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NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - NDA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Mock Test Series 2025 - NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 for NDA 2025 is part of NDA (National Defence Academy) Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NDA exam syllabus.The NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 MCQs are made for NDA 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 below.
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NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response.

Cut no ice

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

The correct answer is "Have no influence or effect on"

Key Points

  • "Cut no ice" is an idiomatic expression that means have no influence or effect on. ("कट नो आइस" एक मुहावरेदार अभिव्यक्ति है जिसका अर्थ है कि कोई प्रभाव नहीं है।)
    • For example, "I tried to explain my point of view to the boss, but it cut no ice and he still made the decision that he wanted."

Let's see the meanings of the given words

  • "Feel sorry for someone" refers to feeling compassion or sympathy for someone who is in a difficult situation. ("किसी के लिए खेद महसूस करें" किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति के लिए करुणा या सहानुभूति महसूस करने को संदर्भित करता है जो कठिन परिस्थिति में है।)
    • For example, "I couldn't help but feel sorry for the homeless man on the street corner."
  • "Have no influence or effect on" refers to the lack of ability to change or impact a situation or person. It means that something or someone has no power to affect or sway the outcome. ("कोई प्रभाव नहीं है" किसी स्थिति या व्यक्ति को बदलने या प्रभावित करने की क्षमता की कमी को संदर्भित करता है। इसका अर्थ है कि किसी वस्तु या व्यक्ति के पास परिणाम को प्रभावित करने की शक्ति नहीं है।)
    • For example, "I tried to convince my friend to change his mind, but my words had no influence or effect on him."
  • "Feel too cold to do anything" refers to a physical feeling of being too cold to function or move. ("कुछ भी करने के लिए बहुत ठंडा महसूस करें" कार्य करने या स्थानांतरित करने के लिए कोई रूचि नहीं है इस भावना को संदर्भित करता है।)
    • For example, "It was so cold outside, I felt too cold to do anything but stay inside."
  • "Have a good influence on" refers to having a positive impact or effect on someone or something. ("किसी पर अच्छा प्रभाव है" का अर्थ किसी व्यक्ति या किसी चीज़ पर सकारात्मक प्रभाव या प्रभाव होना है।)
    • For example, "My mentor's guidance had a good influence on my professional development."

According to the meanings of the given words, the correct answer is Option 2, i.e., Have no influence or effect on.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response.

Barking up the wrong tree

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

The correct answer is 'Searching for something in the wrong place.'

Key Points

  • Barking up the wrong tree (idiom): It means to be pursuing something in the wrong way or focusing on the wrong thing. (गलत रास्ते पर चलना या गलत चीज पर ध्यान देना)
    • Example: "If you think I'm going to lend you money, you're barking up the wrong tree.
  • Searching for something in the wrong place: This option accurately captures the essence of the idiom, which is about looking for something where it isn't. (गलत जगह किसी चीज की तलाश करना)
    • Example: "I spent hours looking for my keys in the fridge; turns out they were in my pocket all along.
  • Hence, The correct idiom is 'Searching for something in the wrong place.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1.'

Additional Information

  • Training a dog to climb up - This is not the intended meaning of the idiom.
  • Following the correct path - This is the opposite of the idiom's meaning.
  • Avoiding confrontation - This has a different meaning altogether and doesn't relate to pursuing something incorrectly
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence has four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

the supreme court in its majesty (P) / Article 21 which deals with the right to life (Q) / and magnanimity has expounded (R) / profoundly the semantic sweep of (S).

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

The correct answer is "PRSQ".

Key Points

  • Segment P: This sets up the subject of the sentence, which is 'The Supreme Court'. The phrase describes the supreme court in a very dignified way ('in its majesty') and it creates an expectation for further information on what the supreme court did.
  • Segment R: This part uses 'and' to continue the description of the Supreme Court from segment P and introduces the action associated with the subject - the Supreme Court has expounded - indicating there's yet to be information on what exactly is being expounded.
  • Segment S: This sets up for the final segment by indicating what was expounded: the semantic sweep. However, it leaves open what this sweep refers to, leading logically to the next piece - segment Q.
  • Segment Q: This finishes the sentence by letting us know what the semantic sweep refers to - Article 21 dealing with the right to life.

Therefore, the correct answer is "option 4".

Rearranged sentence: "The Supreme Court in its majesty and magnanimity has expounded profoundly the semantic sweep of Article 21 which deals with the right to life."

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/groups of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response.

The team's cooperation was crucial to the project's success.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "crucial" means extremely important or necessary for the success or functioning of something. (अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण)
    • Example: Her role in the project was crucial for meeting the deadline.
  • "Critical" refers to something that is of great importance or essential to the outcome. (महत्वपूर्ण)
    • Example: It is critical to follow safety protocols in a laboratory.
  • Hence, we can infer that the word 'crucial' is nearest in meaning to 'critical'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Unimportant (महत्वहीन): Not significant or worthy of consideration.
    • Example: The minor errors in the report were unimportant to the overall findings.
  • Unnecessary (अनावश्यक): Not needed or required.
    • Example: Adding more details to the already comprehensive plan seemed unnecessary.
  • Trivial (तुच्छ): Of little value or importance.
    • Example: They quarreled over trivial matters, which could have been easily resolved.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

'besides being hazardous.

Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to the underlined word? 

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

The word opposite in meaning to the underlined word is 'harmless.'

Key Points

  • The word "hazardous" means dangerous or risky.
  • The term "harmless" is its antonym, as it signifies a lack of danger or harm.
  • Neither "nasty", "mortal", nor "pernicious" is the opposite of "hazardous". All these terms carry negative connotations.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 6

Direction: In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four options. Select the word that is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

He's very humble about his success.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 6

The correct answer is 'proud'.

Key Points

  • Let us see the meaning of humble:
    • Humble: not proud or haughty, having or showing a modest or low estimate of one's importance
  • Let us see the meanings of the given options:

  • From the meanings of the given words, we can say that the word 'proud' is the most opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'humble'.
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'proud'.

Additional Information

  • Let’s see the SYNONYMS of the given options:

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

Which among the following is SIMILAR in meaning to the word Misnomer as used in the passage?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

The word misnomer has been used in the passage in the sense that the image that is being created of abrogation of Section 370 being a bold decision is actually wrong since the government has not done it in the correct manner. It should have consulted the local political leaders before taking such a decision. This will have long lasting impact on the area and its people. Among the given options, it is easy to point out C as the correct meaning of the given word. Other words are not correct and can be eliminated.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

Each of the following questions consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly.

S1: The universe is a huge space that contains everything that exists.

S6: Proxima Centauri, the star closest to our solar system, is 4.2 light years from us, which means that light from this star takes 4.2 years to reach us.

P: The celestial bodies that we see are just a small fraction of the bodies that exist in the universe.

Q: To measure the large distances in the universe, scientists use a unit of length called the light year.

R: A light year is the distance traveled by light in one year and light travels 9.46 trillion km in a year.

S: The natural bodies in the sky are called celestial bodies or heavenly bodies, they are part of our universe.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

The correct answer is: SPQR

Key Points

  • Here, the first and last sentences are given.
  • Thus, it becomes easy to identify the second and fifth sentences.
  • The second sentence would be the continuation of the first.
  • Here, the first sentence mentions the idea of a 'universe'.
  • The second sentence is S. It mentions the celestial bodies that are part of the universe.
  • The third sentence is P. It talks further about the celestial bodies.
  • The fourth sentence is Q. It mentions a new concept of a light year.
  • The fifth sentence is R. It mentions the characteristics of a light year and also the last sentence gives us an idea about it.
  • Thus, option 4 is correct.

The correct passage is: The universe is a huge space that contains everything that exists. The natural bodies in the sky are called celestial bodies or heavenly bodies, they are part of our universe. The celestial bodies that we see are just a small fraction of the bodies that exist in the universe. To measure the large distances in the universe, scientists use a unit of length called the light year. A light year is the distance traveled by light in one year and light travels 9.46 trillion km in a year. Proxima Centauri, the star closest to our solar system, is 4.2 light years from us, which means that light from this star takes 4.2 years to reach us.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

Each of the following questions consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly.

S1: The Government of India has taken many measures to improve the dire situation of Climate Change.

S6: We need to follow the path of sustainable development to effectively address the concerns of climate change and we need to minimize the use of fossil fuels, which is the major cause of global warming.

P: India took several steps and policy initiatives to create awareness about climate change, and help capacity building for adaptation measures.

Q: It has initiated a “Green India” program under which various trees are planted to make the forest land more green and fertile.

R: The Ministry of Environment and Forests is the nodal agency for climate change issues in India.

S: It has initiated several climate-friendly measures, particularly in the area of renewable energy.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

The correct answer is: RSPQ

Key Points

  • Here, the first and last sentences are given.
  • Thus, it becomes easy to identify the second and fifth sentences.
  • The second sentence would be the continuation of the first.
  • Here, the first sentence mentions the idea of 'climate change'.
  • The second sentence is R. It mentions the facts associated with India on climate change, which also forms the continuation of the first sentence.
  • The third sentence is S. It talks about the undertakings of the Government of India on Climate change.
  • The fourth sentence is P. It is a continuation of S.
  • The last sentence is Q. It further mentions the undertakings.
  • Thus, option 2 is correct.

The correct passage is: The Government of India has taken many measures to improve the dire situation of Climate Change. The Ministry of Environment and Forests is the nodal agency for climate change issues in India. It has initiated several climate-friendly measures, particularly in the area of renewable energy. India took several steps and policy initiatives to create awareness about climate change, and help capacity building for adaptation measures. It has initiated a “Green India” program under which various trees are planted to make the forest land more green and fertile. We need to follow the path of sustainable development to effectively address the concerns of climate change and we need to minimize the use of fossil fuels, which is the major cause of global warming.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

Each of the following questions consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly.

S1: The concept of nirvana occupies a unique place in Buddhist thought – not just because it represents the culmination of the Buddhist path, and not just because it represents the nicest imaginable place to be, but also because of the way it straddles the two sides of Buddhism.

S6: That’s a particularly common view of the kind of Buddhist meditation known as mindfulness meditation – which is sometimes packaged in the frankly therapeutic form of ‘mindfulness-based stress reduction’.

P: These are the ideas that form the core of the ‘secular Buddhism’ that is practiced by many in the West.

Q: There is, on the one hand, the naturalistic side of Buddhism, featuring ideas that would fit easily into a college psychology or philosophy course.

R: Indeed, so naturalistic, so ‘secular’, is this set of ideas that some people see Buddhist meditation as more of a therapeutic than a spiritual undertaking, as basically palliative and not too profound.

S: On the other hand, there are ideas about the nature of the mind, the causes of human suffering, and how we should live our lives in light of these realities.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

The correct answer is: QSPR

Key Points

  • Here, the first and last sentences are given.
  • Thus, it becomes easy to identify the second and fifth sentences.
  • The second sentence would be the continuation of the first.
  • Here, the first sentence mentions the idea of 'Nirvana' in Buddhism.
  • The second sentence is Q. It mentions the facts associated with Nirvana, which also forms the continuation of the first sentence.
  • The third sentence is S. It begins with 'on the other hand', which comes after 'on the one hand'.
  • The fourth sentence is P. It suggests the ideas foretold.
  • The fifth sentence is R. The last sentence forms a continuation of it.
  • Thus, option 2 is correct.

The correct passage is S1. The concept of nirvana occupies a unique place in Buddhist thought – not just because it represents the culmination of the Buddhist path, and not just because it represents the nicest imaginable place to be, but also because of the way it straddles the two sides of Buddhism. Q. There is, on the one hand, the naturalistic side of Buddhism, featuring ideas that would fit easily into a college psychology or philosophy course. S. On the other hand, there are ideas about the nature of the mind, the causes of human suffering, and how we should live our lives in light of these realities. P. These are the ideas that form the core of the ‘secular Buddhism’ that is practiced by many in the West. R. Indeed, so naturalistic, so ‘secular’, is this set of ideas that some people see Buddhist meditation as more of a therapeutic than a spiritual undertaking, as basically palliative and not too profound. S6. That’s a particularly common view of the kind of Buddhist meditation known as mindfulness meditation – which is sometimes packaged in the frankly therapeutic form of ‘mindfulness-based stress reduction’.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

Directions: In this section, each item consists of six sentences. The first and sixth sentences are marked as S1 and S6. The four sentences between S1 and S6 have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S. This is followed by four options, each suggesting a sequence of sentences. Identify the most appropriate option and mark your response.

S1: COVID-19 a health catastrophe that caused great distress.

S6: It triggered the movement of more than 7 million people through lockdown and post-lockdown periods.

P: India also undertook the Vande Bharat Mission.

Q: Made-in-India vaccines were sent to more than 90 countries on a commercial and grant basis.

R: India justified its credentials as a global HADR player deploying Rapid Response Teams to Maldives, Kuwait and Mauritius launching the multiphased mission SAGAR.

S: During the pandemic, India re-established its credentials as the Pharmacy of the World by supplying medicines and equipment to over 150 countries in the face of daunting logistical challenges.

The correct sequence should be

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

The correct answer is "Option A".

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the final sentence (S6) are given. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response.

S1: A gentleman trying to get a fly out of the milk or a piece of cork out of his glass of wine often imagines himself to be irritated.
P: Again, I have known some people of very modem views driven by their distress to the use of theological terms to which they attached no doctrinal significance, merely because a drawer was jammed tight and they could not pull it out.
Q: Everyday his drawer was jammed, and everyday in consequence it was something else that rhymes to it.
​R: A friend of mine was particularly afflicted in this way
S: Let him think for a moment of the patience of anglers sitting by dark pools, and let his soul be immediately irradiated with gratification and repose.
S6: But I pointed out to him that this sense of wrong was really subjective and relative; it rested entirely upon the assumption that the drawer could, should, and would come out easily.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

The correct answer is "SPRQ"

Key Points

  • Sentence S1 mentions that a gentleman trying to get a fly out of his milk or a piece of cork out of his wine often imagines himself to be irritated.
  • Sentence S mentions that a friend of the speaker was particularly afflicted by this sense of irritation and frustration when everyday his drawer was jammed.
  • Sentence P explains that the speaker has known people of very modern views who were driven to use theological terms due to their distress when a drawer was stuck and they couldn't pull it out.
  • Sentence R says that the sense of wrong that people feel in these situations is subjective and relative, and it rests on the assumption that the drawer should come out easily.
  • Sentence Q adds that everyday when the drawer was stuck, it was something else that rhymes with it.
  • Sentence S6 advises the gentleman to think of the patience of anglers sitting by dark pools and let his soul be "immediately irradiated with gratification and repose."
  • When the sentences are put in this order, they form a coherent and logical paragraph about irritation, frustration, and the subjective nature of these emotions.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Correct paragraph: S1 A gentleman trying to get a fly out of the milk or a piece of cork out of his glass of wine often imagines himself to be irritated. S Let him think for a moment of the patience of anglers sitting by dark pools, and let his soul be immediately irradiated with gratification and repose. P Again, I have known some people of very modem views driven by their distress to the use of theological terms to which they attached no doctrinal significance, merely because a drawer was jammed tight and they could not pull it out. ​R A friend of mine was particularly afflicted in this way Q Everyday his drawer was jammed, and everyday in consequence it was something else that rhymes to it. S6 But I pointed out to him that this sense of wrong was really subjective and relative; it rested entirely upon the assumption that the drawer could, should, and would come out easily.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

Consider the following statements with respect to Tropical Deciduous Forests in India :

1. They spread over regions that receive rainfall between 50-70 cm.

2. Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogany, ebony, etc.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Key Points

Tropical Deciduous Forests:

  • These are the most widespread forests in India.
  • They are also called monsoon forests.
  • They spread over regions that receive rainfall between 70-200 cm.
    • Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous.
  • Moist Deciduous Forests:
    • They are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 100-200 cm.
    • These forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of the Himalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and Odisha.
    • Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, Kusum and sandalwood, etc. are the main species of these forests.
  • Dry Deciduous Forest:
    • They cover vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm.
    • On the wetter margins, it has a transition to the moist deciduous, while on the drier margins to thorn forests.
    • These forests are found in rainier areas of the Peninsula and the plains of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
  • In the higher rainfall regions of the Peninsular plateau and the northern Indian plain, these forests have a parkland landscape with open stretches in which teak and other trees interspersed with patches of grass are common.
  • As the dry season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely and the forest appears like a vast grassland with naked trees all around.
  • Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests.
  • In the western and southern parts of Rajasthan, vegetation cover is very scanty due to low rainfall and overgrazing.

Important Points

Tropical Evergreen Forests -

  • These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • They are found in warm and humid areas with annual precipitation of over 200 cm and a mean annual temperature above 22 degrees C.
  • Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by a tall variety of trees.
  • In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above.
  • There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flower, and fruition. As such these forests appear green all year round.
  • Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogany, aini, ebony, etc.
    • Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

A dentist uses a small concave mirror with a focal length of 1.6 cm to observe a cavity in a patient's tooth. The mirror is held 8 mm (0.8 cm) from the cavity. What is the magnification produced by the mirror?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

Given:

  • Focal length (f) = 1.6 cm
    (Since it's a concave mirror, focal length is negative, so f = -1.6 cm)

  • Object distance (u) = -0.8 cm
    (Object is real, so u is negative)

Mirror Formula:

1/f = 1/v + 1/u

Substitute the values:

1/(-1.6) = 1/v + 1/(-0.8)

Now solve step-by-step:

1/(-1.6) = -0.625
1/(-0.8) = -1.25

So,

-0.625 = 1/v - 1.25

Now move -1.25 to the left side:

1/v = -0.625 + 1.25
1/v = 0.625

Now take reciprocal:

v = 1 / 0.625 = 1.6 cm

Now, find magnification (m):

m = -v / u
m = -1.6 / (-0.8)
m = 2

Final Answer: b) 2

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

Which one among the following substances is a compound?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

The correct answer is Sugar.
Key Points
Sugar is a compound made up of three atoms:

  • carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
  • Since these three atoms are chemically linked to each other, they form a compound in nature.
  • When sugar is added to water in the required amount it becomes a true solution, if excess sugar is added to water it leads to saturation.

We can classify the given substances as-

Additional Information

  • A substance that is made up of two or more elements and joined by bonds is a term compound.
  • A chemical compound is a chemical substance made up of many identical molecules containing atoms of more than one chemical element held together by chemical bonds.
    • Therefore, a molecule containing atoms of only one element is not a compound.
  • Mixture:
    • It is a compound made of one or more pure substances.
    • It is a homogenous and heterogenous mixture.
      • Homogenous: This mixture is one in which particles are evenly mixed.
      • Heterogeneous: This mixture is one in which particles are not evenly mixed.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

An object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will remain in motion until and unless it is acted upon by an external force. This is Newton's –​

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

Newton's first law of motion -sometimes referred to as the law of inertia-states that every object will remain at rest or in uniform  motion in a straight line unless compelled to change its state by the action of an external force. This is normally taken as the definition of inertia.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

The use of fuses in electric power-lines is :

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

A fuse is used to break the circuit,in order to protect the electrical appliances from damage. In case of overcurrent a fuse melts and breaks the circuit and stops the current flowing through the components. A fuse is made up of a thin material which has a low melting point.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

Arrange the following battles in their correct Chronological order

A. Battle of Arbela

B. Battle of Pallalur

C. Battle of Tarain

D. Battle of Takkolam

E. Battle of Hydaspes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

The correct chronological order is A, E, B, D, C.

Key Points

  • Battle of Arbela (331 BC):
    • This was a major battle in which Alexander the Great defeated the Persian army of Darius III.
    • It took place near the city of Arbela (modern-day Erbil, Iraq).
  • Battle of Hydaspes (326 BC):
    • This was a battle between Alexander the Great and the Indian king Porus.
    • It took place near the Hydaspes River (modern-day Jhelum River, Pakistan).
  • Battle of Pallalur(618 AD):
    • ​The Battle of Pullalur was a battle fought between the Chalukya king Pulakesin II and the Pallava king Mahendravarman I in the town of Pullalur in about 618–19.
  • Battle of Takkolam(948 AD):
    • ​The Battle of Takkolam was a military engagement between a contingent of troops led by Rajaditya, crown prince and eldest son of the Chola king Parantaka I.
    • Another led by the Rashtrakuta king Krishna III at Takkolam in southern India.
  • Battle of Tarain (1192 AD):
    • This was a battle between the Ghurid Empire and the Chauhan dynasty of northern India.
    • It took place near the town of Tarain (modern-day Thanesar, India).
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 19
The Grand Order of the Chain of the Yellow Star is the highest civilian honour of which among the following countries?
Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

The correct answer is Suriname.Key Points

  • The Honorary Order of the Yellow Star," and it is indeed the most prestigious state decoration in the Republic of Suriname.
  • This order is awarded to individuals who have made significant contributions to the Surinamese people or the nation.
  • Additionally, it's noteworthy that President Droupadi Murmu recently became the first Indian to receive the Grand Order of the Chain of the Yellow Star.
  • The establishment of the order in 1975, coinciding with Suriname's independence, and its replacement of the Dutch Order of the Netherlands Lion mark important milestones in the country's history.

Additional Information

  • Order of King Abdulaziz Al Saud: Saudi Arabia
  • State Order of Ghazi Amir Amanullah Khan: Afghanistan
  • Grand Collar of the State of Palestine: Palestine
  • Order of Zayed: United Arab Emirates
  • Order of St. Andrew: Russia
  • Order of the Distinguished Rule of Izzuddin: Maldives
  • King Hamad Order of the Renaissance: Bahrain
  • Legion of Merit: United States
  • Order of the Dragon King: Bhutan
  • Order of Fiji: Fiji
  • Order of Logohu: Papua New Guinea
  • Order of the Nile: Egypt
  • Legion of Honour: France
  • Order of Honour: Greece
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

Which of the following properties of a proton can change while it moves freely in a magnetic field ?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

Each moving charged particle in a magnetic field experiences a force. The direction of force experienced by a positive charge is given by Fleming's left hand rule. The force acting on the proton would change both velocity and momentum. 

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 21
What did Mahatma Gandhi advise the farmers of Kheda to do in response to their crop failure?
Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 21
In response to the crop failure in Kheda, Mahatma Gandhi advised the farmers to withhold payment of full land revenue until their demand for remission was met. This advice laid the foundation for the Kheda Satyagraha.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

Which of the following statements about the International Court of Justice is/are correct?

1. The Court consists of members, wherein two members cannot be nationals of the same State.

2. The General Assembly and the Security Council proceed independently of one another to elect the members of the Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsThe International Court of Justice (ICJ)

  • The ICJ, also known as the World Court, is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN).
  • It was established in 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in 1946.
  • The court's role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted by states, and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized UN organs and specialized agencies.
  • The Court consists of 15 judges, elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These two bodies vote simultaneously but independently of each other, and candidates need to obtain an absolute majority in both to be elected.
  • No two judges may be nationals of the same country at the time of their election, ensuring the representation of the main forms of civilization and the principal legal systems of the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The General Assembly and the Security Council are involved in the election process of the ICJ judges. They proceed independently of one another to elect the members of the Court. This unique voting arrangement was designed to ensure the independence of the judiciary from the political organs of the United Nations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • The ICJ is located in the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).
  • It is the only one of the six principal organs of the United Nations not located in New York City.
  • This setting underscores its independence from the political operations of the United Nations.
  • Only countries (states) may be parties in cases before the ICJ, which has led to a significant body of case law on issues such as land disputes, maritime boundaries, and diplomatic relations.
  • The ICJ's advisory role also plays a critical function in the development and interpretation of international law. Advisory opinions have covered a wide range of legal issues, including the legality of nuclear weapons, the legality of the threat or use of nuclear weapons, and the legal consequences of the construction of a wall in the Occupied Palestinian Territory.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

If the RBI decides to adopt a contractionary monetary policy, which of the following would it do?

1. Increase Statutory Liquidity Ratio

2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate

3. Sells government securities

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

A contractionary monetary policy

  • It is implemented by increasing key interest rates thus reducing market liquidity (money supply).
  • Low market liquidity usually negatively affects production and consumption. This may also have a negative effect on economic growth.
  • When RBI adopt a contractionary monetary policy, the central bank
    • increase Policy Rates (Interest Rates) like Repo, Reverse Repo, MSF, Bank Rate etc.
    • increase Reserve Ratios like Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
    • sells government securities from the market as part of Open Market Operations (OMO) – taking out liquidity from the market. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Raising SLR makes banks park more money in government securities and reduce the level of cash in the economy. Doing the opposite helps maintain cash flow in the economy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • With the increase in MSF Rate, the cost of borrowing increases for banks resulting in reduced available resources to lend. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

Which one among the following countries is not part of the Arabian Peninsula?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

The correct answer is Jordan.
Key Points
Geographical Location

  • The Arabian Peninsula is a prominent peninsula in Southwest Asia, at the junction of Africa and Asia.
  • Kuwait, Oman, and Yemen are countries located on the Arabian Peninsula, making them part of this geographic region.
  • Jordan, however, is situated to the northwest of Saudi Arabia, making it not part of the Arabian Peninsula but rather part of the Levant region in the Middle East.
  • The Arabian Peninsula is surrounded by the Red Sea to the west and southwest, the Persian Gulf to the northeast, and the Arabian Sea to the southeast.
  • The significance of the Arabian Peninsula lies not only in its strategic geographical location but also in its rich oil reserves, making it a vital area of economic and geopolitical interest.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • The Levant is a geographical term that denotes a large area in the Eastern Mediterranean, which includes countries like Jordan, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine, and Syria.
  • The Arabian Peninsula is mostly desert, with the Rub' al Khali (Empty Quarter) being one of the largest continuous sand deserts in the world.
  • The region is historically significant as the birthplace of Islam, with the two holiest cities in Islam, Mecca and Medina, located in Saudi Arabia.
  • Geopolitically, the Arabian Peninsula has been a focal point in global affairs due to its vast petroleum and natural gas reserves, influencing both regional and international politics.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

Which two new species of springtails were recently discovered by scientists in India?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

The two new species of springtails discovered by scientists are Salina aurantiamaculata and Salina pseudomontana. This discovery is significant as it adds to the biodiversity of India and highlights the role of Collembola in maintaining healthy ecosystems, as they contribute to soil health and nutrient cycling.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

Where is the famous Gupta period Deogarh Temple situated?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.
Key Points
The Dashavatara Temple is an early sixth-century Hindu temple of Lord Vishnu, located at Deogarh in Uttar Pradesh, 125 kilometers from Jhansi, in the Betwa River valley in north-central India.
Additional Information
The Gupta period: The Golden Age of Indian Art”.

  • The famous Gupta sculpture style appears to have evolved from the Kushan style.
  • The Gupta period (4th-6th century BC) marks the heyday of art in India. Gupta's art is marked by high aesthetic sense and discipline.
  • The main centers of Buddhist art during this period were Mathura, Sarnath and Nalanda in the north.
  • Sculptures of the Gupta period are the sculptures of Vishnu in the rock-cut caves at Udayagiri, Samath, Dhamek Stupa at Bhitargaon, Buddhist caves at Ajanta, Ahichchhatra and the Dashavatara temple at Deogarh.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

What is a key feature of the AI for India 2.0 Programme?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

A key feature of the AI for India 2.0 Programme is its provision of free online training in Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) in multiple vernacular languages. This initiative aims to enhance accessibility for youth from diverse linguistic backgrounds, ensuring that technology education is inclusive and attainable for all.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

What was the main concern raised regarding the electoral roll revision in Bihar?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

The main concern raised regarding the electoral roll revision in Bihar was the allegations of disenfranchisement, particularly affecting marginalized groups such as the poor, minorities, and migrants. Critics pointed out that outdated electoral laws do not account for internal migration, leading to significant deletions from electoral rolls and thus limiting these groups' participation in elections.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

In the context of the National Cooperative Policy 2025, what is one of the goals set for the cooperative sector?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

One of the key goals set by the National Cooperative Policy 2025 is to increase the cooperative sector's contribution to GDP threefold by 2034. This initiative aims to enhance the institutional capacity of cooperatives and engage a larger segment of the population in cooperative activities, thereby promoting economic growth and self-reliance in rural areas.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

What is a notable feature of the Palna Scheme launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

A notable feature of the Palna Scheme is that it provides crèche facilities for children aged 6 months to 6 years, catering to all mothers regardless of their employment status. This initiative aims to enhance childcare services and support early childhood development, ensuring a safe and nurturing environment for young children.

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