Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 8


200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering | Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 8


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Attempt Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 8 | 200 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for SSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering for SSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

Which figure completes the series?

Question figure:

Answer figure :

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 2

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure:

Answer figure:

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option B.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 3

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Cheer : Cheerfully : : Act : ?

Solution:

Cheer - Cheerfully

(Noun) (Adverb)

Act - Actively

(Noun) (Adverb)

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 4

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

QPO: RST: : IHG:?

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 5

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Brick : Mortar : : Body : ?

Solution:

Brick made from Mortar

similar

Body made from Soul.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 6

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

2 : 8:: 5:?

Solution:

23 = 8

Similarly

53 = 125

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 7

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

CUP: LIP:: BIRD:?

Solution: Cup is used to drink something with the help of lips. Similarly, birds collect grass with the help of beak to make her nest.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 8

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Solution:

1/3 reverse is 3.

Then

2/5 reverse 5/2

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 9

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Influenza : Virus : : Typhoid : ?

Solution:

First is a disease caused by the second

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 10

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

999: 1001: 99:?

Solution:

999 + 2 = 1001

similarly

99 + 2 = 101

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 11

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Clock : Time : : Thermometer : ?

Solution: First is an instrument to measure the second.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 12

In the following figure, the square represents men, the triangle represents judo players, the circle represents karate players, and the rectangle represents women. Which set of letters represents men who are karate players and Judo players who are not men?

Solution:

F represents only Judo players but not men.

B represents men who are only karate players.

So the answer is F and B.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 13

Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

OUO, OOUOO, OOOUOOO,?

Solution: In the given series, this increases this order

Before 'U', +O and after 'U',+O increase.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 14

Which of the following diagrams represent the relationship between Actors, Actresses, and Producers?

Solution:

Actors, Actresses and Producers are related to each other.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 15

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

(DEF, DEF2, DE2F2,.....D2E2F3)

Solution: In this series, the letters remain the same: DEF.

The subscript numbers follow this series: 1,1,1; 1,1,2; 1,2,2; 2,2,2; 2,2,3.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 16

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

XXOXXX, XXXOXX, XXXXOX, XXXXXO, ?

Solution: XXOXXX, XXXOXX, XXXXOX, XXXXXO, ?

In this series, after XX, O comes and after this, XXX

similarly, O is ahead next step in the next digit, etc.

And the last digit comes to OXXXXX

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 17

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

F, I, L, O,?

Solution: In this series follow this pattern

+3,+3,+3,+3,....

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 18

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

pig, mead, poise, snarls,?

Solution: In this series given these follow

3,4,5,6,7....words

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 19

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _____

Solution: This is an alternating series in alphabetical order. The middle letters follow the order ABCDE. The first and third letters are alphabetical, beginning with J. The third letter is repeated as the first letter in each subsequent three-letter segment.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 20

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

qlg, rmh, sni, toj,?

Solution:

q + 1 = r, r + 1 = s, s + 1 = t, t + 1 = u

l + 1 = m, m + 1 = n, n + 1 = o, o + 1 = p

g + 1 = h, h + 1 = i, i + 1 = j, j + 1 = k

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 21

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

37, 41, ?, 47, 53

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 22

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

7, ?, -2, -8, -15

Solution:

7, ?, -2, -8, -15

This series follow this pattern:

-4,-5,-6,-7,-8

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 23

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

Solution: In this series follow this pattern

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 24

Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

Statement :

All bridges are bricks.

No Stones are bridges.

Conclusion :

I. Some bricks are stones

II. Some stones are bridges.

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 25

If 97% 61 = 7, 64% 52 = 5 then find the value of 92% 65 = ?

Solution:

9 - 7 = 2

6 - 1 = 5

= 5 + 2 = 7

6 - 4 = 2

5 - 2 = 3

= 3 + 2 = 5

9 - 2 = 7

6 - 5 = 1

= 7 + 1 = 8

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 26

Two women start walking from the same point. Woman A walks 3m West. Then she turns to her left and walks 10m, then she turns to her left again and walks 9m. At the same time, B has walked 6m East, then she turns to her right and walks 2 m. Where is B now with respect to the position of A?

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 27

If the letters H, C, R, A, I, Y & T are numbered 1,2,3,4,5,6 & 7 respectively. Select that combination of numbers so that letters are arranged accordingly, form a meaningful word.

Solution:

H, C, R, A, I, Y & T

1,2,3,4,5,6 & 7

By these words made a meaningful word:

CHARITY ⇒ 2143576

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 28

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: We can see in all the options except ‘426 – 32’, the first number is the square of the second number.

26² = 676

27² = 729

19² = 361

426 is not even divisible by 32.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 29

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: Except for option C, all other option given number sum is 10.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 30

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: Only option A is an eatable item; any others not eatable.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 31

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: Except for Option C, all others are odd numbers.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 32

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: Except for Option B, all others options are related to each other both.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 33

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: In option A

Between M and P, only two-digit

All other options have more than two digits.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 34

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

2367 → 2 + 3 + 6 + 7 = 18,

4374 → 4 + 3 + 7 + 4 = 18,

5319 → 5 + 3 + 1 + 9 = 18,

6182 → 6 + 1 + 8 + 2 = 17.

Thus 6182 is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 35

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: Except for option C, all other activities are happiness.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 36

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: Except for option D, all other options follow this rule;

The first digit is multiplied by 7 and add 3. then the second digit comes.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 37

If A % B means A is the mother of B, A & B means A is the father of B, and if A $ B means A is the daughter of B, then what does P % Q $ R & S means?

Solution: P % Q $ R & S

P % Q = P is mother of Q,

Q $ R = Q is daughter of R

R & S = R is father of S

So,according to above given

P is mother of S.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 38

In a certain code language, 421 means 'board is black', 213 means 'black is white ' 523 means 'black or white'. Find the code for 'or.’

Solution: 421 means 'board is black',

213 means 'black is white.'

523 means 'black or white'.

In 'Board is black' and 'black or white' black is similar both

421 and 523 in also 2 similar

So,

black ⇒ 2

In 'chalk is white 'and 'black or white,’ white is similar in both

213 and 523 in also 3 similar

white ⇒ 3

then

523 means 'black or white'.

In this remaining 5 is for 'or.'

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 39

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

32, 31, 32, 29, 32, 27, 32,?,?

Solution: This is an alternating repetition series.

The number 32 alternates with a series in which each number decreases by 2.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 40

A man walks 7 km North, then turns West and walks 3km, then turns South and walks 7km, then turns to his right and walks 5kms. Where is he now with reference to his starting position?

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 41

Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Question figure:

Answer figure :

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option B.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 42

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure:

Answer figure :

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option B.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 43

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets at in the two materials given below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4, and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., 'R' can be represented by 01, 44, and 'U' can be represented by 59, 78, etc. Identify the set for the word FORK.

Solution: 30, 86, 13, 77

The correct answer is option B.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 44

If j < K, l > K, K < i, which of the following must be true?

I. J < l

II. i > j

Solution: j < K < i < l

So,

I. j < l : true

II. j < i : true

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 45

A piece of paper is folded and punched, as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Question figure:

Answer figure:

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option D.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 46

If ANTIQUES is coded as DQWLTXHV, then how will FOX be coded as?

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 47

In a certain code language '+' represents 'X' , '-'represents '+', X represents ÷ and ÷ represents '-' . Find out the answer to the following question.

0.125 + 3554 × 3 = ?

Solution: 0.125 + 3554 × 3 = ?

0.125 × 3554 ÷ 3 = 0.125 × 1184.67 = 14.80

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 48

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Question figure:

Answer figure:

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option A.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 49

The weights of five boxes are 30, 40, 50, 70 & 90 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes ?

Solution: Weight Combination of these boxes

30, 40, 50, 70 & 90

30+40=70

30+40+50=120

30+40+50+70=190

30+40+50+70+90=280

40+50+70=160

40+50+70+90=250

50+70+90=210

40+70+90=200

So,220 not comes of this combinations.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 50

Direction: Each question below is followed by a statement and some arguments. You have to decide which of the following arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument. In making decisions about an important question, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments and weak arguments so far as they relate to the question. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are of minor importance and may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Statement: Should cameras be installed in public school classrooms to monitor teachers?

Argument :

I. No, This will violate privacy norms.

II. Yes, This will make the teacher more accountable, increasing their productivity.

Solution: If neither argument I nor argument II is strong

Hence the correct answer is option B.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 51

Which among the following skill development schemes provides a monetary reward for successfully completing approved training programs?

Solution: The objective of this Scheme is to encourage skill development for youth by providing monetary rewards for the successful completion of approved training programs. Specifically, the Scheme aims to: Encourage standardization in the certification process and initiate a process of creating a registry of skills. Enable and mobilize a large number of Indian youth to take up skill training and become employable and earn their livelihood. Increase productivity of the existing workforce and align the training and certification to the needs of the country. Provide Monetary Awards for Skill Certification to boost employability and productivity of youth by incentivizing them for skill training. Reward candidates undergoing skill training by authorized institutions at an average monetary reward. 8,000 (Rupees Eight Thousand) per candidate. Benefit 24 lakh youth at an approximate total cost of Rs. 1,500 Crores.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 52

Which of the following compounds is commonly used as an antiseptic in mouthwashes and toothpaste?

Solution: Antiseptics are antimicrobial substances that are applied to living tissue/skin to reduce the possibility of infection, sepsis, or putrefaction. Antiseptics are generally distinguished from antibiotics by the latter’s ability to be transported through the lymphatic system to destroy bacteria within the body and from disinfectants, which destroy microorganisms found on non-living objects. Some antiseptics are true germicides, capable of destroying microbes (bactericidal), while others are bacteriostatic and only prevent or inhibit their growth. Antibacterials are antiseptics that have the proven ability to act against bacteria. Microbicides that destroy virus particles are called viricides or antivirals. Sodium chloride, Used as a general cleanser. It is also used as an antiseptic mouthwash.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 53

Under which Act Queen Victoria was given the title of 'Kaiser-i-Hind'?

Solution: Queen Victoria was given the title "Empress of India" (or Kaisar-i-Hind) from 1 May 1876 under the Royal Titles Act 1876. The act was passed with the understanding that the British imperial title should be used only in India. Thus, the Queen began to use it in her signature in 1878, and in 1893 it appeared on the British coins.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 54

Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is -

Solution: The opportunity cost of production of a commodity refers to the cost that the producer has to sacrifice in terms of the next best alternative that could be produced out of that cost to produce every unit of the given commodity.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 55

Pyrethrin used in mosquito coil is obtained from:-

Solution: Pyrethrin is a natural plant-derived from a seed plant substance from the chrysanthemum cineraria folium.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 56

Who created a record for the ongest single spaceflight by a woman?

Solution: Christina Koch broke the record for the longest single space flight made by a woman. Astronaut Christina Koch already made history in October as one of the astronauts to conduct the first all-women spacewalk.

In 2017, former NASA chief astronaut Peggy Whitson set the record of 288 days in space.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 57

________ launched the application for the DefExpo 2020?

Solution: Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh launched the mobile app of the forthcoming DefExpo 2020 in New Delhi. The main features of the app are ‘inform, engage, and feedback.’ It provides detailed information about the day-to-day events; participating exhibitors; Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs), guest speakers of seminars/webinars; publications, i.e., electronic brochures and e-books; maps and directions of the venues and city weather.

The Department of Defence Production has developed the app Ministry of Defence (MoD) to engage with visitors and exhibitors. Business-to-Business Exhibitor Connect; Exhibitor Chat; Ticket booking; accommodation in Tented City; Push notifications, and social media are some of its salient features.

The DefExpo 2020is scheduled to be held in Uttar Pradesh capital Lucknow between February 05-08,2020. The theme of the expo is ‘India: The Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub.’

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 58

Which of the following is an artificial ecosystem?

Solution: Rice-field (an agricultural field) is considered to be an artificial ecosystem. It is because of the following: It is a man-made ecosystem and has all the components of the ecosystem. Abiotic factors include air, water, soil, etc. Biotic factors include all living organisms like plants, animals, and microbes.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 59

Who among the following actresses is the brand ambassador of 'Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan'?

Solution: Bollywood actress Vidya Balan might not be the sole brand ambassador of Prime Minister Narendra Modi's pet Swachh Bharat Abhiyan project.

The government is planning to rope in state-specific celebrities and eminent persons to publicise the programme. Noted personalities from districts and villages could also be roped in to spread the message of the programme.

"The idea is that there would be a super-brand ambassador at the national level, while we would also approach local-level eminent personalities and celebrities to become brand ambassadors for Swachh Bharat Abhiyan," said a senior official from the ministry of rural development, the nodal ministry for the programme.

He said sportsmen from states and writers could be approached to push the programme to the ground level.

Vidya Balan was first associated with the sanitation campaign during the previous United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government when the Rural Development Minister Jairam Ramesh roped her in for the Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan, a scheme similar to the current one.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 60

In which of the following is used as a National Waterway?

Solution: The National Waterway 1 or NW1 is located in India and runs from Haldia (Sagar) to Allahabad across the Ganges, Bhagirathi, and Hooghly river systems.

It is 1620 km long, making it the longest waterway in India; NW1 passes through Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.

It was declared as a waterway in October 1986. It is navigable by mechanical boat up to Patna.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 61

The main purpose of Panchayati Raj is -

Solution: Panchayati Raj institutions are the main instruments of village local government which play a vital role in the enhancement of primary education, health, agricultural developments, to make people participate in development administration in local government, etc.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 62

Which one of the following is a 'fish' -

Solution: Flying fish, any of about 40 species of oceanic fishes of the family Exocoetidae (order Atheriniformes), are found worldwide in warm waters and noted for their ability to fly. They are all small, attaining a maximum length of about 45 cm (18 inches), and have winglike, rigid fins and an unevenly forked tail.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 63

The colour of the Star is an indication of its-

Solution: Astronomers have long used stars' color to identify their temperature, and they created a classification system called spectral classes to do so, which places stars into a category based on their temperature

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 64

The Battle of Ten Kings was fought on the bank of which one of the following rivers?

Solution: The entire territory of the Vedic Aryans was divided into a number of tribal principalities, usually ruled by the leaders. The Bharatas were the most important Aryan tribe, after whom India came to be known as Bharata. In connection with the famous Dasrajna Yudha or the battle of ten kings, mentioned in various hymns of the Rig-Veda, many important Vedic tribes and their personalities are found mentioned. The battle of ten kings was between Sudas, a Bharata king of the Tritsu family, and the confederacy of ten well-known tribes- Puru, Yadu, Turvasa, Anu, Druhyu, Alina, Paktha, Bhalanas, Shiva, and Vishanin. The former five are said to be Aryan tribes, while the latter 5 are, Non-Aryan tribes. In the bloody and decisive battle on the banks of river Parushni, the Bharatas emerged victorious.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 65

Who among the following has been named as the Junior Freestyle Wrestler of the year?

Solution: World championships silver medallist Deepak Punia has been named the ‘Junior Freestyle Wrestler of the Year’ by United World Wrestling (UWW). Deepak Punia had become the first Indian wrestler in 18 years to win a junior world title.

He currently holds the No. 1 position in 86kg in the UWW rankings.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 66

Which one of the following chemicals helps in fruit ripening?

Solution: Ethephon is a plant growth regulator that acts by the release of ethylene, directly influencing several physiological processes, such as ripening and maturation, and stimulating the production of endogenous ethylene. Ethephon is used on various crops, including fruits, vegetables, cereals, and oilseed crops.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 67

The second premium Tejas train was run between _________

Solution: After the successful run of Lucknow-Delhi Tejas Express, the second premium Tejas train was run between Ahmedabad and Mumbai.

The inaugural run of this second Tejas Train was flagged off from Ahmedabad on 17th January 2020. The commercial run of the train was started with effect from 19th January 2020 from Ahmedabad.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 68

Development of an egg without fertilization is called -

Solution: The development of an embryo directly from an egg cell without fertilization is called parthenogenesis. Parthenogenesis occurs naturally in many plants, some invertebrate animal species (including nematodes, water fleas, some scorpions, aphids, some bees, and parasitic wasps).

Apomixis is an asexual mode of seed formation that produces clonal progeny with a maternal genotype.

Polyembryony is the phenomenon of two or more embryos developing from a single fertilized egg.

Parthenocarpy is the natural or artificially induced production of fruit without fertilization of ovules.

Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 69

The first railway station of the country to provide Google's free public Wi-Fi Service is-

Solution: Mumbai Central station

Google India and Indian Railways’ telecom arm RailTel has launched a free Rail Wire Public Wi-Fi service for railway passengers at the Mumbai Central Station. With this, Mumbai Central has become the first railway station in India to have a free high-speed Wi-Fi Internet facility.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 70

Which of the following planets is nearest to Earth?

Solution: VENUS is the closest planet to Earth. However, its proximity to our planet depends on the orbits of both. The two planets travel in ellipses around the sun, and so the distance between them is constantly changing.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following mountain ranges divided India into two parts?

Solution: Faulting: The structure of rocks cracks or breaks along with the weaker areas due to tension; this is called faulting. This may cause upliftment and subsidence of land and can form Block Mountains. Satpura hills.

When a part of land subsides between two faults, it forms Rift Valley. Narmada & Tapti Rivers flow through the rift valley.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 72

Pomology is a study of -

Solution: Pomology (from Latin pomum (fruit) + -logy) is a branch of botany that studies and cultivates fruit. The goals of fruit tree improvement include enhancing fruit quality, regulating production periods, and reducing production costs. One involved in the science of pomology is called a pomologist.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 73

In domain represents?

Solution: The domain Name .in is the top-level domain name for India. This domain name represents that the website is related to India. Any person can now register the domain name with .in as the extension.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 74

Earth day is observed on -

Solution: Earth Day was founded by American senator Gaylord Nelson in the form of environmental education. This day commenced on April 22, 1970, and today more than 1 billion people in 192 countries of the world are celebrating Earth Day. Earth Day is now a global event each year; it is the largest civic-focused day of action in the world.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 75

Scurvy is a -

Solution: Scurvy is a disease resulting from a lack of vitamin C (ascorbic acid). Early symptoms of deficiency decreased include weakness, feeling tired, and sore arms and legs. Without treatment, decreased red blood cells, gum disease, changes to hair, and bleeding from the skin may occur.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 76

Bahmani Kingdom is founded by -

Solution: Alauddin Bahman Shah founded the Bahmani Kingdom in 1347 AD. With its capital at Gulbarga and later Bidar, a total of eighteen Sultans ruled over this kingdom. Often at war with the neighboring Hindu Kingdom of Vijayanagara, the Bahamanis disintegrated into independent sultanates called Deccan sultanates after the attack of Krishnadeva Raya and the death of the great Wazir of Bahmani Sultanate Mahmud Gawan.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following is a Kharif Crop.

Solution: Rice is the most important Kharif crop of India. Rice requires a temperature of 16–20 °C (61–68 °F) during the growing season and 18–32 °C (64–90 °F) during ripening. It needs rainfall from 150–200 centimetres (59–79 in) and requires a flooded field during the growth period.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 78

Blood Bank of Human body is-

Solution: The spleen is the site which is known as the blood bank of the human body. The purification of the blood takes place in the spleen. The blood cells are stored in the spleen, and hence, it is known as the reservoir of the blood cells.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 79

Definition of Force is given by -

Solution: Newton's second law of motion pertains to the behavior of objects for which all existing forces are not balanced. The second law states that the acceleration of an object depends on two variables - the net force acting upon the object and the mass of the object.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 80

Official language of Nagaland is -

Solution: In 1967, the Nagaland Assembly proclaimed Indian English as the official language of Nagaland, and it is the medium for education in Nagaland. Other than English, Nagamese, a creole language based on Assamese is widely spoken.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 81

World Economic Outlook is a survey by-

Solution: World Economic Outlook Reports. A Survey by the IMF staff is usually published twice a year. It presents IMF staff economists' analyses of global economic developments during the near and medium-term.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 82

Who became the 2019 Women's World Rapid Chess Champion?

Solution: Indian grandmaster Koneru Humpy has become the 2019 Women's World Rapid Champion. She defeated China's Lei Tingjie in a dramatic final in Moscow, Russia.

Tingjie finished with silver, while Turkey's Ekaterina Atalik won bronze.

Norway's Magnus Carlsen claimed the men's title.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 83

Ozone Layer is present in which layer of the atmosphere?

Solution: The ozone layer is mainly found in the lower portion of the stratosphere, from approximately 15 to 35 kilometers (9.3 to 21.7 mi) above Earth, although its thickness varies seasonally and geographically.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 84

Article 63 is related to -

Solution: Article 63 of the Indian Constitution states that "There shall be a Vice President of India." The Vice President acts as President in the absence of the president due to death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations. The Vice President of India is also ex officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 85

Which five-year plan was also known as Gadgil Yojana?

Solution: A third five-year plan whose duration was from 1961-66 is known as Gadgil Yojana. Answer: Third Five Year Plan (1961-1966) is called 'Gadgil Yojna' also. The main target of this plan was to make the economy independent and reach the self-active position of take-off.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 86

NITI Aayog has organized a day-long FinTech Conclave at Dr. Ambedkar International Center, __________.

Solution: NITI Aayog has organized a day-long FinTech Conclave at Dr. Ambedkar International Center, New Delhi. The Conclave was inaugurated by RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 87

Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) is-

Solution: TPP was a 2005 trade agreement between a small group of Pacific Rim countries comprising Brunei, Chile, New Zealand, and Singapore. In 2008, President George W. Bush announced that the United States would begin trade talks with this group, leading Australia, Vietnam, and Peru to join. As the talks proceeded, the group expanded to include Canada, Japan, Malaysia, and Mexico—twelve countries in all.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 88

Which of the following is a Ductless Gland?

Solution: The Ductless Glands.1174– The thyroid gland and its relations. Specific organs are very similar to secreting glands but differ from them in one essential particular, viz., they do not possess any ducts by which their secretion is discharged. These organs are known as ductless glands.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 89

'Renukoot' is famous for -

Solution: Renukoot is a city and a Nagar panchayat in the Sonbhadra district in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. Renukoot is 68 km south of the district headquarters Robertsganj and 158 km from Varanasi. Renukoot is an industrial town. It is well known for the Hindalco Aluminium plant and Rihand Dam.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 90

Duchifat-3, a Israeli student satellite is set to be launched from ________.

Solution: The Israeli student satellite Duchifat-3 is an experimental and educational spacecraft developed and built by secondary school students at the Space Laboratory of the Herzliya Science Centre (HSC). It is made to the 3U CubeSat standard. It is set to be launched from India’s ISRO from Sriharikota.

Duchifat-3 has three missions that will operate in parallel i.e.

high-school students educational satellite onboard camera for earth imaging amateur radio transponder and APRS digipeater Alon Abramovich, Meitav Assulin, and Shmuel Aviv Levi are the three students who played a significant role in making the satellite.

ROSCOSMOS: Russia Space Agency.

NASA: U.S Space Agency.

JAXA: Japanese Space Agency.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 91

An autobiography titled “Mind Master” is written by _____.

Solution: India's first Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand released his autobiography titled Mind Master. It was co-written by Susan Ninan. The book offers an insight into Anand's greatest wins and worst losses. He has also shared his experience of facing the best minds in the world.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 92

The gas used in Beacon light is -

Solution: The inert gas is used as a beacon light. The neon light is visible from very long distances, even in heavy fog during the winter season. Neon (and other elements of group 18) is an inert or noble gas because they are highly uncreative.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 93

Which element does not have Neutron?

Solution: There is only one stable atom that does not have neutrons. It is an isotope of the element hydrogen called protium. Protium, which contains a single proton and a single electron, is the simplest atom.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 94

Pink revolution is related to -

Solution: Pink Revolution in India refers to natural minerals and vitamins play an important role in enhancing our resistance capacity in the body. The emphasis is on the production of pharmaceuticals, onion using the varied climate condition of our country. This is known as the pink revolution.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 95

Which one of the following does not contain silver?

Solution: German Silver is an alloy of copper, zinc, and nickel, sometimes containing lead and tin. It does not contain silver metal and is extensively used because of its hardness and resistance to corrosion.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 96

In which country is the committee that selects winners for Noble Peace Prize located?

Solution: Per Alfred Nobel's will, the recipient is selected by the Norwegian Nobel Committee, a five-member committee appointed by the Parliament of Norway. Since 1990, the prize is awarded on 10 December in Oslo City Hall each year.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 97

Hekistotherm plants are found in -

Solution: The plants that live in coastal deserts include saltbush, rice grass, black sage, and Chrysothamnus. Plants can even live in cold deserts, but you won't find as many here as in other types of deserts. Plants in cold deserts include algae, grasses, and plants with thin spiny leaves.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 98

Union Cabinet approved ________ for the Atal Bhujal Yojana.

Solution: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will launch Atal Bhujal Yojana in New Delhi. The Central Government scheme will promote Panchayat-led groundwater management and behavioural changes, focusing on demand-side management. Union Cabinet approved the 6,000 crore rupees scheme at a meeting.

The scheme will be implemented for 5 years in identified areas in Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.

Atal Bhujal Yojana has two major components. One is strengthening institutional arrangements for sustainable groundwater management in the States, including improving monitoring networks, capacity building, and strengthening of Water User Associations. The second is incentivising the States for achievements in improved groundwater management practices.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following organisations has unanimously passed the first-ever resolution ordering members to enforce laws against terror financing?

Solution: The UN Security Council has unanimously passed the first-ever resolution ordering members to enforce laws against terror financing.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 100

Minister of State for Health and Family Welfare Anupriya Patel has inaugurated the International Digital Health Symposium and an exhibition on Digital Health as a part of the Symposium in-

Solution: Minister of State for Health and Family Welfare Anupriya Patel has inaugurated the International Digital Health Symposium and an exhibition on Digital Health as a part of the Symposium in New Delhi. Where participant countries, along with various Government Ministries, states, and other stakeholders, showcased key innovations, implementation experiences, and innovative Digital Health Interventions.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 101

Net sectional area of a tension member is equal to its gross section area-

Solution: The net area at any section is equal to the gross area minus the deduction for holes at that section. The deduction for the hole is the product of the hole diameter and the thickness of the material.
QUESTION: 102

A web plate is called unstiffened if the ratio of clear depth and thickness is less than-

Solution: If the thickness is more than d/85, then no need to provide any type of stiffness. So 85 is correct.
QUESTION: 103

The best-suited rolled steel section for a tension member is

Solution:

The best-suited rolled steel section for a tension member is T-section.

QUESTION: 104

The commonly used line in white washing is:

Solution:

Fat lime is also known as high calcium lime or pure lime or rich lime or white lime. It is popularly known as fat lime as it slakes vigorously, and its volume is increased to about 2 to 2.5 times that of quick lime. This lime is used for various purposes: whitewashing, plastering of walls, as lime mortar with sand for pointing in masonry work, as a lime mortar with turki for thick masonry walls foundations, etc.

QUESTION: 105

Plywood is obtained by gluing wooden sheets at a pressure of:

Solution: Plywood is obtained by gluing wooden sheets at a pressure of 100 to 150 N/cm2 and a temperature of 100 to 130 degrees Celsius. Plywood is made up of three or more thin layers of wood. These layers are bonded together with an adhesive.
QUESTION: 106

Spalling stresses are produced in post-tensioned pre-stressed concrete members at-

Solution:

During prestressing, spalling stresses are generated in the region behind the loaded faces of anchor blocks. 

Spalling stress (bursting) occurs for the post-tensioned beam at the anchorage zone due to heavy bearing stress

At the zone between two anchorages, there is a volume of concrete surrounded by compressive stress. Forces are induced in the opposite direction to the applied forces and it forces the concrete out of the anchor block. On the other hand, the spalling stresses are set up owing to the strain compatibility relating to the effect of Poisson’s ratio. To prevent this, we use spalling reinforcement at locations of maximum bending moment

QUESTION: 107

Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly mixed concrete is known as-

Solution: Bleeding is a form of segregation where some of the water in the concrete tends to rise to the surface of the fresh concrete.
QUESTION: 108

A beam is defined as a structural member subjected to-

Solution: Generally, beams are placed in a transverse direction to the slab. In the direction parallel to the shorter span of the slab. Hence loading in the beam is transverse loading.
QUESTION: 109

In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities follow-

Solution: In PERT high stresses analysis, the time estimates of each activity follow (β) -distribution.
QUESTION: 110

If any tension reinforcement in an RC beam attains its yield stress during loading before the concrete in the compression zone fails due to crushing, the beam is said to be-

Solution: If any tension reinforcement in an RC beam attains its yield stress during loading before the concrete in the compression zone fails due to crushing, the beam is said to be under-reinforced.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 111

Quicksand is a:

Solution: Quicksand is a colloid consisting of fine granular material (such as sand, silt, or clay) and water—quicksand forms in saturated loose sand when the sand is suddenly agitated. When the water in the sand cannot escape, it creates liquefied soil that loses strength and cannot support the weight.
QUESTION: 112

Force method in structural analysis always ensures

Solution: The force method of analysis, also known as the method of consistent deformation, uses equilibrium equations and compatibility conditions to determine the unknowns in statically indeterminate structures. In this method, the unknowns are the redundant forces.
QUESTION: 113

The detention period for oxidation bonds is usually kept as :

Solution: between 10 to 15 days

Oxidation ponds have a long detention period between 10 to 15 days. Explanation: The BOD removal efficiency of an oxidation pond lies between 80% and 90%, so the maximum BOD removal efficiency is 90%.

QUESTION: 114

If the maximum bending moment of a simply supported slab is M kg-cm, the effective depth of the slab is-

Solution: If the maximum bending moment of a simply supported slab is M kg-cm, the adequate depth of the slab is; hence correct answer is option D.
QUESTION: 115

A tension member, if subjected to a possible reversal of stress due to wind, the slenderness ratio of the number should not exceed

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

Bitumen emulsion is :

Solution: Bitumen emulsion is a liquid product in which bitumen is suspended in a finely divided condition in an aqueous medium and stabilized by suitable material.
QUESTION: 117

The moisture content of a soil, below which the soil volume becomes constant, is called the :

Solution: The moisture content of soil below which the soil volume becomes constant is called the Shrinkage limit. The Shrinkage limit is the amount of water content within the soil, just enough to fill all the pores of the soil. At this point, the soil is saturated.
QUESTION: 118

The relation between coefficient of consolidation Cv, time factor TV, drainage path d, and time t is given by

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 119

Water cement ratio is generally expressed in volume of water required per-

Solution: Water cement ratio is generally expressed volume of water required per 50 Kg Cement.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 120

The symmetry of the stress tensor at a point in a body when at equilibrium is obtained from-

Solution: At the same time, according to the principle of conservation of angular momentum, equilibrium requires that the summation of moments with respect to an arbitrary point is zero, which leads to the conclusion that the stress tensor is symmetric, thus having only six independent stress components, instead of the original.
QUESTION: 121

A submerged weir is one in which the water level on the down streams side of the weir is :

Solution: When the water level on the downstream side of a weir is above the top surface of the weir, it is known as the submerged or drowned weir, as shown in the figure. The total discharge over such a weir is found out by splitting up the height of the water, above the sill of the weir, into two portions.
QUESTION: 122

The coefficient of curvature for a well-graded soil must be in the gauge-

Solution: For single-grained soil, cu & cc = 1.

Well graded soil cu = 5 & 1 < cc < 3.

Uniform Soil cu < 3.

cc is curvature coefficient.

cu is the uniformity coefficient.

QUESTION: 123

A circular shaft of diameter D is subjected to a torque T. The maximum shear stress of the shaft will be-

Solution:

tmax is inversely proportional to (D3)

QUESTION: 124

The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab is-

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against web buckling due to-

Solution: When a plate girder bends, its curvature creates vertical compression in the web is due to the downward vertical component of compression flange and the upward vertical component of tension flange bending stress. The web must have sufficient vertical buckling strength to withstand this squeezing effect.
QUESTION: 126

Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of different sizes should not be less than-

Solution: Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcements of the same size should not be less than one diameter. However, when compaction takes place, the minimum horizontal spacing is the diameter of the larger bar or 5 mm more than the maximum size of the core aggregate.
QUESTION: 127

For a continuous floor slab supported on beams, the ratio of end span length and intermediate span length is-

Solution: For a continuous floor slab supported on beams, the ratio of end span length and intermediate span length is 0.9
QUESTION: 128

Which of the following ingredients refer to binding materials of mortar?

1- Cement

2- Lime

3- Sand

4- Ashes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Mortar is a mixture of cement, sand. Aggregate and water. It may be in different-2 ratios. The setting time of cement is minimum in all those aggregates, and that is 30 minutes. So that’s why, in mortar, cement is the binding material.
QUESTION: 129

Lacing of compound steel columns-

Solution:

Double laced and Single Laced System Combined with Cross members.

QUESTION: 130

The effective length of a fillet weld is taken as the actual length-

Solution: The effective length of a fillet weld is taken as the actual length minus twice the size of the weld.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 131

The main ingredients of Portland cement are-

Solution: Portland cement is made up of four main compounds: tricalcium silicate (3CaO. SiO2), dicalcium silicate (2CaO⋅SiO2), tricalcium aluminate (3CaO⋅Al2O3), and a tetra-calcium aluminoferrite (4CaO⋅ Al2O3Fe2O3)
QUESTION: 132

The minor loss due to sudden contraction is due to :

Solution: The loss due to contraction is not for the contraction itself but due to the expansion followed by the contraction.
QUESTION: 133

In leveling operation :

Solution:

a) the first sight taken on changing point is foresight, not back sight.

b) the second sight on any changing point is back sight, not foresight.

c) line commences with a backsight and ends with a foresight.

Before shifting the instrument, the last sight is foresight which is taken on change point. After shifting the instrument, the first sight taken is taken on the same change point, i.e., back sight.

QUESTION: 134

Sandstone is :

Solution: Sandstone is a sedimentary rock formed from cemented sand-sized clasts. The cement that binds the clasts can vary from clay minerals to calcite, silica, or iron oxides.
QUESTION: 135

Nitrates more than 45 mg/l in water lead to a disease called-

Solution: Nitrate is not harmful as it is fully oxidized, but the concentration above 45mg/l can cause methemoglobinemia in infants.
QUESTION: 136

The ratio of liquid limit to plasticity index for a soil mass is called

Solution: The liquidity index (LI) is used for scaling the natural water content of a soil sample to the limits. It can be calculated as a ratio of the difference between natural water content, plastic limit, and liquid limit: LI=(W-PL)/(LL-PL) where W is the natural water content.
QUESTION: 137

Uniformity coefficient of a soil is:

Solution: The uniformity coefficient (Cu) is defined as the ratio of D60 to D10. A value of Cu greater than 4 to 6 classifies the soil as well graded. Uniformly graded soil has identical particles with a Cu value approximately equal to 1. A uniformity coefficient value of 2 or 3 classifies the soil as poorly graded.
QUESTION: 138

The accuracy of measurement in chain surveying does not depend upon-

Solution: The accuracy of measurement in chain surveying does not depend upon the general layout of the chain lines.

Length, Scale, and Features are important.

The general layout is because it doesn't matter how we deal with the plan or layout. Measured distance should be accurate.

QUESTION: 139

A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is-

Solution: A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is twice the mean size.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 140

Which compound of cement is responsible for the strength of cement?

Solution: Tricalcium aluminate is responsible for the initial setting or flash setting of cement. Tricalcium silicate is responsible for the hardening of cement in the initial one or two weeks. Dicalcium silicate is responsible for the hardening of cement for a long duration resulting in the maximum ultimate strength.
QUESTION: 141

The size of modular bricks are :

Solution: Standard Size of MODULAR BRICK = 19 × 9 × 9 cm.

NOMINAL size of MODULAR BRICK = 20 × 10 × 10 cm.

QUESTION: 142

For determining the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil, the recommended size of the square bearing plate used in the Plate load test is 30-75 cm with a minimum thickness of :

Solution: To determine the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil, the recommended size of the square bearing plate used in the Plate load test is 30-35 cm with a minimum thickness of 25mm.
QUESTION: 143

Undisturbed samples are obtained by :

Solution:

Soil samples are classified as disturbed and undisturbed samples.

Undisturbed samples: The soil samples in which original soil structure and mineral properties have not undergone any change are called undisturbed samples.

It is important in the identification of soil properties such as shear strength, water content, soil structure, consolidation properties, etc.

Disturbed sample: The soil samples in which original soil structure and mineral properties are destroyed during sampling operation are called disturbed samples.

They are used to study soil grain properties, in CBR test for highway construction, etc.

The extent of disturbance depends on cutting edge and inside wall friction of soil sampler.

The sampling tubes are of two types:-

a) Thin-walled sampler: These are used to obtain undisturbed samples. The sampler tube is pushed into the soil without any twisting.

b) Thick-walled sampler: These are used to obtain disturbed but representative samples. The sampler tube is twisted and pushed into the soil.

Important Points:

Direct excavations: It is a method of soil exploration. This method is generally used in small works and produces disturbed samples.

Augers- It is a boring method in which the boring is carried by an auger that is held vertically and pressed down shearing the soil around the auger.

QUESTION: 144

Air valves in a distribution system are provided at:

Solution: Air Valve Location Basically, air valves for exhausting air should be located at points on the pipeline to which air tends to be drawn or where air tends to collect. Air valves for air intake should be located at points on the pipeline that are most susceptible to sub-atmospheric pressures.
QUESTION: 145

Los Angeles machine is used to test the aggregate for-

Solution: Los Angeles Abrasion Test on Aggregates -Values for Pavements and Roads. Los Angeles abrasion test on aggregates is the measure of aggregate toughness and abrasion resistance such as crushing, degradation and disintegration.
QUESTION: 146

The length of the straight portion of a bar beyond the end of the hook should be at least-

Solution: As per IS 456 : 2000, clause 26.2.2.4 (b)

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 147

For a compression member with a double angle section, which of the following sections will given a larger value of the minimum radius of gyration ?

Solution: For a compression member with a double angle section, an Unequal angle with longs legs back-to-back sections will given a larger value of the minimum radius of gyration.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 148

Factor of safety is the ratio of-

Solution: Factor of safety =Yield stress/ working stress
QUESTION: 149

The commonly used thinner in oil paints,

Solution: Common solvents used as paint thinners include:
  • Mineral spirits (US) / White spirit (UK)

  • Acetone.

  • Turpentine.

  • Naphtha.

  • Toluene.

  • Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK)

  • Dimethylformamide (DMF)

  • 2-Butoxyethanol, or any of the other glycol ethers.

QUESTION: 150

The pitot tube is used to measure –

Solution: The Pitot tube (named after Henri Pitot in 1732) measures a fluid velocity by converting the flow’s kinetic energy into potential energy. The conversion takes place at the stagnation point, located at the Pitot tube entrance.
QUESTION: 151

The flow in the open channel is turbulent if the Reynolds Number is:

Solution: While laminar flow is "orderly," turbulent flow is "Random" and "Chaotic.” It is also found that a flow in a pipe is laminar if the Reynolds Number (based on the diameter of the pipe) is less than 2100 and is turbulent if it is greater than 4000.
QUESTION: 152

Rocks having alumina or clay as their major constituent are called

Solution: The rocks having alumina or clay as their major constituents, argillaceous rocks.

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 153

Crushing strength of good building stone should be more than:

Solution: Crushing strength or compressive strength of a stone is the load per unit area where the stone starts cracking. It should be greater than 1000 kg/cm2 to ensure sufficient strength for use in construction.
QUESTION: 154

The shrinkage of concrete-

Solution: Drying shrinkage is the contraction in the concrete caused by moisture loss from drying concrete. Shrinkage compensating concrete is used to minimize cracking and structural movement caused by drying shrinkage in concrete.
QUESTION: 155

Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported length does not exceed their least lateral dimension by-

Solution:
QUESTION: 156

The effective span of a simply supported slab is-

Solution:
QUESTION: 157

According to IS: 456 -1978, the thickness reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges is kept less than-

Solution: Answer is none of the above; as per IS 456: 2000, for footing on soil, edge thickness should not be less than 150 mm and, for piles, edge thickness should not be less than 300 mm.
QUESTION: 158

To the calculated area of cover plates of a built-up beam, an allowance for rivet holes to be added is-

Solution: To the calculated area of cover plates of a built-up beam, an allowance for rivet holes to be added is 13%.

13% is absolutely correct as per IS 800:2019.

QUESTION: 159

The enlarged head of the supporting column of a flat slab is called-

Solution: Drop panels are rectangular, just supported above the Capital. Capital is the enlarged shape to support the drop panel.
QUESTION: 160

In a plate girder, the web is primarily designed to resist-

Solution: The primary purpose of the web plate is to resist the shearing forces. These sections usually are more efficient in terms of steel weight than rolled sections, particularly when variable depth girders are used since they can be custom designed to suit requirements.
QUESTION: 161

The serviceability criterion for a plate girder design is based upon-

Solution: The serviceability criterion for a plate girder design is based upon the minimum thickness of the web.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 162

The distance between the centered of the area of tension reinforcement and the maximum compressive fiber in a reinforced concrete beam design is known as-

Solution:

QUESTION: 163

The Muller-Breslau principal for influence line is applicable for-

Solution: The principle states that the influence lines of action (force or moment) assumes the scaled form of the deflection displacement. OR, This principle states that "ordinate of ILD for a reactive force is given by ordinate of the elastic curve if a unit deflection is applied in the direction of the reactive force."
QUESTION: 164

Cross staff is used for:

Solution:
QUESTION: 165

Resins are:

Solution: Natural resins used for varnish include amber, kauri gum, dammar, copal, rosin (colophony or pine resin), sandarac, balsam, elemi, mastic, and shellac. Varnish may also be created from synthetic resins such as acrylic, alkyd, or polyurethane.
QUESTION: 166

Bernoulli's theorem deals with the law of conservation of:

Solution: Bernoulli's principle can be derived from the principle of conservation of energy. In a steady flow, this law states that the sum of all forms of energy in a fluid along a streamline. This requires that the sum of kinetic energy, potential energy, and internal energy remain on the web’s minimum thickness constant.
QUESTION: 167

The magnitude of the buoyant force can be determined by:

Solution: Archimedes Principle states that the buoyant force is equal to the weight of the displaced fluid and passes through the centre of mass of this displacement fluid
QUESTION: 168

I.S.I. has specified the full strength of concrete after-

Solution: I.S.I. has specified the full strength of concrete after 28 days.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 169

According to IS : 800-1962 the permissible bending stress in steel slab plates is-

Solution: Maximum permissible bending stress in Column is 0.75fy .

so that 0.75 × 250 = 1875 ~1890 Kg/cm2.

QUESTION: 170

A hinged support in a real beam-

Solution:

Conjugate Beam

Real Beam

So, hinged support in real beam remains as hinged support in the conjugate beam.

QUESTION: 171

The maximum permissible limit for fluoride in drinking water is :

Solution: According to WHO 1984 and Indian standard drinking water specification 1991 the maximum permissible limit of fluoride in drinking water is1.5 ppm, and highest desirable limit is 1.0 ppm. Fluoride concentrations above 1.5 ppm in drinking water cause dental fluorosis and much higher concentration skeletal fluorosis.
QUESTION: 172

Age of a tree may be ascertained by :

Solution: If you know when the tree was planted, you can easily and accurately determine its age. The second most accurate way to estimate tree age is to count the annual rings of wood growth. Annual rings can be counted using two different methods. You can extract an increment core from the tree using an increment borer.
QUESTION: 173

A manhole is generally provided at each:

Solution: A manhole is generally provided at each:
  • Bend

  • Junction

  • Change of gradient

QUESTION: 174

Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is-

Solution: Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is 200 ( km/cm2 ).

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 175

According to IS: 875 Part 3, desiring wind speed is obtained by multiplying the basic wind speed by factors (k1,k2) and (k3), where (k3) is-

Solution: According to IS: 875 Part 3, desiring wind speed is obtained by multiplying the basic wind speed by factors (k1,k2) and (k3), where (k3) is the topography factor.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 176

If the diameter of a capillary tube is doubled, the capillary rise will be :

Solution: The radius of a capillary tube is inversely proportional to the height of the liquid column. So, if the radius of the tube is doubled, the rise of the level of water will become half of the previous rise in the capillary tube.
QUESTION: 177

To measure static pressure in a pipe, one uses a pressure gauge connected to a:

Solution: A Pitot tube measures total pressure and static pressure to determine the velocity pressure from which air velocity can be derived. The Pitot tube is inserted into the duct with the tip pointed toward the airflow. The manometer will then display velocity pressure which can be converted to velocity.
QUESTION: 178

Flow of fluid takes place due to its:

Solution: Flow patterns in a fluid (gas or liquid) depend on three factors: the characteristics of the fluid, the speed of flow, and the shape of the solid surface. Three characteristics of the fluid are of special importance: viscosity, density, and compressibility.
QUESTION: 179

The distribution system in water supplies is designed on the basis of:

Solution: The distribution system in water supplies is designed based on the gravitational pull, such as the purified water in the gravity system flow wholly under gravity.
QUESTION: 180

Standard penetration resistance in very stiff clays lies between:

Solution: Standard penetration resistance in very stiff clays lies between 15 and 30.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 181

Good quality cement contains a higher percentage of :

Solution: The good quality of cement contains;

50% of tricalcium silicate- for rapid strength and quick setting of cement.

30% of dicalcium silicate- hardens slowly and is responsible for long term strength.

10% of tricalcium aluminate-quick action with water.

10% of tetra calcium Aluminoferrate.

5% of Gypsum.

QUESTION: 182

If d and n are the effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced beam, the lever arm of the beam is-

Solution: If d and n are the effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced beam, the lever arm of the beam is
QUESTION: 183

The method of design of steel framework for greatest rigidity and economy in weight is known as-

Solution: The method of design of steel framework for greatest rigidity and economy in weight is known as Fully rigid design.
QUESTION: 184

In an industrial steel building, which of the following elements of a pitched roof primarily resist loads parallel to the ridge?

Solution: Purloins resist lateral loads. The wind / horizontal load on a building acting on an end wall panel is dispersed through end wall framing into the continuous purloin system. The purloins transmit the load into the roof bracing and then through the eave purloin to the wall diagonal bracing on the adjacent wall and finally to the building foundation.
QUESTION: 185

Primary treatment of sewage consist of :

Solution:

Primary treatment removes material that will either float or readily settle out by gravity. It includes the physical processes of screening, comminution, grit removal, and sedimentation. Screens are made of long, closely spaced narrow metal bars. They block floating debris such as wood rags and other bulky floating debris such as wood, rags, and other bulky objects that could clog pipes or pumps.

QUESTION: 186

The difference between face and face right observation of a theodolite is 3'. The error is:

Solution: Error is half the difference between the face left and face right observation. This discussion on The difference between face left and face right observation of a theodolite is 3'.
QUESTION: 187

Cross, the hairs in surveying telescopes, are fitted :

Solution: The cross-hairs are attached to a ring, or short thick tube of brass, placed within the Telescope tube, through holes that pass loosely four screws, whose threads enter and take hold of the ring, behind or in front of the cross-hairs. Usually, one crosshair is horizontal, and the other vertical as in.
QUESTION: 188

Dry rot :

Solution: Dry rot, also known as brown rot, is wood decay caused by fungi, which can ruin any wooden structures inside or outside your home. When dry rot occurs, the fungi break down cellulose and hemicellulose, the components which give the wood strength and resilience.
QUESTION: 189

A sewer which receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called:

Solution: The building, or house, sewer is the smallest pipe in a wastewater collection system. Lateral sewer is the piping that receives the discharge from house sewers.
QUESTION: 190

For a tachometer, the additive and multiplying constants are:

Solution: The formula most widely used for finding the distances is

d = k × s + c.

Here, s is the stadia interval (top intercept minus bottom intercept); k and c are additive and multiplicative constants. Generally, the instrument is made so that k = 100 and c = 0 to simplify calculations.

QUESTION: 191

The moisture content in a well-seasoned timber is:

Solution: The moisture content in a well-seasoned timber is 10 to 12%.

According to IS 399:1963, the weight of the timber is specified at 12% moisture content.

QUESTION: 192

The concrete mix which causes difficulty in obtaining a smooth finish is known to possess-

Solution:
QUESTION: 193

Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is given by :

Solution: Sometimes it is also defined as the neutral lateral earth pressure or the lateral earth pressure at consolidated equilibrium. The ratio of lateral to vertical earth pressure in this “no lateral strain” condition is termed the coefficient of earth pressure at rest, K0 = σ31.
QUESTION: 194

Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is given by :

Solution: Coefficient of Earth Pressure at Rest

For a perfectly cohesionless soil, C = 0

If the soil normally consolidated (N.C. soil)

For overconsolidated soil (OC soil)

Where, (μ) = poisson's ratio (ϕ)= friction angle (IP) = plasticity index

O.C.R. = Over consolidated ratio