NDA General Ability Mock Test - 4 - NDA MCQ

The correct answer is Option (C) i.e. RPSQ
Key Points

• The sentence begins with "The National Education Policy-2020 envisages a restructuring of existing curriculum," which introduces the main subject and action, and is correctly indicated by part (R) followed by (P).
• Following the introduction, "and pedagogy in schools and colleges" (S) specifies where the restructuring will take place.
• The next part, "following the liberal approach" (Q) completes the thought by explaining the approach that will guide the restructuring.

Therefore, the correct answer is RPSQ.
Additional Information

• Option A (SRQP): This option disrupts the logical flow by placing "following the liberal approach" before "the National Education Policy-2020 envisages," making the sentence less coherent.
• Option B (PQRS): This option starts with "and pedagogy in schools and colleges," which doesn't properly introduce the main subject of the sentence.
• Option D (RQSP): This option disrupts the logical structure by separating "a restructuring of existing curriculum" from "following the liberal approach," making the sentence less clear.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "convivial" means friendly, lively, and enjoyable. (मिलनसार, जीवंत और आनंददायक)
  • Example: The convivial host made everyone feel at home.
• "Cheerful" refers to being noticeably happy and optimistic. (प्रसन्न और आशावादी)
  • Example: She has a cheerful personality that brightens everyone's day.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Gloomy (उदासीन): Feeling or showing sadness or depression.
  • Example: The gloomy weather made everyone feel down.
• Boring (उबाऊ): Not interesting; tedious.
  • Example: The lecture was so boring that several students fell asleep.
• Quiet (शांत): Making little or no noise.
  • Example: The library was quiet enough to hear a pin drop.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (fluency).

Key Points

• The word eloquence means fluent or persuasive speaking or writing. (वक्तृत्व कला)
  • Example: The politician's eloquence won him many supporters.
• Fluency refers to the ability to express oneself easily and articulately. (धारा प्रवाहता)
  • Example: Her fluency in multiple languages makes her an excellent translator.
• Hence, we can infer that the nearest in meaning to 'eloquence' is 'fluency'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (fluency).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Inarticulateness (अस्पष्टता): Lack of ability to express oneself clearly.
  • Example: His inarticulateness made it difficult for the audience to understand his point.
• Awkwardness (अजीबता): Lack of grace or skill in movement or expression.
  • Example: His awkwardness in social situations often led to uncomfortable silences.
• Simplicity (सरलता): The quality or condition of being easy to understand or do.
  • Example: The simplicity of his explanation made the complex topic easy to grasp.

Altruistic' means 'unselfishly concerned for or devoted to the welfare of others'.

The correct answer is 'denial'.

Key Points

• The word 'assertion' refers to a confident and forceful statement of fact or belief. ('स्थापना' or 'दावा').
  • Example: He continued to make his assertion of innocence despite the evidence against him.
• The word 'denial' refers to a statement or assertion that something is not true or does not exist. ('इनकार' or 'नकार').
  • Example: Despite video evidence of the event, he remained in denial about what had occurred.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

• 'Insistence', refers to the act of insisting or demanding something firmly. ('दृढ़ निश्चय').
• 'Averment', refers to the declaration of a statement as a fact. ('प्रमाणीकरण').
• 'Statement', refers to a fixed or definite written or spoken expression. ('बयान').

The given word:

Discernible: visible or noticeable

Immobile: stationary

Vagabond refers to a wanderer

Imperceptible: something so slight, gradual, or subtle which can not to be perceived easily.

Thus, the two words are exact opposites of each other.

Refer to: ‘Mr. Bolsonaro’s critics say that his economic and environmental policies have virtually set the stage for intensifying degradation of the Amazon’s rich biodiversity.’

Deforestation is the main cause of the fires while it is a mix of economic and environmental policies that have led to worsening the rainforest.

The correct answer is "PSQR".

Key Points

• S1 sets the stage for a discussion on how climate zones affect weather patterns.
• "P" provides a basis for these zones, explaining they depend on location and altitude.
• "S" broadly categorizes climates into three types, naturally following from the explanation in "P".
• "Q" details the first of these types, tropical climate, fitting after the categories are introduced.
• "R" introduces temperate climates, which logically follows "Q" and precedes the polar climates mentioned in S6.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option a'.

The correct answer is 'Option C'.

So shows the result of following a complicated recipe successfully. The other options suggest contrast or simultaneity.

Thus indicates the result of completing tasks despite a hectic day. The other options suggest contrast or addition.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

Thermal Inversion:

• Typically, the temperature drops as elevation rise. It's known as the usual lapse rate.
• The typical lapse rate can occasionally be flipped when the circumstances are reversed.
• It is referred to as a temperature inversion.
• Inversions are often brief but nonetheless relatively frequent.
• An optimal environment for an inversion is a long winter night with calm air and clear skies.
• By early morning, the earth is colder than the atmosphere because the heat of the day has dissipated during the night.
• Temperature inversion is typical year-round over polar regions.
• Inversion at the surface encourages stability in the lower atmosphere.
• Smoke and dust particles gather and spread horizontally to cover the lower layers of the atmosphere.
• Morning-dense fogs are the result of inversion, especially throughout the winter.
• Due to the flow of air, an inversion occurs on hills and mountains.
• Gravity causes the cold air in the hills and mountains to flow at night. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Due to its weight and density, the cold air travels down the hill to accumulate in valley bottoms.
• It pushes the pockets with warm air above.
• It is known as valley inversion. It guards against frost damage to plants.

Role of Inversion in Delhi Pollution:

• It typically occurs when the sky is clear and the breeze is gentle and tranquil.
• When the warm air rises, cooler air beneath an inversion cannot escape since it is lower in temperature.
• As a result, the pollutants are trapped closer to the ground rather than dispersed higher in the atmosphere.
• A drop in temperature lowers the inversion height.
• It is the level beyond which pollutants cannot permeate into the upper atmosphere.
• The warmer layer covers the cooler air that is in touch with the ground and where contaminants are concentrated.
• The smog is a result of this circumstance. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The correct answer is 1

Key PointsMedicine and Related Practices in Medieval India

• The Graeco-Arabic tradition of medicine, also known as Tibb-i-Yunani, was highly influenced by Greek and Arab medicinal knowledge. It was indeed quite similar to contemporary Persian medicine in terms of practice and theory.
  • This tradition was brought to India through Persian and Arab traders and scholars. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• William Harvey's discovery of the circulation of blood was a significant advancement in medical science during the 17th century. Francois Bernier, a French traveler and physician, who spent a considerable time at the Mughal court, did discuss European medical discoveries with Indian scholars, including such groundbreaking works.
  • However, the statement as it stands lacks specific details on whether Harvey's discovery was explained in the given context. Despite this, Bernier's interactions indicate a flow of medical knowledge from Europe to India. This makes the interpretation of statement 2 challenging without additional context, but it aligns with historical exchanges.
• The practice of smallpox inoculation, known as variolation, was indeed present in India before it was introduced to the Western world. This practice was observed by European travelers and documented in their accounts.
  • However, referring to it as a part of "Yunani Ayurvedic texts" may be misleading, as Ayurveda and Yunani are two distinct traditional systems of medicine in India, with Ayurveda being indigenous and Yunani of Greek-Arabic origin. Hence, statement 3's wording is imprecise, as it conflates two separate traditions.

Additional Information

• The Yunani system of medicine emphasizes the balance of bodily fluids and their harmony for health, drawing from Hippocratic and Galenic principles.
  • It was enriched by the works of Persian and Arab physicians and became a part of the scholarly and practical medical landscape in medieval India.
• Ayurveda, meaning 'the science of life', is one of the world's oldest holistic healing systems. It was developed more than 3,000 years ago in India.
  • It is based on the belief that health and wellness depend on a delicate balance between the mind, body, and spirit.
• Smallpox inoculation in India predates Edward Jenner's development of the smallpox vaccine in the late 18th century. This practice demonstrated an early understanding of disease prevention through exposure to a controlled dose of the disease agent.
  • This historical instance highlights the rich tradition of medical knowledge and practices in India, contributing to global health advancements.

The correct answer is C_nH_2n-2

Explanation

• C_nH_2n-2 = This is the general formula for alkynes. It means that for every "n" carbon atoms in the alkyne molecule, there are 2n-2 hydrogen atoms.
  • Ethyne (C₂H₂) follows this formula. It has 2 carbon atoms (n = 2), and according to the formula, it should have 2(2) - 2 = 2 hydrogen atoms, which it does (2 hydrogen atoms for each carbon, totaling 4 hydrogen atoms).
• C_nH_2n = This formula represents alkenes, not alkynes. Alkenes have carbon-carbon double bonds, and their general formula is CₙH₂ₙ
• CₙH₂ₙ₊₂ = This formula represents alkanes, not alkynes. Alkanes have only single bonds between carbon atoms, and their general formula is CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
• C_nH_n-2 = It doesn't correspond to the structure or characteristics of alkynes, alkenes, or alkanes.

• Going from fluorine to chlorine, to bromine and then to iodine, the electronegatively decreases.
• It is defined as the ability of an atom in a chemical Compound to attract a shared electron to itself.
• The electronegativity increases across the period from left to right
• Example: Lithium to Fluorine.
• The electronegativity decreases down the group.
• Example: Fluorine to Astatine.
• Pauling Scale is widely used to measure electronegativity.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

• The 'Matki' dance form has been developed by nomadic tribes in Madhya Pradesh.
• Performed using a “small pitcher” is a folk dance originating from central India known as the “Matki Dance”.
  • This “pitcher dance” belongs to the state of Madhya Pradesh, and is mainly performed in the Malwa region.

Important Points

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Deuteron, nucleus of deuterium (heavy hydrogen) that consists of one proton and one neutron.
• Deuterons are formed chiefly by ionizing deuterium (stripping the single electron away from the atom) and are used as projectiles to produce nuclear reactions after accumulating high energies in particle accelerators.

Additional Information

ISOTOPES:

• Atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons are called isotopes.
  • They are elements with the same atomic number but different mass numbers since the atomic number equal the number of protons and the atomic mass equal the sum of protons and neutrons.
• Isotopes are various forms of the same element.
• Protium ₁H¹, deuterium ₁H² or D, and finally tritium ₁H³ or T are the three hydrogen isotopes.
• There are no neutrons in protium, but one neutron is present in deuterium and two neutrons are present in tritium.
• Protium is the most common type of hydrogen, with deuterium accounting for 0.0156 per cent of all hydrogen on the planet's surface.
• The concentration of tritium is one atom per 1018 protium atoms.
• The only tritium, out of these three hydrogen isotopes, is radioactive in nature and releases low-energy b particles.

• ANOTHER EXAMPLE OF ISOTOPE -
  • carbon - 12, Carbon -13, Carbon - 14 are the three isotopes of Carbon.
• ISOBAR:
  • Isobars are chemical atoms of various elements. Isobar comes from the Greek words isos, which means "equal," and bars, which means "weight." Isobars share the same number of nucleons, implying that they share the same mass number. They do, however, vary in atomic number (that is the number of protons).
  • The 40S, 40Cl, 40Ar, 40K, and 40Ca are examples of a sequence of isobars.
  • While all of these nuclides have 40 nucleons, the number of Protons and Neutrons in their nuclei varies.

The correct answer is Option C.

Key Points

• Cooling Principles
  • When attempting to cool something quickly, the effectiveness of heat transfer and the conditions that facilitate it are crucial.
  • A combination of conduction (direct contact with cooler substances) and convection (movement of air) will enable faster cooling.
• Best Option: Bowl of Water with Fan
  • Keeps the bowl of rice in a bowl of water at room temperature enhances heat transfer due to conduction between the rice and the cooler water.
  • Operating a ceiling fan (or table fan) at full speed promotes convection, where moving air helps to carry away the absorbed heat from the water.
  • This combination of conducting heat to the cooler water and removing this water's heat through airflow provides the most efficient cooling method among the given options.

Additional Information

• Heat capacity of water: Water has one of the highest specific heat capacities among common substances, which is why it is an excellent medium for cooling. This property allows water to absorb a lot of heat before its temperature rises significantly.
• Conduction vs. Convection:
  • Conduction is the process of heat transfer through direct contact between materials at different temperatures. It's very effective in cooling solid foods quickly when immersed in liquids.
  • Convection involves the movement of heat through fluids (liquids or gases) caused by molecular motion. While effective in air-cooling systems, its efficiency is highly dependent on the airflow and the surface area exposed to the cool air.
• Food safety: Rapid cooling of cooked foods is crucial in food safety. Bacteria grow most rapidly in the range of temperatures between 40°F and 140°F, doubling in number in as little as 20 minutes. Quick cooling reduces the time food spends in this "danger zone".

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

Amendments of Fundamental Rights in India

• Fundamental Rights are not sacrosanct or permanent.
• The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be done without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The majority of the provisions in the Constitution need to be amended by a special majority of the Parliament, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50%) of the total membership of each House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of each House present and voting. Both Fundamental Rights and DPSPs can be amended with this special majority. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

Additional Information

The following provisions can be amended in this way:

• Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).
• Representation of states in Parliament.
• Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
• Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
• Supreme Court and high courts.
• The extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
• Election of the President and its manner.

The Correct Answer is ​​To allow the public to report election code violations.

In News

• Election Commission launched CVIGIL App to supervise election process.

Key Points

• The CVIGIL app has allowed the public to report election code violations via photos/videos.
• It has enabled the reporting of Model Code of Conduct and expenditure breaches.
• CEC Rajiv Kumar has assured action on reports within 100 minutes.
• The app will connect vigilant citizens with District Control Room, Returning Officer and Flying Squads Teams, making the electoral system more transparent.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key PointsThe International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)

• The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a key international treaty that aims to ensure the protection of civil and political rights globally. It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1966 and came into force in 1976.
• One of the fundamental principles laid out in the ICCPR is that everyone shall have the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law. This underscores the importance of legal identity and ensures that every individual is recognized as a person with rights under the law. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• India is one of the countries that has ratified the ICCPR, demonstrating its commitment to upholding civil and political rights as outlined in the covenant. Ratification means that India has agreed to be legally bound by the terms of the covenant and has incorporated its provisions into domestic law. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The ICCPR along with the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), form the so-called International Bill of Human Rights, a comprehensive set of international treaties and declarations intended to protect and promote human rights globally.
• Upon ratification, countries are required to submit regular reports to the UN Human Rights Committee, a body of independent experts that monitors compliance with the ICCPR. This ensures that states are held accountable for their human rights records.
• The ICCPR covers a wide range of civil and political rights, including the right to life, freedom of speech, freedom of religion, voting rights, rights to a fair trial, and protection against torture and other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.
• In addition to ratifying the ICCPR, countries can also sign optional protocols associated with the treaty. For instance, the First Optional Protocol allows individuals to submit complaints to the Human Rights Committee if they believe their rights under the Covenant have been violated.
• India's ratification of the ICCPR signifies its pledge to adhere to international standards regarding civil and political rights. It also reflects India's recognition of the importance of human rights on the global stage and its role in promoting these rights both domestically and internationally.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsUnderstanding Angular and Linear Velocity

• Angular velocity refers to the rate at which an object rotates or revolves relative to another point, essentially how fast an object spins around its axis. For the Earth, this means how quickly it rotates on its axis.
  • The Earth completes one rotation about its axis in approximately 24 hours, making the angular velocity constant for all locations on Earth's surface. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Linear velocity, on the other hand, indicates the rate at which an object moves along a path. For any point on the Earth's surface, this is determined by the rotational velocity and the distance from the axis of rotation.
  • Since the Earth is wider at the equator, points on the equator travel a greater distance in one rotation (24 hours) compared to points near the poles, resulting in higher linear velocities at the equator and lower at the poles. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The concept of angular velocity is fundamental in various fields such as astronomy, physics, and engineering, explaining phenomena like day and night cycles, seasonal changes, and the functioning of various mechanical and navigational instruments.
  • It is crucial for understanding the dynamics of rotating systems in space, such as galaxies, solar systems, and planets.
• Linear velocity has practical applications in areas like aviation, where it helps in calculating the speed required for aircraft to take off or land depending on their direction of movement relative to the Earth's rotation.
• Equatorial bulge is a phenomenon associated with the Earth’s rotation, where the equator experiences a slight outward bulge due to centrifugal force. This bulge affects the Earth's gravitational field slightly but is significant enough to influence satellite orbits and sea levels.
• The differences in linear velocity across the Earth's surface have implications for phenomena such as the Coriolis effect, which influences weather patterns, ocean currents, and even the flight paths of long-distance projectiles.

Nickel silver is a copper alloy with nickel and oft6n. zinc. The usual formulation is 60% copper, 20% nickel and 20% zinc. Nickel silver is named for its silvery appearance, but it contains no elemental silver unless plated. The name "German silver" refers to its development by 19th-century German metalworkers in imitation of the Chinese alloy known as paktong (Cupronickel) All modern, commercially important nickel silvers (such as those standardized under ASTM B 122) contain significant amounts of zinc, and are sometimes considered a subset of brass.

The correct answer is All three

Key Points

Poona Sarvajanik Sabha:

• It was founded in 1867 by Mahadeo Govind Ranade and others, with the objective of serving as a bridge between the government and the people. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
• It also worked for the legal rights of the peasants.
• Many prominent leaders of the Freedom struggle like, Lokmanya Tilak were members of this organization.

Bombay Presidency Association:

• It was started by Badruddin Tyabji, Pherozshah Mehta, and K.T. Telang in 1885. Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
• It was formed in opposition to Ilbert Bill and Lytton’s other reactionary policies.

Madras Mahajan Sabha:

• It was founded in 1884 by M. Viraraghavachari, B. Subramaniya Aiyer, and P. Anandacharlu. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
• The organization took a moderate stance on opposing govt policies in the beginning.

Additional Information

Bombay Association (Bombay Native Association):

• In 1852, Jagannath Shankersheth started the Bombay Association along with Sir Jamshedji Jejibhai, Jagannath Shankarshet, Naoroji Fursungi, Dr. Bhau Daji Lad, Dadabhai Naoroji, and Vinayak Shankarshet.

• This is also called the first political party/organization in Bombay Province.

• They too aimed to address public grievances through Legal agitational means.

Madras Native Association:

• Formed by Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1849 in Madras Presidency.
• It was the First Political Organisation in Madras

A bullet-proof material is made of polyethylene. It is a higher grade of the plastic found in Tupperware.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

Circum-Pacific Belt

• It is a path along the Pacific Ocean characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.
• It is also known as the Pacific ring of fire.
• It is largely a result of Plate Tectonics where the massive Pacific Plate interacts with less-dense plates surrounding it.
• The Ring of Fire is the result of tectonic plates which are huge slabs of the Earth’s crust, fitting together like pieces of a puzzle.
• Sometimes these moving plates collide, move apart, or slide next to each other, which leads to the formation of convergent, divergent or transform boundaries (respectively). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The majority of Earth’s volcanic eruptions and earthquakes take place along the Ring of Fire.
• The Ring of Fire is home to more than 450 active and dormant volcanoes (75% of Earth’s total volcanoes) forming a semicircle or horseshoe around the rim of the Pacific Ocean. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Most of the active volcanoes on the Ring of Fire are found on its western edge, from Russia to New Zealand.
• The next most seismically active region (5-6% of earthquakes) is the Alpide belt (which extends from the Mediterranean region, eastward through Turkey, Iran, and northern India.
• The Ring of Fire is stretched to approximately 40,000 kilometres (24,900 miles) tracing boundaries between several tectonic plates including the Pacific, Juan de Fuca, Cocos, Indian-Australian, Nazca, North American, and Philippine Plates.
• The chain runs up along the western coast of South and North America crosses over the Aleutian Islands in Alaska and runs down the eastern coast of Asia past New Zealand and into the northern coast of Antarctica.
• Bolivia, Chile, Ecuador, Peru, Costa Rica, Guatemala, Mexico, United States, Canada, Russia, Japan, Philippines, Australia, Papua New Guinea, Indonesia, New Zealand, and Antarctica are some of the important places located in the ring of the fire.

​

The correct answer is R. Lakshmi Kanth Rao

In News

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has appointed R Lakshmi Kanth Rao as executive director (ED) effective from May 10, 2024.

Key Points

• Rao will be responsible for handling the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), the Right to Information Act (FAA), and the Department of Communication in his role as executive director.
• Previously, Rao served as chief general manager in charge in the Department of Regulation at the RBI.
• With over 30 years of experience at the RBI, Rao has worked in various areas including regulation of banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), supervision of banks, and consumer protection.
• Rao has also served as a banking ombudsman at RBI Chennai and as regional director of Uttar Pradesh in Lucknow.
• He has been a member of several committees and working groups contributing to policy formulation.
• Rao holds a commerce degree and a master’s degree in business administration (finance) from Sri Venkateswara University, Tirupati, along with a diploma in TIRM (IIBF). He is also a certified associate of the IIBF.