) is used.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 115

Global warming is caused by -

Solution: Global warming potential (GWP) is the heat absorbed by any greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, as a multiple of the heat that would be absorbed by the same mass of carbon dioxide (CO2). GWP is 1 for CO2. For other gases, it depends on the gas and the time frame. Some gases, like methane, have large GWP since a ton of methane absorbs much more heat than a ton of CO2.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 116

Which of the following is not primary air or pollutant?

Solution: The primary air pollutants are

(i) Oxides of Sulphur

(ii) Oxides of Carbon

(iii) Oxides of Nitrogen

(iv) Suspended particulate matter

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 117

If the initial D.O. of sewage sample is 6mg/l and final D.O. is 2 mg/l. The dilution is 1%. Then the BOD of the sample is-

Solution: BOD = (Initial D.O. – Final D.O.) × Dilution Factor

Hence the correct answer is option d.

QUESTION: 118

The pH value of fresh sewage is-

Solution: The pH value of fresh sewage is usually slightly more than water supplied to the community. Most soaps, detergents, cleaners certainly laundry agents as well as bleach are alkaline. The common range of pH of fresh sewage ranges from up to 9.
QUESTION: 119

The process involved in Chlorination before breakpoint chlorination are-

Solution: The processes involved in chlorination before Breakpoint chlorination

(i) Plain

(ii) Pre

(iii) Post

(iv) Double Chlorination

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 120

If (us) is the settling velocity and (v0) is the overflow velocity, then a particle will settle in a vertical settling tank when.

Solution: All particles with Vs>Vc will be completely settled.

All particle with Vsc will be removed in the ratio Vp/Vc

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 121

The boundary between the pavement and shoulder in known as:

Solution: Kerbs indicate the boundary between the carriageway and the shoulder or islands or footpaths.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 122

Which of the following method is used for speed and delay study?

Solution: We use different methods like the Floating-car method, moving-vehicle method, ANPR, videos, and GPS to study the accurate Travel Time and Delay surveys.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 123

Solution: Rotaries are suitable when the traffic entering from three or more approaches are relatively equal. A total volume of about 3000 vehicles per hour can be considered the upper limiting case, and a volume of 500 vehicles per hour is the lower limit. Rotaries are suitable when there are more approaches and no separate lanes are available for right-turn traffic, thus making intersection geometry complex. The traffic operations at a rotary are three; diverging, merging, and weaving.

Hence the correct answer is option d.

QUESTION: 124

Practical Capacity is:

Solution: Practical capacity is the maximum number of vehicles that can pass a given point during one hour without traffic density being so great as to cause unreasonable delay. Possible capacity is the maximum number of vehicles that can pass a given point during one hour under prevailing roadway and traffic conditions. Basic capacity is the maximum number of passenger cars that can pass a given point during one hour under ideal roadway and traffic conditions.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 125

Abrasion test on road aggregates done to:

Solution: The abrasion test measures aggregate toughness and abrasion resistance such as crushing, degradation and disintegration. This test is suggested by AASHTO T 96 or ASTM C 131: Resistance to Degradation of Small-Size Coarse Aggregate by Abrasion and Impact in Los Angeles Machine.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 126

Warping stresses in a C.C. Pavement are due to:

Solution: Warping stress is due to daily variation in temperature, whereas frictional stress is due to seasonal variation of temperature.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 127

The precipitation caused by the lifting of an air mass due to the pressure difference is known as -

Solution: Cyclonic is caused by the lifting of an air mass due to the pressure difference

Convective is caused due to the upward movements of the air that is warmer than its surroundings. Orographic is caused by air masses that strike some neutral topographic barriers.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 128

The ratio of liquid limit to plasticity index for a soil mass is called:

Solution:

Liquidity Index =

Shrinkage Ratio =

=

Consistency Index =

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 129

The performance of a well is measured by-

Solution: The specific capacity of the well is the rate of flow from a well per unit drawdown.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 130

The first watering which is given to a crop is called-

Solution: The first watering which is given to a crop when the crop is a few centimeters high is called Korwatering.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 131

The unit of duty is -

Solution: Duty is the area of land that can be irrigated with a unit volume of water supplied across the base period. It is calculated in a hectare.
QUESTION: 132

The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of the outlet to the rate of change of discharge of the distributor channel is known as -

Solution: Flexibility: It provides criteria for judging the behaviour of modules and semi-modules. It is generally denoted by the letter 'F.,’ The ratio of the rate of change of outlet discharge to the rate of change of discharge of the parent channel.

Hence the correct answer is option C

QUESTION: 133

If H is the total height of the building, then under transient wind load, the lateral sway at the top should not exceed -

Solution: As per IS 456: 2000, clause, 20.5

For RCC structures, under transient wind load, the lateral sway at the top shall not exceed 0.002 times the height of the building.

Hence correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 134

The effective width of the flangs of T-beam is given is,

Solution:

It is that portion of the slab that acts integrally with the beam and extends on either side of the beam forming the compression zone. The effective width of the flange mainly depends upon the span of beams, the thickness of the slab, and the breadth of the web. It also depends upon the type of loads and support conditions.

The effective width of the flange should not be greater than the breadth of the web plus half the sum of clear distances to the adjacent beams on either side.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 135

Lap length in compression shall not be less than-

Solution: As per IS 456: 2000, clause 26.2.5.1, the lap length in compression shall be equal to the development length in compression, but not less than 24.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 136

For two-way slab, the amount of minimum reinforcement in either direction for Fe 415 is:

Solution: As per IS 456: 200, clause 26.5.2.1, both for one and two-way slabs, the amount of minimum reinforcement in either direction shall not be less than 0.15 and 0.12 percent of the total cross-sectional area for Fe 250 and Fe 415/500, respectively.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 137

While designing combined footing, the resultant of the column loads passes through the centre of gravity of the footing slab such that the net soil pressure obtained is-

Solution: It is desirable to design combined footing so that the centroid of the footing area coincides with the resultant of the two-column loads. This produces uniform bearing pressure over the entire area and forestalls a tendency for the footing to tilt.
QUESTION: 138

For the stiffness criteria of a simply supported beam, the ratio of its span to depth shall not exceed:

Solution: Stiffness criteria for various beams

For cantilever →7

For simply supported →20

For continuous →26

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 139

For limit state of collapse in compression, the relationship between stress-strain distributing in concrete is assumed to be:

Solution: Assumptions in limit state of collapse in flexure (Bending) REFER CL. (b) The maximum strain in concrete at the outermost compression fibre is taken as 0.0035 in bending. (c) The relationship between the stress-strain distribution in concrete is assumed to be parabolic.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 140

If a column is effectively held in position and restrained against rotation at one end and the other restrained against rotation but not held in the position, then the recommended value of effective length is-

Solution: If a column is effectively placed in position and restrained against rotation at one end and restrained against rotation at the other but not held in position, the recommended value of effective length is 1.2 (l).

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 141

Rapid hardening Portland cement possesses:

Solution: Rapid hardening Portland cement is similar to ordinary Portland cement except that it is ground finer, possesses more (C3S), and less (C2S) than ordinary Portland cement.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 142

Excessive amount of water-cement leads to:

Solution: The use of an excessive amount of water in cement produces low strength, but increasing shrinkage produces low strength but increasing shrinking and decreasing density and durability.

An increase in 10% above optimum may decrease the strength by approximately 15%, while an increase in 50% may decrease the strength to one-half.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 143

According to IS code, the flexural strength in (N/mm2) is given as:

Solution: Flexural strength of and modulus of elasticity is given as

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 144

Which of the following is a water-reducing admixture?

Solution: A substance which either increases the workability of freshly mixed mortar or concrete without increasing the water-cement ratio or maintains workability at a reduced water-cement ratio is known as a water-reducing admixture. Here, Calcium lignosulphonate is a water-reducing admixture.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 145

Mohr’s circle can be drawn only for:

Solution: A Mohr’s circle is a graphical representation of stress and strain acting on any plane in the body.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 146

Which one of these is not a method to obtain deflection of beams?

Solution: Mohr’s circle is used to obtain principal stresses and strains.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 147

If two springs of stiffness K1 and K2 are connected in series, the stiffness of the combined spring will be-

Solution: For spring connected in series, we have-

1K=K1+K2K1K2

K=K1K2K1+K2

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 148

A uniform rise in temperature on a portal frame will cause

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 149

Quick lime is-

Solution: Calcium oxide or CaO is also known as burnt lime which is a white and alkaline crystal used commonly.

It is made by thermal decomposition of calcium-rich materials like seashells, limestone, etc.

By heating these materials in the process called calcination or lime burning, quick lime is obtained.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 150

In the manufacture of bricks, tempering is the process in which:

Solution: Tempering is the process in which clay is brought to a proper degree of hardness, and it is made fit for the next operation of moulding. Blending is when the clay is made loose, and any ingredient added to it is spread out at its top. Weathering is the process in which clay is exposed to the atmosphere softening or mellowing.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 151

The portion of a brick that is so cut that the width of one its end is half that of full brick, while the width at the other end is equal to full width is known as:

Solution: When a brick is cut along its length, making it two halves, it is called queen closer. Thus a queen closer is a broken brick portion whose width is half as wide as the original brick. This is also called the queen closer half.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 152

In a tree structure, the outer annual rings between the heartwood and cambium layer is known as:

Solution: SAP WOOD: The outer annual rings between the heartwood and cambium layer is the sapwood.

Hence the correct answer is option d.

QUESTION: 153

Pick up the incorrect statement:

Solution:

Float is the range within which the start or the finish time of activity may fluctuate without affecting project completion time. Floats cannot be negative.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 154

The functional loss in the value of the property due to change in design, structure, fashion, utility, demand, etc. is known as-

Solution: Obsolescence: The value of property or structures become less by its becoming out of date in style, in structure in design, etc. 1) The loss in the value of the property is due to change of design, fashion, in the structure of the other, change of utility, demand.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 155

Annual depreciation is given as:

Solution: The total amount that's depreciated each year, represented as a percentage, is called the depreciation rate. For example, if a company had \$100,000 in total depreciation over the asset's expected life, the annual depreciation was \$15,000; the rate would be 15% per year.

Hence correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 156

The structure in which a number of equilibrium equations are not enough to compute the reactions are:

Solution: Regarding beams, if the reaction forces can be calculated using equilibrium equations alone, they are statically determinate. On the other hand, if the reaction force can't be determined using equilibrium equations only, other methods have to be used, and the structure is said to be statically indeterminate.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 157

If a concentrated wheel load acts on a simply supported beam, the maximum bending moment will always occur.

Solution: If a concentrated wheel load acts on a simply supported beam, the maximum bending moment will always occur below the wheel load.

Hence, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 158

The influence line diagram for reaction, shear force, and bending moment for fixed beam will be-

Solution: An influence line for a member is a graph representing the variation of internal force ( reaction, shear, moment, or deflection) in a fixed section of the member due to a unit load traversing a structure. The influence line diagram for reaction, shear force, and bending moment for fixed beam will be a curve.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 159

In structure, Muller Breslau Principle is used for:

Solution: The Müller-Breslau principle is a method to determine influence lines. The principle states that the influence lines of action (force or moment) assumes the scaled form of the deflection displacement.
QUESTION: 160

Force in the member EF is:

Solution: If at a joint, 3 members meet and two of them are collinear, and there is no external load or reaction at that joint, then the 3rd member (collinear) will always carry zero force. Hence force in member EF is zero.

Hence the correct answer is option d.

QUESTION: 161

Fixed end moment due to a point load P acting at the midpoint of the beam having length L is:

Solution: Fixed end moment due to a point load P acting at the midpoint of the beam having length L is

Hence the correct answer is option d.

QUESTION: 162

In a turbulent flow in a pipe, the shear stress is:

Solution: For turbulent flow, shear stress

Where r0 = radius of the pipe

t0 = shear stress at the boundary

y = distance from the pipe wall

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 163

Von-Karmon at a definite distance from the wall -

Solution: In 2D incompressible and steady flow, the pressure gradient in the direction of flow is zero

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 164

The velocity at which laminar flow withdrawn is:

Solution:

Critical Velocity

Critical Velocity is the maximum velocity of a fluid, above which, the streamline flow get the change to turbulent flow.

• Lower critical Velocity
(i) It is the velocity at which the laminar flow stops.
(ii) In this, the flow enters from laminar to transition period which exists between the laminar and turbulent flow.
• Upper Critical velocity
(i) It is the velocity at which the turbulent flow starts.
(ii) In this, the flow enters from the transition period to turbulent flow.
QUESTION: 165

If α is the blade angle at the outlet, the maximum hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is:

Solution: The velocity at which flow changes from laminar to turbulent is called critical velocity, and the state between their two flows is the transition state.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 166

Spherical shape of droplets of mercury is due to -

Solution: Spherical shape of droplets of mercury is due to high surface tension.

Mercury has the force of adhesion less than the force of cohesion and prefers to stick to itself rather than the glass surface. To achieve this, mercury takes a spherical shape to minimize its contact with the glass surface.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 167

Centre of buoyancy always -

Solution: Coincides with the centric of the volume of the displaced fluid

The center of buoyancy is the point where if you were to take all of the displaced fluid and hold it by that point, it would remain perfectly balanced, assuming you could hold fluid in a fixed shape. The center of buoyancy for an object is the center of mass for the fluid it displaces.

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 168

If the thickness of the thinnest outside plate is 20 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets in tension will be taken as -

Solution: Maximum pitch of rivets in tension = 16t or 200 mm, whichever is less

Here, 16× 20 = 320 mm,

Therefore pitch = 200 mm

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 169

Effective length of the fillet weld of length L and size S is given by -

Solution: Effective length of the fillet weld of length L and size S is given by L – 2s.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 170

If t is the thickness of the thinner plate, the distance between the centers of any two adjacent fasteners shall not exceed.

Solution: The distance between the centres of any two adjacent fasteners shall not exceed 32t or 300 mm, whichever is less, where t is the thickness of the thinner plate.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 171

Intermediate stiffeners are provided in a plate girder -

Solution: In that scenario, intermediate stiffeners are provided to improve the buckling strength of the web. Horizontal stiffeners are provided in parallel to the flange plates. They are also called longitudinal stiffeners.
QUESTION: 172

The principal rafter is designed as a:

Solution: A simply supported beam is a type of beam that has pinned support at one end and roller support at the other end. Depending on the load applied, it undergoes shearing and bending. It is one of the simplest structural elements in existence. The following image illustrates a simply supported beam.

A diagonal member of a roof principal, usually forming part of a truss and supporting the purlins on which the common rafters rest.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 173

For a tension member in which a reverse of direct stress due to loads other than wind or seismic forces occurs, the maximum value of slenderness ratio is:

Solution: The maximum effective slenderness ratio for a tension member in which stress reversal occurs due to loads other than wind or seismic forces is 180.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 174

The curvature of the earth is taken into account when the extent of the area is more than -

Solution: Results for plane survey does not hold suitable for an area greater than 250 km2

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 175

A 30 m chain is divided into -

Solution: Each link of a chain is 0.2 long, so no of links required is150 for a 30 m chain.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 176

For ranging a line, the number of ranging rods required is -

Solution: Two rods at both end stations and one rod in the middle of the two stations for direct running.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 177

Compensating error is proportional to -

Solution: Measurements are made along the incorrectly aligned line. Compensating errors which are proportional to √L, where L is the length of the line.

Hence correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 178

The sum of interior angles of a closed traverse is -